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  • Question about cloning in Java

    - by devoured elysium
    In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

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  • ASP.NET inline code in a server control

    - by John
    Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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  • Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

    - by swmi
    Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

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  • Doubts in executable and relocatable object file

    - by bala1486
    Hello, I have written a simple Hello World program. #include <stdio.h> int main() { printf("Hello World"); return 0; } I wanted to understand how the relocatable object file and executable file look like. The object file corresponding to the main function is 0000000000000000 <main>: 0: 55 push %rbp 1: 48 89 e5 mov %rsp,%rbp 4: bf 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%edi 9: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax e: e8 00 00 00 00 callq 13 <main+0x13> 13: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax 18: c9 leaveq 19: c3 retq Here the function call for printf is callq 13. One thing i don't understand is why is it 13. That means call the function at adresss 13, right??. 13 has the next instruction, right?? Please explain me what does this mean?? The executable code corresponding to main is 00000000004004cc <main>: 4004cc: 55 push %rbp 4004cd: 48 89 e5 mov %rsp,%rbp 4004d0: bf dc 05 40 00 mov $0x4005dc,%edi 4004d5: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax 4004da: e8 e1 fe ff ff callq 4003c0 <printf@plt> 4004df: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax 4004e4: c9 leaveq 4004e5: c3 retq Here it is callq 4003c0. But the binary instruction is e8 e1 fe ff ff. There is nothing that corresponds to 4003c0. What is that i am getting wrong? Thanks. Bala

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  • What is a NULL value

    - by Adi
    I am wondering , what exactly is stored in the memory when we say a particular variable pointer to be NULL. suppose I have a structure, say typdef struct MEM_LIST MEM_INSTANCE; struct MEM_LIST { char *start_addr; int size; MEM_INSTANCE *next; }; MEM_INSTANCE *front; front = (MEM_INSTANCE*)malloc(sizeof(MEM_INSTANCE*)); -1) If I make front=NULL. What will be the value which actually gets stored in the different fields of the front, say front-size ,front-start_addr. Is it 0 or something else. I have limited knowledge in this NULL thing. -2) If I do a free(front); It frees the memory which is pointed out by front. So what exactly free means here, does it make it NULL or make it all 0. -3) What can be a good strategy to deal with initialization of pointers and freeing them . Thanks in advance

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  • jQuery and jQuery UI (Dual Licensing)

    - by John Hartsock
    OK I have read many posts regarding Dual Licensing using MIT and GPL licenses. But Im curious still, as the wording seems to be inclusive. Many of the Dual Licenses state that the software is licensed using "MIT AND GPL". The "AND" is what confuses me. It seems to me that the word "AND" in the terms, means you will be licensing the product using both licenses. Most of the posts, here on stackoverflow, say you can license the software using one "OR" the other. JQuery specifically states "OR", whereas JQuery UI specifically States "AND". Another Instance of the "AND" would be JQGrid. Im not a lawyer but, it seems to me that a legal interpretation of this would state that use of the software would mean that your using the software under both licenses. Has anyone who has contacted a lawyer gotten clarification or a definitive answer as to what is true? Can you use Dual licensed software products that state "AND" in the terms of agreement under either license?

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

    - by John
    Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

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  • How to not cache a php file where a cachemanifest is beeing called?

