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  • Proxy settings with ivy...

    - by user315228
    Hi, I have an issue where in I have defined dependancies in ivy.xml on our internal corporate svn. I am able to access this svn site without any proxy task in ant. While my dependencies resides on ibiblio, that’s something outside our corporate, and needs proxy inorder to download something. I am facing problem using ivy here: I have following in build.xml <target name="proxy"> <property name="proxy.host" value="xyz.proxy.net"/> <property name="proxy.port" value="8443"/> <setproxy proxyhost="${proxy.host}" proxyport="${proxy.port}"/> </target> &lt;!-- resolve the dependencies of stratus --&gt; &lt;target name="resolveTestDependency" depends="testResolve, proxy" description="retrieve test dependencies with ivy"&gt; &lt;ivy:settings file="stratus-ivysettings.xml" /> &lt;ivy:retrieve conf="test" pattern="${jars}/[artifact]-[revision].[ext]"/&gt;<!--pattern here specifies where do you want to download lib to?--> </target> <target name=" testResolve "> <ivy:settings file="stratus-ivysettings.xml" /> <ivy:resolve conf="test" file="stratus-ivy.xml"/> </target> Following is the excerpt from stratus-ivysettings.xml <resolvers <!-- here you define your file in private machine not on the repo (e.g. jPricer.jar or edgApi.jar)-- <url name="privateFS" <ivy pattern="http://xyz.svn.com/ivyRepository/[organisation]/ivy/ivy.xml"/ </url . . . <url name="public" m2compatible="true" <artifact pattern="http://www.ibiblio.org/maven2/[organisation]/[module]/[revision]/[artifact]-[revision].[ext]"/ </url . . . So as can be seen here for getting ivy.xml, I don’t need any proxy as its within our own network which cant be accesses when I set proxy. But on the other hand I am using ibiblio as well which is external to our network and works only with proxy. So above build.xml wont work in that case. Can somebody help here. I don’t need proxy while getting ivy.xml (as if I have proxy, ivy wont be able to find ivy file behind proxy from within the network), and I just need it when my resolver goes to public url.

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  • jQuery Ajax (beforeSend and complete) working properly on FireFox but not on IE8 and Chrome

    - by Farhan Zia
    I am using jQuery ajax version 1.4.1 in my MVC application (though the issue I am discussing was same with the old jQuery version 3.2.1) as well, to check during customer registration if the username is already registered. As the user clicks on the "Check Availibility" button, I am showing a busy image in place of the check button (actually hiding the check button and showing the image) while checking the availibility on the server and then displaying a message. It is a Sync call (async: false) and I used beforeSend: and complete: to show and hide the busy image and the check button. This thing is working well on Firefox but in IE 8 and Chrome, neither the busy image appear nor the check button hides rather the check button remained pressed as the whole thing has hanged. The available and not available messages appear correctly though. Below is the code: HTML in a User Control (ascx): (i have replaced the angular braces with square below) [div id="available"]This Username is Available [div id="not_available"]This Username is not available [input id="txtUsername" name="txtUsername" type="text" size="50" /]  [button id="check" name="check" type="button"]Check Availability[/button] [img id="busy" src="/Content/Images/busy.gif" /] On the top of this user control, I am linking an external javascript file that has the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $('img#busy').hide(); $('div#available').hide(); $('div#not_available').hide(); $("button#check").click(function() { var available = checkUsername($("input#txtUsername").val()); if (available == "1") { $("div#available").show(); $("div#not_available").hide(); } else { $("div#available").hide(); $("div#not_available").show(); } }); }); function checkUsername(username) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/SomeController/SomeAction", data: { "id": username }, timeout: 3000, async: false, beforeSend: function() { $("button#check").hide(); $("img#busy").show(); }, complete: function() { $("button#check").show(); $("img#busy").hide(); }, cache: false, success: function(result) { return result; }, error: function(error) { $("img#busy").hide(); $("button#check").show(); alert("Some problems have occured. Please try again later: " + error); } }); }

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  • Please Explain Drupal schema and drupal_write_record

    - by Aaron
    Hi. A few questions. 1) Where is the best place to populate a new database table when a module is first installed, enabled? I need to go and get some data from an external source and want to do it transparently when the user installs/enables my custom module. I create the schema in {mymodule}_schema(), do drupal_install_schema({tablename}); in hook_install. Then I try to populate the table in hook_enable using drupal_write_record. I confirmed the table was created, I get no errors when hook_enable executes, but when I query the new table, I get no rows back--it's empty. Here's one variation of the code I've tried: /** * Implementation of hook_schema() */ function ncbi_subsites_schema() { // we know it's MYSQL, so no need to check $schema['ncbi_subsites_sites'] = array( 'description' => 'The base table for subsites', 'fields' => array( 'site_id' => array( 'description' => 'Primary id for site', 'type' => 'serial', 'unsigned' => TRUE, 'not null' => TRUE, ), // end site_id 'title' => array( 'description' => 'The title of the subsite', 'type' => 'varchar', 'length' => 255, 'not null' => TRUE, 'default' => '', ), //end title field 'url' => array( 'description' => 'The URL of the subsite in Production', 'type' => 'varchar', 'length' => 255, 'default' => '', ), //end url field ), //end fields 'unique keys' => array( 'site_id'=> array('site_id'), 'title' => array('title'), ), //end unique keys 'primary_key' => array('site_id'), ); // end schema return $schema; } Here's hook_install: function ncbi_subsites_install() { drupal_install_schema('ncbi_subsites'); } Here's hook_enable: function ncbi_subsites_enable() { drupal_get_schema('ncbi_subsites_site'); // my helper function to get data for table (not shown) $subsites = ncbi_subsites_get_subsites(); foreach( $subsites as $name=>$attrs ) { $record = new stdClass(); $record->title = $name; $record->url = $attrs['homepage']; drupal_write_record( 'ncbi_subsites_sites', $record ); } } Can someone tell me what I'm missing?

