Search Results

Search found 9128 results on 366 pages for 'execute immediate'.

Page 303/366 | < Previous Page | 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310  | Next Page >

• RegisterClientScriptInclude doesn't work for some reason...

  - by Andrew

  Hey, I've spent at least 2 days trying anything and googling this...but for some reason I can't get RegisterClientScriptInclude to work the way everyone else has it working? First off, I am usting .NET 3.5 Ajax,...and I am including javascript in my partial page refreshes...using this code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this, typeof(Page), "MyClientCode", script, true); It works perfectly, my javascript code contained in the script variable is included every partial refresh. The javascript in script is actually quite extensive though, and I would like to store it in a .js file,..so logically I make a .js file and try to include it using RegisterClientScriptInclude ...however i can't for the life of my get this to work. here's the exact code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this, typeof(Page), "mytestscript", "/js/testscript.js"); the testscript.js file is only included in FULL page refreshes...ie. when I load the page, or do a full postback....i can't get the file to be included in partial refreshes...have no idea why..when viewing the ajax POST in firebug I don't see a difference whether I include the file or not.... both of the ScriptManager Includes are being ran from the exact same place in "Page_Load"...so they should execute every partial refresh (but only the ScriptBlock does). anyways,..any help or ideas,..or further ways I can trouble shoot this problem, would be appreciated. Thanks, Andrew

  Read the article

• Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

  - by MatsL

  I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

  Read the article

• Pros and Cons of using SqlCommand Prepare in C#?

  - by MadBoy

  When i was reading books to learn C# (might be some old Visual Studio 2005 books) I've encountered advice to always use SqlCommand.Prepare everytime I execute SQL call (whether its' a SELECT/UPDATE or INSERT on SQL SERVER 2005/2008) and I pass parameters to it. But is it really so? Should it be done every time? Or just sometimes? Does it matter whether it's one parameter being passed or five or twenty? What boost should it give if any? Would it be noticeable at all (I've been using SqlCommand.Prepare here and skipped it there and never had any problems or noticeable differences). For the sake of the question this is my usual code that I use, but this is more of a general question. public static decimal pobierzBenchmarkKolejny(string varPortfelID, DateTime data, decimal varBenchmarkPoprzedni, decimal varStopaOdniesienia) { const string preparedCommand = @"SELECT [dbo].[ufn_BenchmarkKolejny](@varPortfelID, @data, @varBenchmarkPoprzedni, @varStopaOdniesienia) AS 'Benchmark'"; using (var varConnection = Locale.sqlConnectOneTime(Locale.sqlDataConnectionDetailsDZP)) //if (varConnection != null) { using (var sqlQuery = new SqlCommand(preparedCommand, varConnection)) { sqlQuery.Prepare(); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varPortfelID", varPortfelID); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varStopaOdniesienia", varStopaOdniesienia); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@data", data); sqlQuery.Parameters.AddWithValue("@varBenchmarkPoprzedni", varBenchmarkPoprzedni); using (var sqlQueryResult = sqlQuery.ExecuteReader()) if (sqlQueryResult != null) { while (sqlQueryResult.Read()) { //sqlQueryResult["Benchmark"]; } } } }

  Read the article

• Sourcing a shell script, while running with sudo

  - by WishCow

  I would like to write a shell script that sets up a mercurial repository, and allow all users in the group "developers" to execute this script. The script is owned by the user "hg", and works fine when ran. The problem comes when I try to run it with another user, using sudo, the execution halts with a "permission denied" error, when it tries to source another file. The script file in question: create_repo.sh #!/bin/bash source colors.sh REPOROOT="/srv/repository/mercurial/" ... rest of the script .... Permissions of create_repo.sh, and colors.sh: -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 551 2011-01-07 10:20 colors.sh -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 1137 2011-01-07 11:08 create_repo.sh Sudoers setup: %developer ALL = (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh What I'm trying to run: user@nebu:~$ id uid=1000(user) gid=1000(user) groups=4(adm),20(dialout),24(cdrom),46(plugdev),105(lpadmin),113(sambashare),116(admin),1000(user),1001(developer) user@nebu:~$ sudo -l Matching Defaults entries for user on this host: env_reset User user may run the following commands on this host: (ALL) ALL (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh: line 3: colors.sh: Permission denied So the script is executed, but halts when it tries to include the other script. I have also tried using: user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /bin/bash /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh Which gives the same result. What is the correct way to include another shell script, if the script may be ran with a different user, through sudo?