    - by Volmar
    Hi, i'm building a iphone app with jqtouch and i use a cachemanifest to cache all the static files (images, css, javascript) to make it load faster. However the page uses php for the dynamic content and i don't want to cache that. So i'm generating the cachemanifest with this php-script(manifest.php): <?php header('Content-Type: text/cache-manifest'); echo "CACHE MANIFEST\n"; $hashes = ""; $lastFileWasDynamic = FALSE; $dir = new RecursiveDirectoryIterator("."); foreach(new RecursiveIteratorIterator($dir) as $file) { if ($file->IsFile() && $file != "./manifest.php" && substr($file->getFilename(), 0, 1) != ".") { if(preg_match('/.php$/', $file)) { if(!$lastFileWasDynamic) { echo "\n\nNETWORK:\n"; } $lastFileWasDynamic = TRUE; } else { if($lastFileWasDynamic) { echo "\n\nCACHE:\n"; $lastFileWasDynamic = FALSE; } } echo $file . "\n"; $hashes .= md5_file($file); } } echo "\nNETWORK:\nhttp://chart.apis.google.com/\n\n# Hash: " . md5($hashes) . "\n"; ?> This actually works really good except for one irritating thing: From what i read somewhere the file that calls the cachemanifest is automaticly included in the manifest and is beeing cached. Wich means that my start-page index.php, where i call the cachemanifest is beeing cached. This leads to very irritating problems. is there any way to deal with this or any smart workaround? The page is in the cachemanifest listed as NETWORK, but it looks like this is beeing overruled by the fact that the cachemanifest is called from the file.

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  • Stored Procedure To Search the AccessRights given to the Users.

    - by thevan
    Hi, I want to display the Access Rights given to the Users for the particular module. I have Seven Tables such as RoleAccess, Roles, Functions, Module, SubModule, Company and Unit. RoleAccess is the Main Table. The AccessRights given will be stored in the RoleAccess Table only. RoleAccess Table has the following columns such as RoleID, CompanyID, UnitID, FunctionID, ModuleID, SubModuleID, Create, Update, Delete, Read, Approve. Here Create_f, Update_f, Delete_f, Read_f and Approve_f are flags. Company Table has two columns such as CompanyID and CompanyName. Unit Table has three columns such as UnitID, UnitName and CompanyID. Roles Table has four columns such as RoleID, RoleName, CompanyID and UnitID. Module Table has two columns such as ModuleID and ModuleName. SubModule Table has three columns such as ModuleID, SubModuleID, SubModuleName. Functions Table has five columns such as FunctionID, FunctionName, ModuleID and SubModuleID. At First, The RoleAccess Table does not contain any records. So I want to display the ModuleName, SubModuleName, FunctionName, CompanyID, RoleID, UnitID, FunctionID, ModuleID, SubModuleID, Create_f, Update_f, Delete_f, Read_f and Approve_f. If the AccessRights is assigned to the Particular RoleID means the flags in the search results will be 1 else it will be 0. I have witten one stored procedure but it displays the records based on the RoleID stored in the RoleAccess table. But I also want to display the Flags as 0 for the Roles not stored in the RoleAccess Table. I want the Stored Procedure for this. Any one please help me.

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  • Record the timestamps of slide changes during a live Powerpoint presentation?

    - by StackedCrooked
    I am planning to implement a lecture capture solution. One of the requirements is to record both the presenter and the slideshow. The presenter is recorded with a videocamera obviously, and the slideshow will probably be captured using a tool like Camtasia. Now during playback three components are visible: the presenter, the slides and a table of contents. Clicking a chapter title in the TOC causes the video to navigate to the corresponding section. This means that a mapping must be made between chapter titles and their timestamps in the video. Usually a change of topic is accompanied with a slide change in the Powerpoint presentation. So the timestamps could be deduced from the slidechanges. However, this requires me to detect slide changes during the live presentation. And I don't know how to do that. Anyone here knows how to do detect slide changes? Is there a Powerpoint API where I can connect event handlers or something like that? I'd greatly appreciate your help! Edit This issue is no longer relevant for my current work so this question will not be updated by me. However, you are still free to help others by posting your answers/insights here.

