Search Results

Search found 24011 results on 961 pages for 'call me dummy'.

Page 294/961 | < Previous Page | 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301  | Next Page >

• Paste or Drop, copy data and release source?

  - by Harvey

  I have an MFC DocView SDI App that receives data from either the clipboard or drag and drop. The data is in either CF_HDROP or CF_TEXT format. I have a COleDropTarget derived CMyDropTarget member m_dropTarget of my CMainFrame class. I have two member functions of CMyDropTarget; OnDrop(...) and OnPaste() which each call another member function PostData(pDataObject). I want to get a copy of the pDataObject from either CF_... format and PostMessage to my CmainFrame which will call a member of my Doc class. What is a simple way of getting a copy of the global data to pass with the PostMessage() so that I can get the drop source released before I get around to processing the global data? NOTE that they are always treated as a copy of the source data, so there is no need for the source to delete anything when the operation is done. Or perhaps a better way of asking the question is: How can I release the Drop source before processing the global data? Can I pass the HGLOBAL via PostMessage and still release the source without making a copy of it?

  Read the article

• Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

  - by Brann

  I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

  Read the article

• Facing error in apple multitasking code

  - by user366584

  Actually I am working for multitasking and facing error please assist me, as I need to work on background application and also in foreground application - (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication *)application { UIApplication* app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; // Request permission to run in the background. Provide an // expiration handler in case the task runs long. NSAssert(bgTask == UIBackgroundTaskInvalid, nil); bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ // Synchronize the cleanup call on the main thread in case // the task actually finishes at around the same time. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(), ^{ if (bgTask != UIBackgroundTaskInvalid) { [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; } }); }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. // Synchronize the cleanup call on the main thread in case // the expiration handler is fired at the same time. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(), ^{ if (bgTask != UIBackgroundTaskInvalid) { [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; } }); }); }

  Read the article

• NSOperations or NSThread for bursts of smaller tasks that continuously cancel each other?

  - by RickiG

  Hi I would like to see if I can make a "search as you type" implementation, against a web service, that is optimized enough for it to run on an iPhone. The idea is that the user starts typing a word; "Foo", after each new letter I wait XXX ms. to see if they type another letter, if they don't, I call the web service using the word as a parameter. The web service call and the subsequent parsing of the result I would like to move to a different thread. I have written a simple SearchWebService class, it has only one public method: - (void) searchFor:(NSString*) str; This method tests if a search is already in progress (the user has had a XXX ms. delay in their typing) and subsequently stops that search and starts a new one. When a result is ready a delegate method is called: - (NSArray*) resultsReady; I can't figure out how to get this functionality 'threaded'. If I keep spawning new threads each time a user has a XXX ms. delay in the typing I end up in a bad spot with many threads, especially because I don't need any other search, but the last one. Instead of spawning threads continuously, I have tried keeping one thread running in the background all the time by: - (void) keepRunning { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; SearchWebService *searchObj = [[SearchWebService alloc] init]; [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] run]; //keeps it alive [searchObj release]; [pool release]; } But I can't figure out how to access the "searchFor" method in the "searchObj" object, so the above code works and keeps running. I just can't message the searchObj or retrieve the resultReady objects? Hope someone could point me in the right direction, threading is giving me grief:) Thank you.

  Read the article

• is back_insert_iterator<> safe to be passed by value?

  - by afriza

  I have a code that looks something like: struct Data { int value; }; class A { public: typedef std::deque<boost::shared_ptr<Data> > TList; std::back_insert_iterator<TList> GetInserter() { return std::back_inserter(m_List); } private: TList m_List; }; class AA { boost::scoped_ptr<A> m_a; public: AA() : m_a(new A()) {} std::back_insert_iterator<A::TList> GetDataInserter() { return m_a->GetInserter(); } }; class B { template<class OutIt> CopyInterestingDataTo(OutIt outIt) { // loop and check conditions for interesting data // for every `it` in a Container<Data*> // create a copy and store it for( ... it = ..; .. ; ..) if (...) { *outIt = OutIt::container_type::value_type(new Data(**it)); outIt++; // dummy } } void func() { AA aa; CopyInterestingDataTo(aa.GetInserter()); // aa.m_a->m_List is empty! } }; The problem is that A::m_List is always empty even after CopyInterestingDataTo() is called. However, if I debug and step into CopyInterestingDataTo(), the iterator does store the supposedly inserted data!

