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  • App Crashes Loading View Controllers

    - by golfromeo
    I have the following code in my AppDelegate.h file: @class mainViewController; @class AboutViewController; @interface iSearchAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; mainViewController *viewController; AboutViewController *aboutController; UINavigationController *nav; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet mainViewController *viewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet AboutViewController *aboutController; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UINavigationController *nav; [...IBActions declared here...] @end Then, in my .m file: @implementation iSearchAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController, aboutController, settingsData, nav, engines; (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [window addSubview:nav.view]; [window addSubview:aboutController.view]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } -(IBAction)switchToHome{ [window bringSubviewToFront:viewController.view]; } -(IBAction)switchToSettings{ [window bringSubviewToFront:nav.view]; } -(IBAction)switchToAbout{ [window bringSubviewToFront:aboutController.view]; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [aboutController release]; [nav release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end Somehow, when I run the app, the main view presents itself fine... however, when I try to execute the actions to switch views, the app crashes with an EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Thanks for any help in advance.

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  • routing mvc on the web

    - by generic_noob
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • Http authentication with apache httpcomponents

    - by matdan
    Hi, I am trying to develop a java http client with apache httpcomponents 4.0.1. This client calls the page "https://myHost/myPage". This page is protected on the server by a JNDIRealm with a login form authentication, so when I try to get https://myHost/myPage I get a login page. I tried to bypass it unsuccessfully with the following code : //I set my proxy HttpHost proxy = new HttpHost("myProxyHost", myProxyPort); //I add supported schemes SchemeRegistry supportedSchemes = new SchemeRegistry(); supportedSchemes.register(new Scheme("http", PlainSocketFactory .getSocketFactory(), 80)); supportedSchemes.register(new Scheme("https", SSLSocketFactory .getSocketFactory(), 443)); // prepare parameters HttpParams params = new BasicHttpParams(); HttpProtocolParams.setVersion(params, HttpVersion.HTTP_1_1); HttpProtocolParams.setContentCharset(params, "UTF-8"); HttpProtocolParams.setUseExpectContinue(params, true); ClientConnectionManager ccm = new ThreadSafeClientConnManager(params, supportedSchemes); DefaultHttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(ccm, params); httpclient.getParams().setParameter(ConnRoutePNames.DEFAULT_PROXY, proxy); //I add my authentication information httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( new AuthScope("myHost/myPage", 443), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("username", "password")); HttpHost host = new HttpHost("myHost", 443, "https"); HttpGet req = new HttpGet("/myPage"); //show the page ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler = new BasicResponseHandler(); String rsp = httpClient.execute(host, req, responseHandler); System.out.println(rsp); When I run this code, I always get the login page, not myPage. How can I apply my credential parameters to avoid this login form? Any help would be fantastic

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  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

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  • Is there a generic way of dealing with varying connection strings in C#?

    - by James Wiseman
    I have an application that needs to connect to a SQL database, and execute a SQL Agent Job. The connection string I am trying to access is stored in the registry, which is easily enough pulled out. This appliction is to be run on multiple computers, and I cannot guarantee the format of this connection string being consistent across these computers. Two that I have pulled out for example are: Data Source=Server1;Initial Catalog=DB1;Integrated Security=SSPI; Data Source=Server2;Initial Catalog=DB1;Provider=SQLNCLI.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Auto Translate=False; I can use an object of type System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection to connect to the database with the first connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the second to it: keyword not supported: 'provider' Similarly, I can use the an object of type System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection to connect to the database with the second connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the first to it: An OLEDB Provider was not specified in the ConnectionString' I can solve this by scanning the string for 'Provider' and doing the connect conditionally, however I can't help but feel that there is a better way of doing this, and handle the connection strings in a more generic fashion. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Searching with MATCH(), AGAINST() and AS score with mysqli and php