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  • Ant telnet is hanging on a simple task

    - by Sagar
    <?xml version="1.0" ?> <project name="test" default="root"> <target name="telnet"> <telnet server="10.1.1.1"> <read>login:</read> <write>root</write> <read>password:</read> <write>${PASSWORD}</write> <read>#</read> <write>ls</write> <read>#</read> </telnet> </target> </project> That is the code I have in a build.xml file. When I run ant (version 1.8, in bash) (I have downloaded and copied over the jars for commons-net-2.0 and jakarta-oro-2.0.8 already), this is the output I get: Buildfile: /home/sagar/build.xml telnet: and then it just sits there. When I do a "who" on my server, I can see "System" waiting on login. But there is no progress after this. I can telnet into the server using normal telnet means (putty, bash, etc). I even tried the full telnet command instead of read/write: <telnet server="10.1.1.1" userid="root" password="root"> Any help is much appreciated! Note: JRE 1.5, Ant 1.8, commons-net version 2.0, jakarta version 2.0.8

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  • Is there a standard pattern for scanning a job table executing some actions?

    - by Howiecamp
    (I realize that my title is poor. If after reading the question you have an improvement in mind, please either edit it or tell me and I'll change it.) I have the relatively common scenario of a job table which has 1 row for some thing that needs to be done. For example, it could be a list of emails to be sent. The table looks something like this: ID Completed TimeCompleted anything else... ---- --------- ------------- ---------------- 1 No blabla 2 No blabla 3 Yes 01:04:22 ... I'm looking either for a standard practice/pattern (or code - C#/SQL Server preferred) for periodically "scanning" (I use the term "scanning" very loosely) this table, finding the not-completed items, doing the action and then marking them completed once done successfully. In addition to the basic process for accomplishing the above, I'm considering the following requirements: I'd like some means of "scaling linearly", e.g. running multiple "worker processes" simultaneously or threading or whatever. (Just a specific technical thought - I'm assuming that as a result of this requirement, I need some method of marking an item as "in progress" to avoid attempting the action multiple times.) Each item in the table should only be executed once. Some other thoughts: I'm not particularly concerned with the implementation being done in the database (e.g. in T-SQL or PL/SQL code) vs. some external program code (e.g. a standalone executable or some action triggered by a web page) which is executed against the database Whether the "doing the action" part is done synchronously or asynchronously is not something I'm considering as part of this question.

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  • Delphi: Error when starting MCI

    - by marco92w
    I use the TMediaPlayer component for playing music. It works fine with most of my tracks. But it doesn't work with some tracks. When I want to play them, the following error message is shown: Which is German but roughly means that: In the project pMusicPlayer.exe an exception of the class EMCIDeviceError occurred. Message: "Error when starting MCI.". Process was stopped. Continue with "Single Command/Statement" or "Start". The program quits directly after calling the procedure "Play" of TMediaPlayer. This error occurred with the following file for example: file size: 7.40 MB duration: 4:02 minutes bitrate: 256 kBit/s I've encoded this file with a bitrate of 128 kBit/s and thus a file size of 3.70 MB: It works fine! What's wrong with the first file? Windows Media Player or other programs can play it without any problems. Is it possible that Delphi's TMediaPlayer cannot handle big files (e.g. 5 MB) or files with a high bitrate (e.g. 128 kBit/s)? What can I do to solve the problem?

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  • Can not make the settings from the sidebar gadget get applied

    - by Daniel
    Hey guys, OK, I am not an expert at Sidebar Gadgets, but I have this project I will have to make for school. Have tried to solve it on my own but I got really stuck. I will have to use the Cirip API (Cirip.ro being a kind of Twitter), and for the use of the API I have to input the username. I do so by means of the Settings, but when closing the settings there is no effect. Here is the code, but it's pretty messy. I am not a web programmer so javascript/html is new to me. http://www.box.net/shared/7yogevhzrr Thank you for your remark, Andy. From gadget.js function setUserName(userNameSet){ userName = userNameSet; } function getUserName(){ return userName; } function settingsClosed(event) { if(event.closeAction == event.Action.commit) { var user = System.Gadget.Settings.read("userName"); if(user != "") { setUserName(user); } } From settings.js document.onreadystatechange = function DoInit() { if(document.readyState=="complete") { var user = System.Gadget.Settings.read("userName"); if(user != "") { userBox.value = user; } } } // -------------------------------------------------------------------- // Handle the Settings dialog closed event. // event = System.Gadget.Settings.ClosingEvent argument. // -------------------------------------------------------------------- System.Gadget.onSettingsClosing = function(event) { if (event.closeAction == event.Action.commit) { var user = userBox.value; if(user != "") { System.Gadget.Settings.write("userName", user); } event.cancel = false; } }