  Read the article

• Help with jQuery Validation plugin and a form that uses 'panels'

  - by alex

  I have a form that works in 'sections' that I will refer to as 'panels'. By default, the form is listed out on the page, one panel after the other. However, with JavaScript, it puts the panels into one panel viewer, and displays them one after the other (with prev/next buttons). Example Form Workflow Panel 1: User Details - Panel 2: User Location - Panel 3: User Info - Panel 4: Confirm Details I am using the jQuery Validation plugin. My problem is, I have set up all the rules for all the inputs in the first 3 panels, and I'd like to be able to only validate a subset of them per panel. Example, when pushing 'next panel' after completing name & email (in the 1st, user details panel), I'd like to do a validation only on that panel first, and then get a boolean response (if the 1st panel validated), and if true, then proceed to the next panel. I've played around with a bit of the config, but unfortunately could not get it to work as I wanted. This is my first project with this plugin so I'm quite new to it! Is there a way to add rules dynamically to the plugin? i.e. not on $('form').validate(options) ? What I'd like to do, is call the validate() on the form, with all the error messages, and then on the 'next panel' code, do a switch case to determine which rules to add, and then call a validate() myself.

  Read the article

• Recursion in prepared statements

  - by Rob

  I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

  Read the article

• GAE Simple Request Handler only run once

  - by Hiro

  Good day! https://developers.google.com/appengine/docs/python/gettingstarted/helloworld this is the hello world that I'm trying to run. I can seeing the Hello, world! Status: 500 message. however it will be turned to a "HTTP Error 500" after I hit the refresh. and... it seems that the appengine only shows me the good result once after I re-save either app.yaml or helloworld.py This is the trace for the good result Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 187, in Handle handler = _config_handle.add_wsgi_middleware(self._LoadHandler()) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 239, in _LoadHandler raise ImportError('%s has no attribute %s' % (handler, name)) ImportError: <module 'helloworld' from 'D:\work\[GAE] tests\helloworld\helloworld.pyc'> has no attribute app INFO 2012-06-23 01:47:28,522 dev_appserver.py:2891] "GET /hello HTTP/1.1" 200 - ERROR 2012-06-23 01:47:30,040 wsgi.py:189] and this is the trace for the Error 500 Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 187, in Handle handler = _config_handle.add_wsgi_middleware(self._LoadHandler()) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 239, in _LoadHandler raise ImportError('%s has no attribute %s' % (handler, name)) ImportError: <module 'helloworld' from 'D:\work\[GAE] tests\helloworld\helloworld.pyc'> has no attribute app INFO 2012-06-23 01:47:30,127 dev_appserver.py:2891] "GET /hello HTTP/1.1" 500 - here's my helloworld.py print 'Content-Type: text/plain' print '' print 'Hello, world!' my main.py. (app is used instead of application) import webapp2 class hello(webapp2.RequestHandler): def get(self): self.response.out.write('normal hello') app = webapp2.WSGIApplication([ ('/', hello), ], debug = True) and the app.yaml application: helloworld version: 1 runtime: python27 api_version: 1 threadsafe: true handlers: - url: /favicon\.ico static_files: favicon.ico upload: favicon\.ico - url: /hello script: helloworld.app - url: /.* script: main.app libraries: - name: webapp2 version: "2.5.1" any clue what's causing this? Regards,

  Read the article

• Strange problem with PHP and sessions

  - by Jhorra

  So the basis of this page is I set a session value when the page loads, and clear it on any other page they visit. Then the page can make an ajax call to download a file. If the session value matches the value I pass through the URL I allow them to download the file. If not I return a 404 error. I was having some weird issues, so I removed the 404 and set it to echo out the values instead to see what I was getting. Here is the top of the code on the page: $code = $this->_request->getParam('code'); $confirm = $_SESSION['mp3_code']; echo $code."-1-".$confirm; if($code != $confirm) echo $code."-2-".$confirm;//header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found"); else { Here is what displays on the page from the ajax call 12723430-1-12723430-2- As you can see when it echos out the first time they exist, then somehow after I compare them and it fails you see that it echos out blank values like they suddenly ceased to exist. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• c# multi inheritance