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  • Asp.net MVC and MOSS 2010 integration

    - by Robert Koritnik
    Just a sidenote: I'm not sure whether I should post this to serverfault as well, because some MOSS admin may have some info for me as well? A bit of explanation first (without Asp.net MVC) Is it possible to integrate the two? Is it possible to write an application that would share at least credential information with MOSS? I have to write a MOSS application that has to do with these technologies: MOSS 2010 Personal client certificates authentication (most probably on USB keys) Active Directory Federation Services Separate SQL DB that would serve application specific data (separate as not being part of MOSS DB) How should it work? Users should authenticate using personal certificates into MOSS 2010 There would be a certain part of MOSS that would be related to my custom application This application should only authorize certain users via AD FS - I guess these users should have a certain security claim attached to them This application should manage users (that have access to this app) with additional (app specific) security claims related to this application (as additional application level authorization rights for individual application parts) This application should use custom SQL 2008 DB heavily with its own data This application should have the possibility to integrate with external systems as well (Exchange for instance to inject calendar entries, ERP systems etc) This application should be able to export its data (from its DB) to files. I don't know if it's possible, but it would be nice if the app could add these files to MOSS and attach authorization info to them so only users with sufficient rights would be able to view/open these files. Why Asp.net MVC then? I'm very well versed in Asp.net MVC (also with the latest version) and I haven't done anything on Sharepoint since version 2003 (which doesn't do me no good or prepare me for the latest version in any way shape or form). This project will most probably be a death march project so I would rather write my application as a UI rich Asp.net MVC application and somehow integrate it into MOSS. But not only via a link, because I would like to at least share credentials, so users wouldn't need to re-login when accessing my app. Using Asp.net MVC I would at least have the possibility to finish on time or be less death marching. Is this at all possible? Questions Is it possible to integrate Asp.net MVC into MOSS as described above? If integration is not possible, would it be possible to create a completely MOSS based application that would work as described? Which parts of MOSS 2010 should I use to accomplish what I need?

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  • Workflows not starting after fresh install

    - by Greg McGuffey
    I just installed Dynamics CRM 4.0. It is working nicely except for workflows. They won't start. I turned on tracing and it appears that there is an IO error. The server is setup with IFD and SSL. No issues accessing it internally or externally. Here is the trace: # CRM Tracing Version 2.0 # LocalTime: 2010-06-08 11:34:58.2 # Categories: # CallStackOn: No # ComputerName: FOX-CRM1 # CRMVersion: 4.0.7333.2741 # DeploymentType: OnPremise # ScaleGroup: # ServerRole: AppServer, AsyncService, DiscoveryService, WebService, ApiServer, HelpServer, DeploymentService [2010-06-08 11:34:58.2] Process:CrmAsyncService |Organization:821a137e-7191-49a4-86cc-69101e2b6d20 |Thread: 24 |Category: Platform.Async |User: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000 |Level: Error | AsyncOperationCommand.Execute >Exception while trying to execute AsyncOperationId: {DF68F483-2C73-DF11-9A34-18A9053B7B38} AsyncOperationType: 1 - System.Net.WebException: The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a send. ---> System.IO.IOException: The handshake failed due to an unexpected packet format. at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartReadFrame(Byte[] buffer, Int32 readBytes, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartReceiveBlob(Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.CheckCompletionBeforeNextReceive(ProtocolToken message, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartSendBlob(Byte[] incoming, Int32 count, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ForceAuthentication(Boolean receiveFirst, Byte[] buffer, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest) at System.Net.Security.SslState.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult lazyResult) at System.Net.TlsStream.CallProcessAuthentication(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.TlsStream.ProcessAuthentication(LazyAsyncResult result) at System.Net.TlsStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.PooledStream.Write(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) at System.Net.ConnectStream.WriteHeaders(Boolean async) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.HttpWebClientProtocol.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at Microsoft.Crm.SdkTypeProxy.CrmService.Retrieve(String entityName, Guid id, ColumnSetBase columnSet) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.SdkTypeProxyCrmServiceWrapper.Retrieve(String entityName, Guid id, ColumnSetBase columnSet) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.SdkPluginDescriptionProvider.GetPluginTypeDescription(Guid pluginTypeId, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.PluginTypeCacheLoader.LoadCacheData(Guid key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.CrmMultiOrgCache`2.CreateEntry(TKey key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.CrmSharedMultiOrgCache`2.LookupEntry(TKey key, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Caching.PluginTypeCache.LookupEntry(Guid pluginTypeId, IOrganizationContext context) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.AsyncOperationCommand.GetPluginType(Guid pluginTypeId) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.EventOperation.InternalExecute(AsyncEvent asyncEvent) at Microsoft.Crm.Asynchronous.AsyncOperationCommand.Execute(AsyncEvent asyncEvent) The only thing I've tried to to update the AsyncSdkRootDomain row in the Deployment table to match the ADSdkRootDomain and the ADApplicationRootDomain values. It was blank. That didn't appear to work. After some more research, I think this might be caused because the Asynch service can't access the SDK web services using SSL. If this is correct, how would one configure a CRM server for secure access, internal and external (IFD) and still allow asynch service to hit web site? Thanks for your help!

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  • Managing a difficult manager

    - by griegs
    I have a situation here at work. We are redeveloping our basic architecture across the entire company. Currently we have the following hierarchy; SQL Database <= Stored Procs not allowed. nHibernate Classes to convert nHibernate into our own objects Web Service <= for all external and [internal] calls. Class to take objects from Web Service and back into our own objects and then… Normal nTier application architecture such as Data Transformation Layer, Business layer etc. Within the database, when we are writing a hierarchy of objects to the database, say for example; Order Person Details Address Product Other We need to serialise the object and save it, in its entirety, to an image field in a table. No attempt has been made to store the objects in their own tables so that we can do useful stuff like report on it. This is an architecture that was implemented [way] before I started and as you can probably appreciate, is a complete nightmare not to mention slow as a wet weekend. We’re not even allowed to have stored procs within SQL server because in my boss’s last job they had a hundred or so and he had a problem identifying them all so therefore all stored procs are the devil. Now the same person that developed the above architecture has developed the new one. It came as no surprise that he’s essentially used the same framework only now it’s using DotNet 3.5 with interfaces and generics. We still have to go through web services, still need to serialise (everything), still not allowed to use stored procs etc. In fact, we’re only barely able to bang two rocks together here. He says to us that the framework is open for discussion but when you discuss it, unless you approve of his design, you are told flatly “No”. He simply won’t listen to any other suggestions. Even when you show him demo applications of his proposed architecture v’s yours and he can see the speed difference, he still won’t take that on board. So I guess my question is, and I know others have experienced the same things out there, how do I get through to someone like this? How do you convince someone to ditch Web Services for internal calls and applications? How do you demonstrate, and make it stick, that stored procs are a better way to go than ad-hoc sql statements? This is killing me. I don’t want to repeat the mistakes of the past and I certainly don’t want to write code that I know is going to be slow and cumbersome. Help!