  Read the article

• Need to add WHERE condition to query

  - by Angel Carlson

  I am trying to modify edit_orders.php in Zen Cart. Hoping someone might be able to help me add a condition to a query. I need the queries below to specify that the items selected from TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION and TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION must have a language_id = 1. Would be so grateful for any help you could provide. // ############################################################################ // Get List of All Products // ############################################################################ //$result = zen_db_query("SELECT products_name, p.products_id, x.categories_name, ptc.categories_id FROM " . TABLE_PRODUCTS . " p LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION . " pd ON pd.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_TO_CATEGORIES . " ptc ON ptc.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " cd ON cd.categories_id=ptc.categories_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " x ON x.categories_id=ptc.categories_id ORDER BY categories_id"); $result = $db -> Execute("SELECT products_name, p.products_id, categories_name, ptc.categories_id FROM " . TABLE_PRODUCTS . " p LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION . " pd ON pd.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_TO_CATEGORIES . " ptc ON ptc.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " cd ON cd.categories_id=ptc.categories_id ORDER BY categories_name");

  Read the article

• Process-to-port mapping with SNMP and/or wmi/wmic in java

  - by Niddy888

  I'm trying to use SNMP to map outgoing ports on my host computer with the application running on the computer that is responsible for that communication. When running "netstat -ano" I get access to Protocol, Local Address (with port), Foreign Address (with port), State and PID. But I want to do this entirely without having to execute "cmd" from Java. By using SNMP OID: .1.3.6.1.2.1.25.4 (.iso.org.dod.internet.mgmt.mib-2.host.hrSWRun) I get access to PID (ex. 1704), Name (ex. cmd.exe), Path (ex. C:\Windows\system32) among others. There is an SNMP OID: .1.3.6.1.2.1.6.13 (.iso.org.dod.internet.mgmt.mib-2.tcp.tcpConnTable) that give you access to TCP connection state, local address, local port, remote address, remote port. But NO PID. So to sum up. My question again: Is there a way to "map" these tables together? Either directly in SNMP with other OID's or in conjunction with WMI / WMIC?

  Read the article

• Remove redundant SQL code

  - by Dave Jarvis

  Code The following code calculates the slope and intercept for a linear regression against a slathering of data. It then applies the equation y = mx + b against the same result set to calculate the value of the regression line for each row. Can the two separate sub-selects be joined so that the data and its slope/intercept are calculated without executing the data gathering part of the query twice? SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR * ymxb.SLOPE + ymxb.INTERCEPT as REGRESSION_LINE, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D, (SELECT ((avg(t.AMOUNT * t.YEAR)) - avg(t.AMOUNT) * avg(t.YEAR)) / (stddev( t.AMOUNT ) * stddev( t.YEAR )) as CORRELATION, ((sum(t.YEAR) * sum(t.AMOUNT)) - (count(1) * sum(t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as SLOPE, ((sum( t.YEAR ) * sum( t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT )) - (sum( t.AMOUNT ) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2)))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as INTERCEPT FROM ( SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR ) t ) ymxb WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR Question How do I execute the duplicate bits only once per query, instead of twice? The duplicate bit is the WHERE clause: $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' Related http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1595659/how-to-eliminate-duplicate-calculation-in-sql Thank you!

  Read the article

• PHP code displayed in browser

  - by Drake

  so, I'm working on a databases project, and i'm trying to code incrementally. the problem is, when i go to test the php in browser, it displays the php code after my use of "-". the html printing is displayed properly, which is AFTER the point where the - is. here is the php: <?php function getGraphicNovel(){ include_once("./connect.php"); $db_connection = new mysqli($SERVER, $USERNAME, $PASSWORD, $DATABASE); if (mysqli_connect_errno()) { echo("Can't connect to MySQL Server. Error code: " . mysqli_connect_error()); return null; } $stmt = $db_connection->stmt_init(); $returnValue = "invalid"; if($stmt.prepare("select series from graphic_novel_main natural join graphic_novel_misc")) { $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($series); while ($stmt->fetch()) { echo "<tr><td>" . $series . "</td></tr>"; } $stmt->close(); } $db_connection->close(); } getGraphicNovel(); ?> here is a link to the page. hopefully it works for people outside the school's network. http://plato.cs.virginia.edu/~paw5k/cainedb/viewall.html if anyone knows why this is happening, your input would be great!