  - by user326839

  So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

  Read the article

• Fitting title for my position

  - by lithander

  In the last 2 years my company has developed a boxed and full-price computer game. All the software development has been done collaboratively by me and my co-developer. We know each other from university and got hired at the same day to equal conditions and we share the same responsibilites including the decisions of what technology to license and how to spend development resources and even how team-workflow is organized. But I struggle to find the correct wording for my position. Can I call myself a senior developer with only 3 years working-experience? Can I call myself lead programmer if I don't really have a team to "lead"? All these fancy names used in the industry (Technical Lead, Development Lead, Software Architect) seem to imply that you aren't actually coding anymore or have staff under you. On the other hand titles like "Programmer" or "Software Engineer" seem to imply that there's someone between you and the project management. That makes it hard to fill out a resume or even the badges you typically wear on conferences... people tend to judge you by your title and I'd like to avoid confusion where possible.

  Read the article

• performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

  - by oldbeamer

  Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

  Read the article

• What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

  - by s093294

  Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

  Read the article

• Objective-C subclass and base class casting

  - by ryanjm.mp

  I'm going to create a base class that implements very similar functions for all of the subclasses. This was answered in a different question. But what I need to know now is if/how I can cast various functions (in the base class) to return the subclass object. This is both for a given function but also a function call in it. (I'm working with CoreData by the way) As a function within the base class (this is from a class that is going to become my subclass) +(Structure *)fetchStructureByID:(NSNumber *)structureID inContext:(NSManagedObjectContext *)managedObjectContext {...} And as a function call within a given function: Structure *newStructure = [Structure fetchStructureByID:[currentDictionary objectForKey:@"myId"]]; inContext:managedObjectContext]; Structure is one of my subclasses, so I need to rewrite both of these so that they are "generic" and can be applied to other subclasses (whoever is calling the function). How do I do that? Update: I just realized that in the second part there are actually two issues. You can't change [Structure fetch...] to [self fetch...] because it is a class method, not an instance method. How do I get around that too?

  Read the article

• Utility of List<T>.Sort() versus List<T>.OrderBy() for a member of a custom container class

  - by ccomet

  I've found myself running back through some old 3.5 framework legacy code, and found some points where there are a whole bunch of lists and dictionaries that must be updated in a synchronized fashion. I've determined that I can make this process infinitely easier to both utilize and understand by converging these into custom container classes of new custom classes. There are some points, however, where I came to concerns with organizing the contents of these new container classes by a specific inner property. For example, sorting by the ID number property of one class. As the container classes are primarily based around a generic List object, my first instinct was to write the inner classes with IComparable, and write the CompareTo method that compares the properties. This way, I can just call items.Sort() when I want to invoke the sorting. However, I've been thinking instead about using items = items.OrderBy(Func) instead. This way it is more flexible if I need to sort by any other property. Readability is better as well, since the property used for sorting will be listed in-line with the sort call rather than having to look up the IComparable code. The overall implementation feels cleaner as a result. I don't care for premature or micro optimization, but I like consistency. I find it best to stick with one kind of implementation for as many cases as it is appropriate, and use different implementations where it is necessary. Is it worth it to convert my code to use the LINQ OrderBy instead of using List.Sort? Is it a better practice to stick with the IComparable implementation for these custom containers? Are there any significant mechanical advantages offered by either path that I should be weighing the decision on? Or is their end-functionality equivalent to the point that it just becomes coder's preference?

  Read the article

• Is there a default way to get hold of an internal property in jQueryUi widget?