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  • Why can't I access the facebook friends list after reopening a session in ios

    - by user1532390
    I am upgrading to the facebook 3.0 sdk for ios. Things went well, until I tried to open an existing session after relaunching the application. I am trying to access the list of friends for the facebook user. if ([[FBSession activeSession] isOpen]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //do something here }]; }else{ [[self session] openWithCompletionHandler:^(FBSession *session, FBSessionState status, NSError *error) { if ([self isValid]) { [request startWithCompletionHandler:^(FBRequestConnection *connection, id result, NSError *error) { //log this error we always get NSLog(@"%@",error); //do something else }]; } }]; } However I get this error: Error Domain=com.facebook.sdk Code=5 "The operation couldn’t be completed. (com.facebook.sdk error 5.)" UserInfo=0x1d92ff40 {com.facebook.sdk:ParsedJSONResponseKey={ body = { error = { code = 2500; message = "An active access token must be used to query information about the current user."; type = OAuthException; }; }; code = 400; }, com.facebook.sdk:HTTPStatusCode=400} I've found that if I use the FBSession reauthorize method it allows me to complete the request without error, but it also means I must show UI or switch apps every time we relaunch the application which is unacceptable. Any suggestions on what I should be doing differently?

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  • Web-app currency input/manipulation/calculation with javascript .. there has got to be a better (fra

    - by dreftymac
    BACKGROUND: I am of the "user-input-lockdown" school of thought. Whenever possible, I try to mistrust and sanitize user input, both client side and server side; and I try to take multiple opportunities to restrict possible inputs to a known subset of possibilities, usually this means providing a lot of checkboxes and select lists. (This is from the usability side of things, I know security-wise that malicious users can easily bypass fixed user input GUI controls). PROBLEM: Anyway, the problem always arises with non-fixed input of currency. Whenever I have to accept a freely-specified dollar amount as user input, I always have to confront these problems/annoyances and it is always painful: 1) Make sure to give the user two input boxes for each currency_datapoint, one for the whole_dollar_part and another for the fractional_pennies_part 2) Whenever the user changes a currency_datapoint, provide keystroke-by-keystroke GUI feedback to let them know whether the currency_datapoint is well-formed, with context-appropriate validation rules (e.g., no negatives?, nonzero only?, numeric only!, no non-numeric punctuation! no symbols!) 3) For display purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint should be translated to human-readable currency formatting (dollar sign, period, commas provided by the app, where appropriate) 4) For calculation purposes, every user-provided currency_datapoint has to be converted to integer (all pennies, to avoid floating point errors) and summed into a grand total with zero or more subtotals. 5) Every user-provided currency_datapoint should be displayed or displayable in a nice "tabular" format, which auto-updates as the user enters each currency_datapoint, including a baloon that warns when one or more currency_datapoints is not well-formed. I seem to be re-inventing this wheel every time I have to work with currency in Javascript on the client side (server side is a bit more flexible since most programming languages have higher-level currency formatting logic). QUESTION: Has anyone out there solved the problem of dealing with the above issues, client side, in a way that is server-side-technology-stack agnostic, (preferrably plain javascript or jquery)? This is getting old, there has to be a better way.