  Read the article

• Multi threading in WCF RIA Services

  - by synergetic

  I use WCF RIA Services to update customer database. In domain service: public void UpdateCustomer(Customer customer) { this.ObjectContext.Customers.AttachAsModified(customer); syncCustomer(customer); } After update, a database trigger launches and depending on the columns updated it may insert a new record in CustomerChange table. syncCustomer(customer) method is executed to check for a new record in the CustomerChange table and if found it will create a text file which contains customer information and forwards that file to external system for import. Now this synchronization may take a time so I wanted to execute it in different thread. So: private void syncCustomer(Customer customer) { this.ObjectContext.SaveChanges(); new Thread(() => syncCustomerInfo(customer.CustomerID)) { IsBackground = true }.Start(); } private void syncCustomerInfo(int customerID) { //Thread.Sleep(2000); //does real job here ... ... } The problem is in most cases syncCustomerInfo method cannot find any new CustomerChange record even if it was definitely there. If I force thread sleep then it finds a new record. I also looked Entity Framework events but the only event provided by object context is SavingChanges which occur before changes are saved. Please suggest me what else to try.

  Read the article

• struts2 action not calling properly

  - by Ziplin

  On default I want my struts2 app to forward to an action: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <!DOCTYPE struts PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Struts Configuration 2.0//EN" "http://struts.apache.org/dtds/struts-2.0.dtd"> <struts> <constant name="struts.enable.DynamicMethodInvocation" value="false" /> <constant name="struts.devMode" value="false" /> <package name="myApp" namespace="/myApp" extends="struts-default"> <action name="Login_*" method="{1}" class="myApp.SessionManager"> <result name="input">/myApp/Login.jsp</result> <result type="redirectAction">Menu</result> </action> </package> <package name="default" namespace="/" extends="struts-default"> <default-action-ref name="index" /> <action name="index"> <result type="redirectAction"> <param name="actionName">Login_input.action</param> <param name="namespace">/myApp</param> </result> </action> </package> </struts> I'm looking for the application to call SessionManager.input(), but instead it calls SessionManager.execute().

  Read the article

• Memeory Leak in Windows Page file when calling a shell command

  - by Arno

  I have an issue on our Windows 2003 x64 Build Server when invoking shell commands from a script. Each call causes a "memory leak" in the page file so it grows quite rapidly until it reaches the maximum and the machine stops working. I can reproduce the problem very nicely by running a perl script like for ($count=1; $count<5000; $count++) { system "echo huhu"; } It is independent of he scripting language as the same happens with lua: for i=1,5000 do os.execute("echo huhu") end I found somebody describing the same issue with php at http://www.issociate.de/board/post/454835/Memory_leak_occurs_when_exec%28%29_function_is_used_on_Windows_platform.html His solution: Firewall/Virus Scanner does not apply, neither are running on the machine. We can also reproduce the issue on other Developer Machines running XP 64, but not on XP 32 Bit. I also found an article describing a leak situation in page file at http://www.programfragment.com/ The guilty guy for the allocation is C:\WINDOWS\System32\svchost.exe -k netsvcs which runs all the basic Windows services. Does anybody know the issue and how to resolve it ?

  Read the article

• Windows 8 Data Binding Bug - OnPropertyChanged Updates Wrong Object

  - by Andrew

  I'm experiencing some really weird behavior with data binding in Windows 8. I have a combobox set up like this: <ComboBox VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,18,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Height="Auto" Width="138" Background="{StaticResource DarkBackgroundBrush}" BorderThickness="0" ItemsSource="{Binding CurrentForum.SortValues}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentForum.CurrentSort, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Right" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource SortValueConverter}}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> Inside of a page with the DataContext set to a statically located ViewModel. When I change that ViewModel's CurrentForm attribute, who's property is implemented like this... public FormViewModel CurrentForm { get { return _currentForm; } set { _currentForm = value; if (!_currentForm.IsLoaded) { _currentSubreddit.Refresh.Execute(null); } RaisePropertyChanged("CurrentForm"); } } ... something really strange happens. The previous FormViewModel's CurrentSort property is changed to the new FormViewModel's current sort property. This happens as the RaisePropertyChanged event is called, through a managed-to-native transition, with native code invoking the setter of CurrentSort of the previous FormViewModel. Does that sound like a bug in Win8's data binding? Am I doing something wrong?