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  • Taking screenshot with Win32 API (C# pInvoke) not working in IIS

    - by Dillen Meijboom
    I want to take a screenshot of an external website. Currently my workflow is to start a Firefox instance with the specified URL and take a screenshot using PrintWindow in the Win32 API When I run this application in IISExpress it works fine but when I run the same application in IIS on a windows VPS it is not working (screenshot is blank). I don't know what I'm doing wrong? My code: using Newtonsoft.Json; using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Diagnostics; using System.Drawing; using System.Drawing.Imaging; using System.Linq; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Security; using System.Threading; using System.Web; namespace WebTools.Web { public class RemoteScreenshot { public static Bitmap TakeScreenshot(Process process) { // may need a process Refresh before return TakeScreenshot(process.MainWindowHandle); } public static Bitmap TakeScreenshot(IntPtr handle) { RECT rc = new RECT(); GetWindowRect(handle, ref rc); Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(rc.right - rc.left, rc.bottom - rc.top); using (Graphics graphics = Graphics.FromImage(bitmap)) { PrintWindow(handle, graphics.GetHdc(), 0); } return bitmap; } [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern bool GetWindowRect(IntPtr hWnd, ref RECT rect); [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern bool PrintWindow(IntPtr hWnd, IntPtr hDC, int flags); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] private struct RECT { public int left; public int top; public int right; public int bottom; } public static void Save(string url, string file, int timeout = 0) { Process.Start(new ProcessStartInfo("C:\\Program Files (x86)\\Mozilla Firefox\\firefox.exe", url) { CreateNoWindow = false, WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Maximized }); Thread.Sleep(timeout); var bitmap = TakeScreenshot(Process.GetProcessesByName("firefox").First()); bitmap.Save(file, ImageFormat.Png); bitmap.Dispose(); Process.GetProcessesByName("firefox").First().Kill(); } } } EDIT: Running Firefox works fine because the AppPool is under another account that has the rights to execute firefox.

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  • How to Practice Unix Programming in C?

    - by danben
    After five years of professional Java (and to a lesser extent, Python) programming and slowly feeling my CS education slip away, I decided I wanted to broaden my horizons / general usefulness to the world and do something that feels more (to me) like I really have an influence over the machine. I chose to learn C and Unix programming since I feel like that is where many of the most interesting problems are. My end goal is to be able to do this professionally, if for no other reason than the fact that I have to spend 40-50 hours per week on work that pays the bills, so it may as well also be the type of coding I want to get better at. Of course, you don't get hired to do things you haven't dont before, so for now I am ramping up on my own. To this end, I started with K&R, which was a great resource in part due to the exercises spread throughout each chapter. After that I moved on to Computer Systems: A Programmer's Perspective, followed by ten chapters of Advanced Programming in the Unix Environment. When I am done with this book, I will read Unix Network Programming. What I'm missing in the Stevens books is the lack of programming problems; they mainly document functionality and provide examples, with a few end-of-chapter questions following. I feel that I would benefit much more from being challenged to use the knowledge in each chapter ala K&R. I could write some test program for each function, but this is a less desirable method as (1) I would probably be less motivated than if I were rising to some external challenge, and (2) I will naturally only think to use the function in the ways that have already occurred to me. So, I'd like to get some recommendations on how to practice. Obviously, my first choice would be to find some resource that has Unix programming challenges. I have also considered finding and attempting to contribute to some open source C project, but this is a bit daunting as there would be some overhead in learning to use the software, then learning the codebase. The only open-source C project I can think of that I use regularly is Python, and I'm not sure how easy that would be to get started on. That said, I'm open to all kinds of suggestions as there are likely things I haven't even thought of.

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  • jquery selector problem with script tags

    - by Tauren
    I'm attempting to select all <script type="text/html"> tags in a page. I use <script> tags to store HTML templates, similar to how John Resig does it. For some reason, the following jquery selector doesn't seem to be selecting anything: $("script[type*=html]").each(function() { alert("Found script "+this.id); }); This markup is in the BODY of the HTML document: <body> <script id="filter-search" type="text/html"> <dt>Search</dt> <dd><input type="text"/></dd> </script> </body> I've also tried putting it into the HEAD of the HTML document, and it is still not found. No alert is ever shown. If I instead change my code to this: $("script[type*=javascript]").each(function() { alert("Found script "+this.id); }); Then it finds only the scripts in the HEAD that have a src to an external file. Scripts in the actual page are not found. For instance, with the following in HEAD: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js" id="jquery"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-ui.js" id="ui"></script> <script type="text/javascript" id="custom"> $(document).ready( function() { $("script[type*=javascript]").each(function() { alert("Found script "+this.id); }); $("script[type*=html]").each(function() { alert("Found TEMPLATE script "+this.id); }); }); </script> <script id="filter-test" type="text/html"> <dt>Test</dt> </script> </head> <body> <script id="filter-search" type="text/html"> <dt>Search</dt> <dd><input type="text"/></dd> </script> </body> I get the following alerts: Found script jquery Found script ui The custom and filter-test scripts in the HEAD are not selected, nor is the filter-search script in the body tag. Is this the expected behavior? Why does this not work? I can work around it, but it is annoying that it doesn't work.