  - by prodigitalson

  Im using an existing widget from the jquery-ui labs call selectmenu. It has callback options for the events close and open. The problem is i need in these event to animate a node that is part of the widget but not what its connected to. In order to do this i need access to this node. for example if i were to actually modify the widget code itself: // ... other methods/properties "open" : function(event){ // ... the original logic // this is my animation $(this.list).slideUp('slow'); // this is the orginal call to _trigger this._trigger('open', event, $this._uiHash()); }, // ... other methods/properties However when in the scope of the event handler i attach this is the orginal element i called the widget on. I need the widget instance or specifically the widget instance's list property. $('select#custom').selectmenu({ 'open': function(){ // in this scope `this` is an HTMLSelectElement not the ui widget } }); Whats the best way to go about getting the list property from the widget?

  Read the article

• Producing a Form from an Overlay from Reporting Services rdlc Reports

  - by Mike Wills

  I am not sure what you call it in other technologies, on the IBM i (or iSeries) we call it overlays. The overlay is an image of a form that is stored on the server then a program generates the form with fields from the database so you can eliminate preprinted forms. I had a problem last year with the method I was trying at the time. It was a rush job at the time to be revisited at a later point. The work-around at the time was to export to PDF. So now it is "later" and once again is a rush (imagine that). This is all done through a web-based interface. So how do you generate forms from something that was once a preprinted form? What method do you recommend? This is a legal form and must be filled out a certain way and can have many in a batch (up to 50 or so). I would prefer to not have them print one page at a time. Any ideas would be appreciated!

  Read the article

• Why don't copy this dokument attributes from the source xml file??

  - by siegfried storr

  Hi anyone, i'm working the first time with xslt and i really don't understand why this xsl don't copy attributes from the source xml. Perhaps someone can give me a hint?? <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output omit-xml-declaration="yes" indent="yes"/> <xsl:variable name="rpl" select="document('ParamInvoice.xml')"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="* | @*"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="*"> <xsl:variable name="vInvoiceElement" select="$rpl/StoraInvoice/*[name()=name(current())]"/> <xsl:copy> <xsl:if test="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"> <xsl:call-template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:with-param name="pAttr" select="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:if> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:param name="pAttr"/> <xsl:for-each select="$pAttr"> <xsl:attribute name="{@name}"><xsl:value-of select="."/></xsl:attribute> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

  Read the article

• Java downcasting and is-A has-A relationship

  - by msharma

  HI, I have a down casting question, I am a bit rusty in this area. I have 2 clasess like this: class A{ int i; String j ; //Getters and setters} class B extends A{ String k; //getter and setter} I have a method like this, in a Utility helper class: public static A converts(C c){} Where C are objects that are retireved from the database and then converted. The problem is I want to call the above method by passing in a 'C' and getting back B. So I tried this: B bClasss = (B) Utility.converts(c); So even though the above method returns A I tried to downcast it to B, but I get a runtime ClassCastException. Is there really no way around this? DO I have to write a separate converts() method which returns a B class type? If I declare my class B like: class B { String k; A a;} // So instead of extending A it has-a A, getter and setters also then I can call my existing method like this: b.setA(Utility.converts(c) ); This way I can reuse the existing method, even though the extends relationship makes more sense. What should I do? Any help much appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

  - by code-gijoe

  I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

  Read the article

• Using a string inside the DocumentBuilder parse method (need it for parsing XML using XPath)

  - by dierre

  Hi guys! I'm trying to create a RESTful webservice using a Java Servlet. The problem is I have to pass via POST method to a webserver a request. The content of this request is not a parameter but the body itself. So I basically send from ruby something like this: url = URI.parse(@host) req = Net::HTTP::Post.new('/WebService/WebServiceServlet') req['Content-Type'] = "text/xml" # req.basic_auth 'account', 'password' req.body = data response = Net::HTTP.start(url.host, url.port){ |http| puts http.request(req).body } Then I have to retrieve the body of this request in my servlet. I use the classic readline, so I have a string. The problem is when I have to parse it as XML: private void useXML( final String soft, final PrintWriter out) throws ParserConfigurationException, SAXException, IOException, XPathExpressionException, FileNotFoundException { DocumentBuilderFactory domFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); domFactory.setNamespaceAware(true); // never forget this! DocumentBuilder builder = domFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = builder.parse(soft); XPathFactory factory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = factory.newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile("//software/text()"); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; for (int i = 0; i < nodes.getLength(); i++) { out.println(nodes.item(i).getNodeValue()); } } The problem is that builder.parse() accepts: parse(File f), parse(InputSource is), parse(InputStream is). Is there any way I can transform my xml string in an InputSource or something like that? I know it could be a dummy question but Java is not my thing, I'm forced to use it and I'm not very skilled.