  Read the article

• jqtouch load content with ajax

  - by ndrizza

  I am loading this page directly inside of jqtouch. First the page shows "Loading..." Then it should execute a GET Request and refresh the content of the div ("tagcloud") as soon as it get's the content from another php file. (I prefer to load the content this way as otherwise jqtouch freezes for 2 seconds until the content is loaded and then animates to the next page.) <?php $link = $_GET['link']; ?> <div id="TagNews"> <div class="toolbar"> <h1>TagNews</h1> <a href="#" class="back">NZZ</a> </div> <div id="tagcloud">Loading...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> $.get("cloudnews2.php?link=<?php echo $link; ?>", function(data){ document.getElementById("tagcloud").innerHTML = data; }); </script> </div> Howewer, the request never gets loaded. The code is working outside of jqtouch. But inside jqtouch the GET Request doesn't work. I can't figure out why. Could you please help me to do this request?

  Read the article

• PHP's openssl_sign generates different signature than SSCrypto's sign

  - by pascalj

  I'm writing an OS X client for a software that is written in PHP. This software uses a simple RPC interface to receive and execute commands. The RPC client has to sign the commands he sends to ensure that no MITM can modify any of them. However, as the server was not accepting the signatures I sent from my OS X client, I started investigating and found out that PHP's openssl_sign function generates a different signature for a given private key/data combination than the Objective-C SSCrypto framework (which is only a wrapper for the openssl lib): SSCrypto *crypto = [[SSCrypto alloc] initWithPrivateKey:self.localPrivKey]; NSData *shaed = [self sha1:@"hello"]; [crypto setClearTextWithData:shaed]; NSData *data = [crypto sign]; generates a signature like CtbkSxvqNZ+mAN... The PHP code openssl_sign("hello", $signature, $privateKey); generates a signature like 6u0d2qjFiMbZ+... (For my certain key, of course. base64 encoded) I'm not quite shure why this is happening and I unsuccessfully experimented with different hash-algorithms. As the PHP documentation states SHA1 is used by default. So why do these two functions generate different signatures and how can I get my Objective-C part to generate a signature that PHPs openssl_verify will accept? Note: I double checked that the keys and the data is correct!

  Read the article

• Inject runtime exception to pthread sometime fails. How to fix that?

  - by lionbest

  I try to inject the exception to thread using signals, but some times the exception is not get caught. For example the following code: void _sigthrow(int sig) { throw runtime_error(strsignal(sig)); } struct sigaction sigthrow = {{&_sigthrow}}; void* thread1(void*) { sigaction(SIGINT,&sigthrow,NULL); try { while(1) usleep(1); } catch(exception &e) { cerr << "Thread1 catched " << e.what() << endl; } }; void* thread2(void*) { sigaction(SIGINT,&sigthrow,NULL); try { while(1); } catch(exception &e) { cerr << "Thread2 catched " << e.what() << endl; //never goes here } }; If I try to execute like: int main() { pthread_t p1,p2; pthread_create( &p1, NULL, &thread1, NULL ); pthread_create( &p2, NULL, &thread2, NULL ); sleep(1); pthread_kill( p1, SIGINT); pthread_kill( p2, SIGINT); sleep(1); return EXIT_SUCCESS; } I get the following output: Thread1 catched Interrupt terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): Interrupt Aborted How can I make second threat catch exception? Is there better idea about injecting exceptions?