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  • Data denormalization and C# objects DB serialization

    - by Robert Koritnik
    I'm using a DB table with various different entities. This means that I can't have an arbitrary number of fields in it to save all kinds of different entities. I want instead save just the most important fields (dates, reference IDs - kind of foreign key to various other tables, most important text fields etc.) and an additional text field where I'd like to store more complete object data. the most obvious solution would be to use XML strings and store those. The second most obvious choice would be JSON, that usually shorter and probably also faster to serialize/deserialize... And is probably also faster. But is it really? My objects also wouldn't need to be strictly serializable, because JsonSerializer is usually able to serialize anything. Even anonymous objects, that may as well be used here. What would be the most optimal solution to solve this problem? Additional info My DB is highly normalised and I'm using Entity Framework, but for the purpose of having external super-fast fulltext search functionality I'm sacrificing a bit DB denormalisation. Just for the info I'm using SphinxSE on top of MySql. Sphinx would return row IDs that I would use to fast query my index optimised conglomerate table to get most important data from it much much faster than querying multiple tables all over my DB. My table would have columns like: RowID (auto increment) EntityID (of the actual entity - but not directly related because this would have to point to different tables) EntityType (so I would be able to get the actual entity if needed) DateAdded (record timestamp when it's been added into this table) Title Metadata (serialized data related to particular entity type) This table would be indexed with SPHINX indexer. When I would search for data using this indexer I would provide a series of EntityIDs and a limit date. Indexer would have to return a very limited paged amount of RowIDs ordered by DateAdded (descending). I would then just join these RowIDs to my table and get relevant results. So this won't actually be full text search but a filtering search. Getting RowIDs would be very fast this way and getting results back from the table would be much faster than comparing EntityIDs and DateAdded comparisons even though they would be properly indexed.

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  • When does the .NET FormAuthentication ticket get checked and how do I tap into this event?

    - by Mustafakidd
    Hello everyone - We are attempting to integrate an ASP.NET MVC site with our client's SSO system using PingFederate. I would like to use the built in FormsAuthentication framework to do this. The way I've gone about it so far is: Set up my Web.config so that my FormsAuthentication LoginURL goes to my site's "BeginAuthentication" action on a "Security" controller. From this action, I set up some session variables (what URL was being accessed, for example, since Ping won't send this info back to me), and then redirect to our client's login page on an external site (www.client.com/Login for example). From here, the authentication takes place and a cookie is generated on the same domain as the one that our application is running on which contains the unique identifier of the authenticated user, I've set it up so that once this happens, the Ping server will redirect to my "EndAuthentication" action on my "Security" controller. In this action, I call my membership class's "ValidateUser" method which takes this unique identifier from the cookie and loads in the user on our application that this ID refers to. I save that logged in user in our Session (Session["LoggedInAs"], for example) and expire the cookie that contains the id of the authenticated user that the SSO system provided for me. All of this works well. The issue I'm wondering about is what happens after our user has already authenticated and manually goes back to our client's login page (www.client.com/login) and logs in as another user. If they do that, then the flow from #2 above to number 3 happens as normal - but since there already exists an authenticated user on our site, it seems as though the FormsAuthentication system doesn't bother kicking off anything so I don't get a chance to check for the cookie I'm looking for to login as this new user. What I'd like to do is, somewhere in my Global.asax file (probably FormsAuthenticate_OnAuthenticate), check to see if the cookie that the SSO system sends to me exists, and if so, sign out of the application using FormsAuthentication.SignOut(). Another issue that seems to be related is that if I let my Session expire, the FormsAuthentication still seems to think I am authenticated and it lets me access a page even though no currently logged in user exists in my Session, so the page doesn't render correctly. Should I tap into the Session_End event and do FormsAuthentication.SignOut() here as well? Basically, I want to know when the authentication ticket created by System.Web.Security.FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(..) gets checked in the flow of a request so that I can determine whether I need to SignOut() and force revalidation or not. Thanks for any help. Sorry for the length of this message, trying to be as detailed as possible. Mustafa

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  • VSTS test deployment and invalid assembly culture

    - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham
    I have a DLL that I'm testing, which links to a DLL that has what I think is an invalid value for AssemblyCulture. The value is "Neutral" (notice the upper-case "N"), whereas the DLL I'm testing, and every other DLL in my project, has a value of "neutral" (because they specify AssemblyCulture("")). When I try to deploy the DLL that links to the problem DLL, I get this error in VSTS: Failed to queue test run '...': Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. <Exception>System.Globalization.CultureNotFoundException: Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name, Boolean useUserOverride) at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(RuntimeAssembly assembly) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.ProcessChildren(Assembly assembly) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadStrategy.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyHelper.GetDependentAssemblies(String path, DependentAssemblyOptions options, String configFile) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.GetDependencies(String master, String configFile, TestRunConfiguration runConfig, DeploymentItemOrigin dependencyOrigin, List`1 dependencyDeploymentItems, Dictionary`2 missingDependentAssemblies) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.DoDeployment(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupTestRun(TestRun run, Boolean isNewTestRun, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupRunAndListener(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker(Object state)</Exception> Even if I don't link to the DLL (in my VSTS wrapper test, or in the NUnit test), as soon as I add it in my GenericTest file (I'm wrapping NUnit tests), I get that exception. We don't have the source for the problem DLL, and it is also code signed, so I can't solve this by recompiling. Is there a way to skip deploying the dependencies of a DLL DeploymentItem, to fix or disable the culture check, or to work around this by convoluted means (maybe somehow embed the assembly)? Is there a way to override the value for the culture, short of hacking the DLL (and removing code signing so the hack works)? Maybe with an external manifest? Any correct solution must work without weird changes to production code. We can't deploy a hacked DLL, for example. It also must allow the DLL to be instrumented for code coverage. Additional note: I do get a linker warning when compiling the DLL under test that links to the problem DLL, but this hasn't broken anything but VSTS, and multiple versions have shipped.