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  • Python Error-Checking Standard Practice

    - by chaindriver
    Hi, I have a question regarding error checking in Python. Let's say I have a function that takes a file path as an input: def myFunction(filepath): infile = open(filepath) #etc etc... One possible precondition would be that the file should exist. There are a few possible ways to check for this precondition, and I'm just wondering what's the best way to do it. i) Check with an if-statement: if not os.path.exists(filepath): raise IOException('File does not exist: %s' % filepath) This is the way that I would usually do it, though the same IOException would be raised by Python if the file does not exist, even if I don't raise it. ii) Use assert to check for the precondition: assert os.path.exists(filepath), 'File does not exist: %s' % filepath Using asserts seems to be the "standard" way of checking for pre/postconditions, so I am tempted to use these. However, it is possible that these asserts are turned off when the -o flag is used during execution, which means that this check might potentially be turned off and that seems risky. iii) Don't handle the precondition at all This is because if filepath does not exist, there will be an exception generated anyway and the exception message is detailed enough for user to know that the file does not exist I'm just wondering which of the above is the standard practice that I should use for my codes.

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  • Perl program for extracting the functions alone in a Ruby file

    - by thillaiselvan
    Hai all, I am having the following Ruby program. puts "hai" def mult(a,b) a * b end puts "hello" def getCostAndMpg cost = 30000 # some fancy db calls go here mpg = 30 return cost,mpg end AltimaCost, AltimaMpg = getCostAndMpg puts "AltimaCost = #{AltimaCost}, AltimaMpg = {AltimaMpg}" I have written a perl script which will extract the functions alone in a Ruby file as follows while (<DATA>){ print if ( /def/ .. /end/ ); } Here the <DATA> is reading from the ruby file. So perl prograam produces the following output. def mult(a,b) a * b end def getCostAndMpg cost = 30000 # some fancy db calls go here mpg = 30 return cost,mpg end But, if the function is having block of statements, say for example it is having an if condition testing block means then it is not working. It is taking only up to the "end" of "if" block. And it is not taking up to the "end" of the function. So kindly provide solutions for me. Example: def function if x > 2 puts "x is greater than 2" elsif x <= 2 and x!=0 puts "x is 1" else puts "I can't guess the number" end #----- My code parsing only up to this end Thanks in Advance!

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  • Recursion in prepared statements

    - by Rob
    I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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  • Best practices for deploying an MVC application on IIS7

    - by gsiler
    I'm not a web admin, and I'm new to IIS. So, I'm looking for advice. My MVC application (e.g. fooapp) is the default application for my site (e.g. foo.bar). I used IIS Manager to add the site to IIS7. When I import the application, IIS Manager wants to put it in it's own directory (/foo), and tells me I shouldn't put it in the base (site) directory. This means that to get to my default MVC view, I have to enter the URL http://foo.bar/fooapp/. Needless to say, I want to get there via http://foo.bar/ I see 2 possible solutions: Add a default page to the site directory that redirects to the MVC app. Ignore the IIS admonition and load the app into the site directory. My IIS7 knowledge is limited. I have played around with some options (such as HTTP Redirect). Since nothing changed, I obviously don't understand what I'm doing. Anyway, if there are some considered "best practices" and/or other suggestions, please let me know.

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  • Cannot implicity convert type void to System.Threading.Tasks.Task<bool>

    - by sagesky36
    I have a WCF Service that contains the following method. All the methods in the service are asynchrounous and compile just fine. public async Task<Boolean> ValidateRegistrationAsync(String strUserName) { try { using (YeagerTechEntities DbContext = new YeagerTechEntities()) { DbContext.Configuration.ProxyCreationEnabled = false; DbContext.Database.Connection.Open(); var reg = await DbContext.aspnet_Users.FirstOrDefaultAsync(f => f.UserName == strUserName); if (reg != null) return true; else return false; } } catch (Exception) { throw; } } My client application was set to access the WCF service with the check box for the "Allow generation of asynchronous operations" and it generated the proxy just fine. I am receiving the above subject error when trying to call this WCF service method from my client with the following code. Mind you, I know what the error message means, but this is my first time trying to call an asynchronous task in a WCF service from a client. Task<Boolean> blnMbrShip = db.ValidateRegistrationAsync(FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(cn.Value).Name); What do I need to do to properly call the method so the design time compile error disappears? Thanks so much in advance...