  Read the article

• How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

  - by ShaneC

  I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

  Read the article

• functions with same names in javascript

  - by biju

  Hi, I tried to write a function on a js file and another function with the same name in the page.I expected an error but no error came and i got only the function from the js file to execute.How is this possible.Even if i write a function in a separate js file,everything is rendered in a single html file.Then how come it is possible <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="JScript.js" /> <script language="javascript"> function Boo() { alert("Hai new"); } </script> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button runat=server OnClientClick="Boo();" Text="Click" /> </div> </form> </body> and in the js file function Boo() { alert("Hai"); }

  Read the article

• about option buttons in User form

  - by Mars

  I have a question: I need to create a user form that contain that usual OK and Cancel Buttons. It also should contain two sets of Options buttons, each set placed inside a frame. The captions on the first set should be basketball, baseball, football, the captions on the second set should be watch on TV and Go to games. I need to write the event handlers and code in a module so that when the program runs, the user sees the form. If the user makes a couple of choices and clicks OK, he should see a message like "Your favorite sport is basketball, and you usually watch on TV." If the user clicks Cancel, the message "Sorry you don't want to play" should appear. I think I almost have it working, but I don't know why I cannot successfully execute the Macro. My Code is : Option Explicit Private Sub CommandButton2_Click() MsgBox ("sorry if you don't want to play") End Sub Private Sub commandbuttons_Click() Dim optbasket As String, optbaseball As String, optfootball As String Dim optwog As String, optgtg As String Select Case True Case optbasket optbasket = True Case optbaseball optbaseball = True Case optfootball optfootball = True End Select If optwog Then optwog = True Else optgtg = True End If btnok = MsgBox("you favorite sport is " & Frame1.Value & "you usually " & Frame2.Value & ",") End Sub Private Sub OptionButton1_Click() End Sub Private Sub btmcancel_Click() End Sub Private Sub btnok_Click() End Sub Private Sub Frame1_Click() End Sub Private Sub Frame2_Click() End Sub Private Sub optbaseball_Click() End Sub Private Sub optbasketball_Click() End Sub Private Sub optfootball_Click() End Sub Thank you very much!!!

  Read the article

• Old dll.config problem !

  - by user313421

  Since 2005 as I googled it's a problem for who needs to read the configuration of an assembly from it's config file "*.dll.config" and Microsoft didn't do anything yet. Story: If you try to read a setting from a class library (plug-in) you fail. Instead the main application domain (EXE which is using the plug-in) config is read and because probably there's not such a config your plug-in will use default setting which is hard-coded when you create it's settings for first time. Any change to .dll.config wouldn't see by your plug-in and you wonder why it's there! If you want to replace it and start searching you may find something like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/594298/c-dll-config-file But just some ideas and one line code. A good replacement for built-in config shouldn't read from file system each time we need a config value, so we can store them in memory; Then what if user changes config file ? we need a FileSystemWatcher and we need some design like singleton ... and finally we are at the same point configuration of .NET is except our one's working. It seems MS did everything but forgot why they built the ".dll.config". Since no DLL is gonna execute by itself, they are referenced from other apps (even if used in web) and so why there's such a "*.dll.config" file ? I'm not gonna argue if it's good to have multiple config files or not. It's my design (plug-able components). Finally { After these years, is there any good practice such as a custom setting class to add in each assemly and read from it's own config file ? }

  Read the article

• Algorithm for finding similar users through a join table

  - by Gdeglin

  I have an application where users can select a variety of interests from around 300 possible interests. Each selected interest is stored in a join table containing the columns user_id and interest_id. Typical users select around 50 interests out of the 300. I would like to build a system where users can find the top 20 users that have the most interests in common with them. Right now I am able to accomplish this using the following query: SELECT i2.user_id, count(i2.interest_id) AS count FROM interests_users as i1, interests_users as i2 WHERE i1.interest_id = i2.interest_id AND i1.user_id = 35 GROUP BY i2.user_id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 20; However, this query takes approximately 500 milliseconds to execute with 10,000 users and 500,000 rows in the join table. All indexes and database configuration settings have been tuned to the best of my ability. I have also tried avoiding the use of joins altogether using the following query: select user_id,count(interest_id) count from interests_users where interest_id in (13,14,15,16,17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27,28,29,30,31,32,33,34,35,36,37,38,39,40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,48,49,50,51,52,53,54,55,56,57,58,59,60,61,62,63,64,65,66,68,69,70,71,72,73,74,75,76,77,78,79,80,81,82,83,84,85,86,87,88,89,90,91,92,93,94,95,96,97,98,508) group by user_id order by count desc limit 20; But this one is even slower (~800 milliseconds). How could I best lower the time that I can gather this kind of data to below 100 milliseconds? I have considered putting this data into a graph database like Neo4j, but I am not sure if that is the easiest solution or if it would even be faster than what I am currently doing.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