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  • Data access pattern

    - by andlju
    I need some advice on what kind of pattern(s) I should use for pushing/pulling data into my application. I'm writing a rule-engine that needs to hold quite a large amount of data in-memory in order to be efficient enough. I have some rather conflicting requirements; It is not acceptable for the engine to always have to wait for a full pre-load of all data before it is functional. Only fetching and caching data on-demand will lead to the engine taking too long before it is running quickly enough. An external event can trigger the need for specific parts of the data to be reloaded. Basically, I think I need a combination of pushing and pulling data into the application. A simplified version of my current "pattern" looks like this (in psuedo-C# written in notepad): // This interface is implemented by all classes that needs the data interface IDataSubscriber { void RegisterData(Entity data); } // This interface is implemented by the data access class interface IDataProvider { void EnsureLoaded(Key dataKey); void RegisterSubscriber(IDataSubscriber subscriber); } class MyClassThatNeedsData : IDataSubscriber { IDataProvider _provider; MyClassThatNeedsData(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; _provider.RegisterSubscriber(this); } public void RegisterData(Entity data) { // Save data for later StoreDataInCache(data); } void UseData(Key key) { // Make sure that the data has been stored in cache _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); Entity data = GetDataFromCache(key); } } class MyDataProvider : IDataProvider { List<IDataSubscriber> _subscribers; // Make sure that the data for key has been loaded to all subscribers public void EnsureLoaded(Key key) { if (HasKeyBeenMarkedAsLoaded(key)) return; PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } // Force all subscribers to get a new version of the data for key public void ForceReload(Key key) { PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } void PublishDataToSubscribers(Key key) { Entity data = FetchDataFromStore(key); foreach(var subscriber in _subscribers) { subscriber.RegisterData(data); } } } // This class will be spun off on startup and should make sure that all data is // preloaded as quickly as possible class MyPreloadingThread { IDataProvider _provider; MyPreloadingThread(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; } void RunInBackground() { IEnumerable<Key> allKeys = GetAllKeys(); foreach(var key in allKeys) { _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); } } } I have a feeling though that this is not necessarily the best way of doing this.. Just the fact that explaining it seems to take two pages feels like an indication.. Any ideas? Any patterns out there I should have a look at?

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  • Is the design notion of layers contrived?

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm reading through Eric Evans' awesome work, Domain-Driven Design. However, I can't help feeling that the 'layers' model is contrived. To expand on that statement, it seems as if it tries to shoe-horn various concepts into a specific, neat model, that of layers talking to each other. It seems to me that the layers model is too simplified to actually capture the way that (good) software works. To expand further: Evans says: "Partition a complex program into layers. Develop a design within each layer that is cohesive and that depends only on the layers below. Follow standard architectural patterns to provide loose coupling to the layers above." Maybe I'm misunderstanding what 'depends' means, but as far as I can see, it can either mean a) Class X (in the UI for example) has a reference to a concrete class Y (in the main application) or b) Class X has a reference to a class Y-ish object providing class Y-ish services (ie a reference held as an interface). If it means (a), then this is clearly a bad thing, since it defeats re-using the UI as a front-end to some other application that provides Y-ish functionality. But if it means (b), then how is the UI any more dependent on the application, than the application is dependent on the UI? Both are decoupled from each other as much as they can be while still talking to each other. Evans' layer model of dependencies going one way seems too neat. First, isn't it more accurate to say that each area of the design provides a module that is pretty much an island to itself, and that ideally all communication is through interfaces, in a contract-driven/responsibility-driven paradigm? (ie, the 'dependency only on lower layers' is contrived). Likewise with the domain layer talking to the database - the domain layer is as decoupled (through DAO etc) from the database as the database is from the domain layer. Neither is dependent on the other, both can be swapped out. Second, the idea of a conceptual straight line (as in from one layer to the next) is artificial - isn't there more a network of intercommunicating but separate modules, including external services, utility services and so on, branching off at different angles? Thanks all - hoping that your responses can clarify my understanding on this..

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  • Java Nimbus LAF with transparent text fields

    - by Software Monkey
    I have an application that uses disabled JTextFields in several places which are intended to be transparent - allowing the background to show through instead of the text field's normal background. When running the new Nimbus LAF these fields are opaque (despite setting setOpaque(false)), and my UI is broken. It's as if the LAF is ignoring the opaque property. Setting a background color explicitly is both difficult in several places, and less than optimal due to background images actually doesn't work - it still paints it's LAF default background over the top, leaving a border-like appearance (the splash screen below has the background explicitly set to match the image). Any ideas on how I can get Nimbus to not paint the background for a JTextField? Note: I need a JTextField, rather than a JLabel, because I need the thread-safe setText(), and wrapping capability. Note: My fallback position is to continue using the system LAF, but Nimbus does look substantially better. See example images below. Conclusions The surprise at this behavior is due to a misinterpretation of what setOpaque() is meant to do - from the Nimbus bug report: This is a problem the the orginal design of Swing and how it has been confusing for years. The issue is setOpaque(false) has had a side effect in exiting LAFs which is that of hiding the background which is not really what it is ment for. It is ment to say that the component my have transparent parts and swing should paint the parent component behind it. It's unfortunate that the Nimbus components also appear not to honor setBackground(null) which would otherwise be the recommended way to stop the background painting. Setting a fully transparent background seems unintuitive to me. In my opinion, setOpaque()/isOpaque() is a faulty public API choice which should have been only: public boolean isFullyOpaque(); I say this, because isOpaque()==true is a contract with Swing that the component subclass will take responsibility for painting it's entire background - which means the parent can skip painting that region if it wants (which is an important performance enhancement). Something external cannot directly change this contract (legitimately), whose fulfillment may be coded into the component. So the opacity of the component should not have been settable using setOpaque(). Instead something like setBackground(null) should cause many components to "no long have a background" and therefore become not fully opaque. By way of example, in an ideal world most components should have an isOpaque() that looks like this: public boolean isOpaque() { return (background!=null); }

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  • CSS selector not resolved when using UI Binder