  Read the article

• Function with parameter type that has a copy-constructor with non-const ref chosen?

  - by Johannes Schaub - litb

  Some time ago I was confused by the following behavior of some code when I wanted to write a is_callable<F, Args...> trait. Overload resolution won't call functions accepting arguments by non-const ref, right? Why doesn't it reject in the following because the constructor wants a Test&? I expected it to take f(int)! struct Test { Test() { } // I want Test not be copyable from rvalues! Test(Test&) { } // But it's convertible to int operator int() { return 0; } }; void f(int) { } void f(Test) { } struct WorksFine { }; struct Slurper { Slurper(WorksFine&) { } }; struct Eater { Eater(WorksFine) { } }; void g(Slurper) { } void g(Eater) { } // chooses this, as expected int main() { // Error, why? f(Test()); // But this works, why? g(WorksFine()); } Error message is m.cpp: In function 'int main()': m.cpp:33:11: error: no matching function for call to 'Test::Test(Test)' m.cpp:5:3: note: candidates are: Test::Test(Test&) m.cpp:2:3: note: Test::Test() m.cpp:33:11: error: initializing argument 1 of 'void f(Test)' Can you please explain why one works but the other doesn't?

  Read the article

• Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

  - by williamjones

  I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

  Read the article

• Why is JavaMail Transport.send() a static method?

  - by skiphoppy

  I'm revising code I did not write that uses JavaMail, and having a little trouble understanding why the JavaMail API is designed the way it is. I have the feeling that if I understood, I could be doing a better job. We call: transport = session.getTransport("smtp"); transport.connect(hostName, port, user, password); So why is Eclipse warning me that this: transport.send(message, message.getAllRecipients()); is a call to a static method? Why am I getting a Transport object and providing settings that are specific to it if I can't use that object to send the message? How does the Transport class even know what server and other settings to use to send the message? It's working fine, which is hard to believe. What if I had instantiated Transport objects for two different servers; how would it know which one to use? In the course of writing this question, I've discovered that I should really be calling: transport.sendMessage(message, message.getAllRecipients()); So what is the purpose of the static Transport.send() method? Is this just poor design, or is there a reason it is this way?

  Read the article

• Download dynamic file with GWT

  - by Maksim

  I have a GWT page where user enter data (start date, end date, etc.), then this data goes to the server via RPC call. On the server I want to generate Excel report with POI and let user save that file on their local machine. This is my test code to stream file back to the client but for some reason I think it does not know how to stream file to the client when I'm using RPC: public class ReportsServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements ReportsService { public String myMethod(String s) { File f = new File("/excelTestFile.xls"); String filename = f.getName(); int length = 0; try { HttpServletResponse resp = getThreadLocalResponse(); ServletOutputStream op = resp.getOutputStream(); ServletContext context = getServletConfig().getServletContext(); resp.setContentType("application/octet-stream"); resp.setContentLength((int) f.length()); resp.setHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename*=\"utf-8''" + filename + ""); byte[] bbuf = new byte[1024]; DataInputStream in = new DataInputStream(new FileInputStream(f)); while ((in != null) && ((length = in.read(bbuf)) != -1)) { op.write(bbuf, 0, length); } in.close(); op.flush(); op.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } return "Server says: " + filename; } } I've red somewhere on internet that you can't do file stream with RPC and I have to use Servlet for that. Is there any example of how to use Servlet and how to call that servlet from ReportsServiceImpl. Do I really need to make a servlet or it is possible to stream it back with my RPC?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301  | Next Page >