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  • Need cause for: double dialer icon in Recents when ACTION_CALL is intercepted and re-sent

    - by Emmanuel
    Note that this happens on Android version 2.1 update1 and 2.2. This seems gone in later versions. Of course I would like to know the workaround. But if there are none, at least if this is a known bug, please provide with a link to the bug. I would also accept the source code fix info or diff where this was fixed. I have an application that intercepts an outgoing call, asks a question to the user, and then depending on the answer it could re-send the call. This works fine. But then when you go to the Recents (hold the Home key) there are two slightly different dialer icons there: one from the dialer application, and a second one for the resending of the call action: This means when you click on the first icon, it opens the dialer. But when you click on the second one, it redials the last number. I tried using android:excludeFromRecents="true" for all my activities. I also tried Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_EXCLUDE_FROM_RECENTS when I start the call action. No luck.

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  • Javascript iframe caching issue

    - by Brian
    I hava an iframe which loads some javascript via javascript. In internet explorer only, this works if and only if IE has a cached copy of the javascript. This means that reloading the page (or otherwise triggering the script to run again, if it's stuck in a function or whatever) will cause this code to work, otherwise it will not. In particular, the document.write call fails to happen. Main Page: <iframe height = "200" width = "200" id = "happy"> </iframe> <script type="text/javascript"> var a = document.getElementById("happy"); scripttxt = '<a href="#" id="joy">JOY</a><'+'script type="text/javascript" src="fail.js"></'+'script>'; a.src = "about:blank"; a.contentWindow.document.open(); a.contentWindow.document.write("<h3>Preview:</h3>" + scripttxt + ""); a.contentWindow.document.close(); </script> fail.js: document.write(document.getElementById("joy")); I realize I could use conditional comments to have IE skip document.open() and document.close() in the script of Main Page, but having IE skip document.open() and document.close() feels a bit hacky (Edit)...and breaks other things in IE.

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  • How is it legal to reference an undefined type inside a structure?

    - by paxdiablo
    As part of answering another question, I came across a piece of code like this, which gcc compiles without complaint. typedef struct { struct xyz *z; } xyz; int main (void) { return 0; } This is the means I've always used to construct types that point to themselves (e.g., linked lists) but I've always thought you had to name the struct so you could use self-reference. In other words, you couldn't use xyz *z within the structure because the typedef is not yet complete at that point. But this particular sample does not name the structure and it still compiles. I thought originally there was some black magic going on in the compiler that automatically translated the above code because the structure and typedef names were the same. But this little beauty works as well: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz *z; } xyz; What am I missing here? This seems a clear violation since there is no struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz type defined anywhere. When I change it from a pointer to an actual type, I get the expected error: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz z; } xyz; qqq.c:2: error: field `z' has incomplete type Also, when I remove the struct, I get an error (parse error before "NOTHING ...). Is this allowed in ISO C?

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  • Stack Overflow problem transforming with a custom xslt

    - by Flynn1179
    I've got a system that allows the user the option of providing their own XSLT to apply to some data that's been retrieved, as a means of specifying how that data should be presented. However, if the user includes code in the XSLT equivalent to: <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:element name="data"> <xsl:apply-templates select="." /> </xsl:element> </xsl:template> this causes .NET to infinitely recurse trying to process it, and produces a stack overflow error. I need to be able to trap this before it crashes the app, as the data that's been retrieved is occasionally quite time-consuming to obtain, and the data is lost when this happens. Is there any way of doing this? I know it's theoretically possible to identify any occurrences of xsl:apply-templates with "." in the select attribute, but this isn't the only way an infinite recursion could happen, I need a way of generically trapping it.

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