    - by Zhaidarbek
    Basically, I am building a horizontal navigation bar. I have following markup: <ui:style src="../common.css" type="client.resources.HomeResources.Style"> @external gwt-Anchor; .gwt-Anchor { text-decoration: none; } </ui:style> <g:HTMLPanel styleName="navbar"> <ul> <li><g:Anchor ></g:Anchor> |</li> <li><g:Anchor ></g:Anchor> |</li> <li><g:Anchor ></g:Anchor> |</li> <li><g:Anchor ></g:Anchor> |</li> <li><g:Anchor ></g:Anchor> |</li> <li><g:Anchor ></g:Anchor> |</li> <li><g:Anchor ></g:Anchor></li> </ul> common.css has following rules: ul { margin: 0; padding: 0; text-align: left; font-weight: bold; line-height: 25px; } ul li { display: inline; text-align: right; } ul li a { color: #0077C0; font-size: 12px; margin-right: 15px; padding: 4px 0 4px 5px; text-decoration: none; } ul li a:HOVER { color: #F0721C; } When using rules as defined above, everything works perfect. The problem is that I have ul elements in other parts of page, so I've added div.navbar before each rule like this: div.navbar ul{} div.navbar ul li{} etc... But those rules are not applied to ul elements inside UI Binder template. What's wrong with my code? Here is the generated HTML (normally on one line): <div class="navbar"><ul> <li><a class="gwt-Anchor">Item 1</a> |</li> <li><a class="gwt-Anchor">Item 2</a> |</li> <li><a class="gwt-Anchor">Item 3</a></li> </ul></div> RESOLVED styleName="navbar" must be styleName="{style.navbar}"

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  • How do I avoid the loader lock?

    - by Mark0978
    We have a managed app, that uses an assembly. That assembly uses some unmanaged C++ code. The Managed C++ code is in a dll, that depends on several other dlls. All of those Dlls are loaded by this code. (We load all the dll's that ImageCore.dll depends on first, so we can tell which ones are missing, otherwise it would just show up as ImageCore.dll failed to load, and the log file would give no clues as to why). class Interop { private const int DONT_RESOLVE_DLL_REFERENCES = 1; private static log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger("Imagecore.NET"); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern IntPtr LoadLibraryEx(string fileName, IntPtr dummy, int flags); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern IntPtr FreeLibrary(IntPtr hModule); static private String[] libs = { "log4cplus.dll", "yaz.dll", "zlib1.dll", "libxml2.dll" }; public static void PreloadAssemblies() { for (int i=0; i < libs.Length; ++i) { String libname = libs[i]; IntPtr hModule = LoadLibraryEx(libname, IntPtr.Zero, DONT_RESOLVE_DLL_REFERENCES); if(hModule == IntPtr.Zero) { log.Error("Unable to pre-load '" + libname + "'"); throw new DllNotFoundException("Unable to pre-load '" + libname + "'"); } else { FreeLibrary(hModule); } } IntPtr h = LoadLibraryEx("ImageCore.dll", IntPtr.Zero, 0); if (h == IntPtr.Zero) { throw new DllNotFoundException("Unable to pre-load ImageCore.dll"); } } } And this code is called by public class ImageDoc : IDisposable { static ImageDoc() { ImageHawk.ImageCore.Utility.Interop.PreloadAssemblies(); } ... } Which is static constructor. As near as I can understand it, as soon as we attempt to use an ImageDoc object, the dll that contains that assembly is loaded and as part of that load, the static constructor is called which in turn causes several other DLLs to be loaded as well. What I'm trying to figure out, is how do we defer loading of those DLLs so that we don't run smack dab into this loader lock that is being kicked out because of the static constructor. I've pieced this much together by looking at: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsto/thread/dd192d7e-ce92-49ce-beef-3816c88e5a86 http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa290048%28VS.71%29.aspx http://forums.devx.com/showthread.php?t=53529 http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/beforefieldinit.html But I just can't seem to find a way to get these external DLLs to load without it happening at the point the class is loading. I think I need to get these LoadLibrary calls out of the static constructor, but don't know how to get them called before they are needed (except for how it is done here). I would prefer to not have to put this kind of knowledge of the dlls into every app that uses this assembly. (And I'm not sure that would even fix the problem.... The strange thing is that the exception only appears to be happening while running within the debugger, not while running outside the debugger.

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  • Add rss xmlns namespace definition to a php simplexml document?

    - by talkingnews
    I'm trying to create an itunes-valid podcast feed using php5's simplexml: <?php $xml_string = <<<XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <channel> </channel> XML; $xml_generator = new SimpleXMLElement($xml_string); $tnsoundfile = $xml_generator->addChild('title', 'Main Title'); $tnsoundfile->addChild('itunes:author', "Author", ' '); $tnsoundfile->addChild('category', 'Audio Podcasts'); $tnsoundfile = $xml_generator->addChild('item'); $tnsoundfile->addChild('title', 'The track title'); $enclosure = $tnsoundfile->addChild('enclosure'); $enclosure->addAttribute('url', 'http://test.com'); $enclosure->addAttribute('length', 'filelength'); $enclosure->addAttribute('type', 'audio/mpeg'); $tnsoundfile->addChild('itunes:author', "Author", ' '); header("Content-Type: text/xml"); echo $xml_generator->asXML(); ?> It doesn't validate, because I've got to put the line: <rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0"> as per http://www.apple.com/itunes/podcasts/specs.html. So the output SHOULD be: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0"> <channel> etc. I've been over and over the manual and forums, just can't get it right. If I put, near the footer: header("Content-Type: text/xml"); echo '<rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0">'; echo $xml_generator->asXML(); ?> Then it sort of looks right in firefox and it doesn't complain about undefined namespaces anymore, but feedvalidator complains that line 1, column 77: XML parsing error: :1:77: xml declaration not at start of external entity [help] because the document now starts: <rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0"><?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> and not <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0"> Thank you in advance.