  - by Ed Harper

  I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

  Read the article

• mysql row locking via php

  - by deezee

  I am helping a friend with a web based form that is for their business. I am trying to get it ready to handle multiple users. I have set it up so that just before the record is displayed for editing I am locking the record with the following code. $query = "START TRANSACTION;"; mysql_query($query); $query = "SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = \"$value\" FOR UPDATE;"; mysql_query($query); (okay that is greatly simplified but that is the essence of the mysql) It does not appear to be working. However, when I go directly to mysql from the command line, logging in with the same user and execute START TRANSACTION; SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = "40" FOR UPDATE; I can effectively block the web form from accessing record "40" and get the timeout warning. I have tried using BEGIN instead of START TRANSACTION. I have tried doing SET AUTOCOMMIT=0 first and starting the transaction after locking but I cannot seem to lock the row from the PHP code. Since I can lock the row from the command line I do not think there is a problem with how the database is set up. I am really hoping that there is some simple something that I have missed in my reading. FYI, I am developing on XAMPP version 1.7.3 which has Apache 2.2.14, MySQL 5.1.41 and PHP 5.3.1. Thanks in advance. This is my first time posting but I have gleaned alot of knowledge from this site in the past.

  Read the article

• Lucene Query Syntax

  - by Don

  Hi, I'm trying to use Lucene to query a domain that has the following structure Student 1-------* Attendance *---------1 Course The data in the domain is summarised below Course.name Attendance.mandatory Student.name ------------------------------------------------- cooking N Bob art Y Bob If I execute the query "courseName:cooking AND mandatory:Y" it returns Bob, because Bob is attending the cooking course, and Bob is also attending a mandatory course. However, what I really want to query for is "students attending a mandatory cooking course", which in this case would return nobody. Is it possible to formulate this as a Lucene query? I'm actually using Compass, rather than Lucene directly, so I can use either CompassQueryBuilder or Lucene's query language. For the sake of completeness, the domain classes themselves are shown below. These classes are Grails domain classes, but I'm using the standard Compass annotations and Lucene query syntax. @Searchable class Student { @SearchableProperty(accessor = 'property') String name static hasMany = [attendances: Attendance] @SearchableId(accessor = 'property') Long id @SearchableComponent Set<Attendance> getAttendances() { return attendances } } @Searchable(root = false) class Attendance { static belongsTo = [student: Student, course: Course] @SearchableProperty(accessor = 'property') String mandatory = "Y" @SearchableId(accessor = 'property') Long id @SearchableComponent Course getCourse() { return course } } @Searchable(root = false) class Course { @SearchableProperty(accessor = 'property', name = "courseName") String name @SearchableId(accessor = 'property') Long id }

  Read the article

• INSERT stored procedure does not work?

  - by vikitor

  Hello, I'm trying to make an insertion from one database called suspension to the table called Notification in the ANimals database. My stored procedure is this: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[spCreateNotification] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @notRecID int, @notName nvarchar(50), @notRecStatus nvarchar(1), @notAdded smalldatetime, @notByWho int AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- Insert statements for procedure here INSERT INTO Animals.dbo.Notification values (@notRecID, @notName, @notRecStatus, null, @notAdded, @notByWho); END The null inserting is to replenish one column that otherwise will not be filled, I've tried different ways, like using also the names for the columns after the name of the table and then only indicate in values the fields I've got. I know it is not a problem of the stored procedure because I executed it from the sql server management studio and it works introducing the parameters. Then I guess the problem must be in the repository when I call the stored procedure: public void createNotification(Notification not) { try { DB.spCreateNotification(not.NotRecID, not.NotName, not.NotRecStatus, (DateTime)not.NotAdded, (int)not.NotByWho); } catch { return; } } It does not record the value in the database. I've been debugging and getting mad about this, because it works when I execute it manually, but not when I automatize the proccess in my application. Does anyone see anything wrong with my code? Thank you

  Read the article

• performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

  - by oldbeamer

  Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310  | Next Page >