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  • Telnet connection using c#

    - by alejandrobog
    Our office currently uses telnet to query an external server. The procedure is something like this. Connect - telnet opent 128........ 25000 Query - we paste the query and then hit alt + 019 Response - We receive the response as text in the telnet window So I’m trying to make this queries automatic using a c# app. My code is the following First the connection. (No exceptions) SocketClient = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); String szIPSelected = txtIPAddress.Text; String szPort = txtPort.Text; int alPort = System.Convert.ToInt16(szPort, 10); System.Net.IPAddress remoteIPAddress = System.Net.IPAddress.Parse(szIPSelected); System.Net.IPEndPoint remoteEndPoint = new System.Net.IPEndPoint(remoteIPAddress, alPort); SocketClient.Connect(remoteEndPoint); Then I send the query (No exceptions) string data ="some query"; byte[] byData = System.Text.Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(data); SocketClient.Send(byData); Then I try to receive the response byte[] buffer = new byte[10]; Receive(SocketClient, buffer, 0, buffer.Length, 10000); string str = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); txtDataRx.Text = str; public static void Receive(Socket socket, byte[] buffer, int offset, int size, int timeout) { int startTickCount = Environment.TickCount; int received = 0; // how many bytes is already received do { if (Environment.TickCount > startTickCount + timeout) throw new Exception("Timeout."); try { received += socket.Receive(buffer, offset + received, size - received, SocketFlags.None); } catch (SocketException ex) { if (ex.SocketErrorCode == SocketError.WouldBlock || ex.SocketErrorCode == SocketError.IOPending || ex.SocketErrorCode == SocketError.NoBufferSpaceAvailable) { // socket buffer is probably empty, wait and try again Thread.Sleep(30); } else throw ex; // any serious error occurr } } while (received < size); } Every time I try to receive the response I get "an exsiting connetion has forcibly closed by the remote host" if open telnet and send the same query I get a response right away Any ideas, or suggestions?

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  • Why is my javascript function sometimes "not defined"?

    - by harpo
    Problem: I call my javascript function, and sometimes I get the error 'myFunction is not defined'. But it is defined. For example. I'll occasionally get 'copyArray is not defined' even in this example: function copyArray( pa ) { var la = []; for (var i=0; i < pa.length; i++) la.push( pa[i] ); return la; } Function.prototype.bind = function( po ) { var __method = this; var __args = []; // sometimes errors -- in practice I inline the function as a workaround __args = copyArray( arguments ); return function() { /* bind logic omitted for brevity */ } } As you can see, copyArray is defined right there, so this can't be about the order in which script files load. I've been getting this in situations that are harder to work around, where the calling function is located in another file that should be loaded after the called function. But this was the simplest case I could present, and appears to be the same problem. It doesn't happen 100% of the time, so I do suspect some kind of load-timing-related problem. But I have no idea what. @Hojou: That's part of the problem. The function in which I'm now getting this error is itself my addLoadEvent, which is basically a standard version of the common library function. @James: I understand that, and there is no syntax error in the function. When that is the case, the syntax error is reported as well. In this case, I am getting only the 'not defined' error. @David: The script in this case resides in an external file that is referenced using the normal <script src="file.js"></script> method in the page's head section. @Douglas: Interesting idea, but if this were the case, how could we ever call a user-defined function with confidence? In any event, I tried this and it didn't work. @sk: This technique has been tested across browsers and is basically copied from the prototype library.

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  • Setting up Django on an internal server (os.environ() not working as expected?)

    - by monkut
    I'm trying to setup Django on an internal company server. (No external connection to the Internet.) Looking over the server setup documentation it appears that the "Running Django on a shared-hosting provider with Apache" method seems to be the most-likely to work in this situation. Here's the server information: Can't install mod_python no root access Server is SunOs 5.6 Python 2.5 Apache/2.0.46 I've installed Django (and flup) using the --prefix option (reading again I probably should've used --home, but at the moment it doesn't seem to matter) I've added the .htaccess file and mysite.fcgi file to my root web directory as mentioned here. When I run the mysite.fcgi script from the server I get my expected output (the correct site HTML output). But, it won't when trying to access it from a browser. It seems that it may be a problem with the PYTHONPATH setting since I'm using the prefix option. I've noticed that if I run mysite.fcgi from the command-line without setting the PYTHONPATH enviornment variable it throws the following error: prompt$ python2.5 mysite.fcgi ERROR: No module named flup Unable to load the flup package. In order to run django as a FastCGI application, you will need to get flup from http://www.saddi.com/software/flup/ If you've already installed flup, then make sure you have it in your PYTHONPATH. I've added sys.path.append(prefixpath) and os.environ['PYTHONPATH'] = prefixpath to mysite.fcgi, but if I set the enviornment variable to be empty on the command-line then run mysite.fcgi, I still get the above error. Here are some command-line results: >>> os.environ['PYTHONPATH'] = 'Null' >>> >>> os.system('echo $PYTHONPATH') Null >>> os.environ['PYTHONPATH'] = '/prefix/path' >>> >>> os.system('echo $PYTHONPATH') /prefix/path >>> exit() prompt$ echo $PYTHONPATH Null It looks like Python is setting the variable OK, but the variable is only applicable inside of the script. Flup appears to be distributed as an .egg file, and my guess is that the egg implementation doesn't take into account variables added by os.environ['key'] = value (?) at least when installing via the --prefix option. I'm not that familiar with .pth files, but it seems that the easy-install.pth file is the one that points to flup: import sys; sys.__plen = len(sys.path) ./setuptools-0.6c6-py2.5.egg ./flup-1.0.1-py2.5.egg import sys; new=sys.path[sys.__plen:]; del sys.path[sys.__plen:]; p=getattr(sys,'__egginsert',0); sy s.path[p:p]=new; sys.__egginsert = p+len(new) It looks like it's doing something funky, anyway to edit this or add something to my code so it will find flup?

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  • How to efficiently save changes made in UI/main thread with Core Data?

    - by Jaanus
    So, there have been several posts here about importing and saving data from an external data source into Core Data. Apple documents a reasonable pattern for this: "import and save on background thread, merge saved objects to main thread." All fine and good. I have a related but different problem: the user is modifying data in the UI and main thread, and thus modifies state of some objects in the managed object context (MOC). I would like to save these changes from time to time. What is a good way to do that? Now, you could say that I could do the same: create a background thread with its own MOC and pass the changed objectID-s there. The catch-22 for me with this is that an object's ID changes when it is saved, and I cannot guarantee the order of things happening. I may end up passing a different objectID into the background thread for the same object, based on whether the object has been previously saved or not, and I don't know if Core Data can resolve this and see that different objectID-s are pointing to the same object and not create duplicates for me. (I could test this, but I'm lazywebbing with this question first.) One thought I had: I could always do MOC saves on a background thread, and queue them up with operationqueue, so that there is always only one save in progress. I would not create a new MOC, I would just use the same MOC as in main thread. Now, this is not thread safe and when someone modifies the MOC in main thread while it is being saved in background thread, the results will probably be catastrophic. But, minus the thread safety, you can see what kind of solution I'd wish for. To be clear, the problem I need to fix is that if I just do the save in main thread, it blocks the UI for an unacceptably long period of time, I want to move the save to background thread. So, questions: what about the reasoning of an object ID changing during saving, and Core Data being able to resolve them to the same object? Would this be the right way of addressing this problem? any other good ways of doing this?

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  • php recursive list help

    - by Jason
    Hi all, I am trying to display a recursive list in PHP for a site I am working on. I am really having trouble trying to get the second level to display. I have a function that displays the contents to the page as follows. function get_menu_entries($content,$which=0) { global $tbl_prefix, $sys_explorer_vars, $sys_config_vars; // INIT LIBRARIES $db = new DB_Tpl(); $curr_time = time(); $db->query("SELECT * FROM ".$tbl_prefix."sys_explorer WHERE preid = '".$which."' && config_id = '".$sys_explorer_vars['config_id']."' && blocked = '0' && startdate < '".$curr_time."' && (enddate > '".$curr_time."' || enddate = '') ORDER BY preid,sorting"); while($db->next_record()){ $indent = $db->f("level") * 10 - 10; $sitemap_vars['break'] = ""; $sitemap_vars['bold'] = ""; if($db->f("level") == 2) { $sitemap_vars['ul_start'] = ""; $sitemap_vars['bold'] = "class='bold'"; $sitemap_vars['ul_end'] = ""; } switch($db->f("link_type")) { case '1': // External Url $sitemap_vars['hyperlink'] = $db->f("link_url"); $sitemap_vars['target'] = ""; if($db->f("link_target") != "") { $sitemap_vars['target'] = "target=\"".$db->f("link_target")."\""; } break; case '2': // Shortcut $sitemap_vars['hyperlink'] = create_url($db->f("link_eid"),$db->f("name"),$sys_config_vars['mod_rewrite']); $sitemap_vars['target'] = ""; break; default: $sitemap_vars['hyperlink'] = create_url($db->f("eid"),$db->f("name"),$sys_config_vars['mod_rewrite']); $sitemap_vars['target'] = ""; break; } if($db->f("level") > 1) { $content .= "<div style=\"text-indent: ".$indent."px;\" ".$sitemap_vars['bold']."><a href=\"".$sitemap_vars['hyperlink']."\" ".$sitemap_vars['target'].">".$db->f("name")."</a></div>\n"; } $content = get_menu_entries($content,$db->f("eid")); } return(''.$content.''); } At the moment the content displays properly, however I want to turn this function into a DHTML dropdown menu. At present what happens with the level 2 elements is that using CSS the contents are indented using CSS. What I need to happen is to place the UL tag at the beginning and /UL tag at the end of the level 2 elements. I hope this makes sense. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • A simple Python deployment problem - a whole world of pain

    - by Evgeny
    We have several Python 2.6 applications running on Linux. Some of them are Pylons web applications, others are simply long-running processes that we run from the command line using nohup. We're also using virtualenv, both in development and in production. What is the best way to deploy these applications to a production server? In development we simply get the source tree into any directory, set up a virtualenv and run - easy enough. We could do the same in production and perhaps that really is the most practical solution, but it just feels a bit wrong to run svn update in production. We've also tried fab, but it just never works first time. For every application something else goes wrong. It strikes me that the whole process is just too hard, given that what we're trying to achieve is fundamentally very simple. Here's what we want from a deployment process. We should be able to run one simple command to deploy an updated version of an application. (If the initial deployment involves a bit of extra complexity that's fine.) When we run this command it should copy certain files, either out of a Subversion repository or out of a local working copy, to a specified "environment" on the server, which probably means a different virtualenv. We have both staging and production version of the applications on the same server, so they need to somehow be kept separate. If it installs into site-packages, that's fine too, as long as it works. We have some configuration files on the server that should be preserved (ie. not overwritten or deleted by the deployment process). Some of these applications import modules from other applications, so they need to be able to reference each other as packages somehow. This is the part we've had the most trouble with! I don't care whether it works via relative imports, site-packages or whatever, as long as it works reliably in both development and production. Ideally the deployment process should automatically install external packages that our applications depend on (eg. psycopg2). That's really it! How hard can it be?

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  • Embedded Javascript in Master Page or Pages That Use Master Page throw "Object Expected Error"

    - by Philter
    I'm semi-new to writing ASP.Net applications using master pages and I've run into an issue I've spent some time on but can't seem to solve. My situation is that I have a master page with a structure that looks like this: <head runat="server"> <title>Test Site</title> <link rel="Stylesheet" type="text/css" href="Default.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="js/Default.js" /> <meta http-equiv="Expires" content="0"/> <meta http-equiv="Cache-Control" content="no-cache"/> <meta http-equiv="Pragma" content="no-cache"/> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="cphHead" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div id="divHeader"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="cphPageTitle" runat="server"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> <div id="divMainContent"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="cphMainContent" runat="server"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> </div> </form> </body> I then have a page that uses this master page that contains the following: <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="cphHead" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" > function test() { alert("Hello World"); } </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="cphMainContent" runat="server"> <fieldset> <img alt="Select As Of Date" src="Images/Calendar.png" id="aAsOfDate" class="clickable" runat="server" onclick="test();" /> <asp:Button runat="server" CssClass="buttonStyle" ID="btnSubmit" Text="Submit" OnClick="btnSubmit_Clicked"/> </fieldset> </asp:Content> When I run this page and click on the image I get an "Object Expected" error. However, if I place the test function into my Default.js external file it will function perfectly. I can't seem to figure out why this is happening. Any ideas?

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