    - by Drew
    Below is the code I am using to search my table. I have made the relevant columns FULLTEXT in the table. This doesn't return me anything. Can someone tell me what it is that i'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance. $sql = 'SELECT id,uname,class,school, MATCH(uname, class, school) AGAINST(?) AS score FROM images WHERE MATCH(uname, class, school) AGAINST(? IN BOOLEAN MODE) ORDER BY score DES'; $stmt = $db_connection->prepare($sql); $stmt->bind_param('ss',$keyword,$keyword); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->store_result(); $stmt->bind_result($id,$uname,$class,$school); $xml = "<data>".PHP_EOL; while($stmt->fetch()){ $xml .= " <person>".PHP_EOL; $xml .= " <id>$id</id>".PHP_EOL; $xml .= " <name>$uname</name>".PHP_EOL; $xml .= " <class>$class</class>".PHP_EOL; $xml .= " <school>$school</school>".PHP_EOL; $xml .= " </person>".PHP_EOL; } $xml .= "</data>"; echo $xml; Below is an image of the indexes of the table:

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  • Blackberry Asynchronous HTTP Requests - How?

    - by Kai
    The app I'm working on has a self contained database. The only time I need HTTP request is when the user first loads the app. I do this by calling a class that verifies whether or not a local DB exists and, if not, create one with the following request: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); This xml returns a list of content, all of which have images that I want to fetch AFTER the original request is complete and stored. So something like this won't work: HttpRequest data = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xml", "GET", this); data.start(); HttpRequest images = new HttpRequest("http://www.somedomain.com/xmlImages", "GET", this); images.start(); Since it will not treat this like an asynchronous request. I have not found much information on adding callbacks to httpRequest, or any other method I could use to ensure operation 2 does not execute until operation 1 is complete. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks

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  • jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

    - by Ben
    Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

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  • Windows 8 Data Binding Bug - OnPropertyChanged Updates Wrong Object

    - by Andrew
    I'm experiencing some really weird behavior with data binding in Windows 8. I have a combobox set up like this: <ComboBox VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,18,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Height="Auto" Width="138" Background="{StaticResource DarkBackgroundBrush}" BorderThickness="0" ItemsSource="{Binding CurrentForum.SortValues}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentForum.CurrentSort, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Right" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource SortValueConverter}}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> Inside of a page with the DataContext set to a statically located ViewModel. When I change that ViewModel's CurrentForm attribute, who's property is implemented like this... public FormViewModel CurrentForm { get { return _currentForm; } set { _currentForm = value; if (!_currentForm.IsLoaded) { _currentSubreddit.Refresh.Execute(null); } RaisePropertyChanged("CurrentForm"); } } ... something really strange happens. The previous FormViewModel's CurrentSort property is changed to the new FormViewModel's current sort property. This happens as the RaisePropertyChanged event is called, through a managed-to-native transition, with native code invoking the setter of CurrentSort of the previous FormViewModel. Does that sound like a bug in Win8's data binding? Am I doing something wrong?

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  • [Cocoa] Placing an NSTimer in a separate thread

    - by ndg
    I'm trying to setup an NSTimer in a separate thread so that it continues to fire when users interact with the UI of my application. This seems to work, but Leaks reports a number of issues - and I believe I've narrowed it down to my timer code. Currently what's happening is that updateTimer tries to access an NSArrayController (timersController) which is bound to an NSTableView in my applications interface. From there, I grab the first selected row and alter its timeSpent column. From reading around, I believe what I should be trying to do is execute the updateTimer function on the main thread, rather than in my timers secondary thread. I'm posting here in the hopes that someone with more experience can tell me if that's the only thing I'm doing wrong. Having read Apple's documentation on Threading, I've found it an overwhelmingly large subject area. NSThread *timerThread = [[[NSThread alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(startTimerThread) object:nil] autorelease]; [timerThread start]; -(void)startTimerThread { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; activeTimer = [[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES] retain]; [runLoop run]; [pool release]; } -(void)updateTimer:(NSTimer *)timer { NSArray *selectedTimers = [timersController selectedObjects]; id selectedTimer = [selectedTimers objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *currentTimeSpent = [selectedTimer timeSpent]; [selectedTimer setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:[currentTimeSpent intValue]+1] forKey:@"timeSpent"]; } -(void)stopTimer { [activeTimer invalidate]; [activeTimer release]; }

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  • about option buttons in User form

    - by Mars
    I have a question: I need to create a user form that contain that usual OK and Cancel Buttons. It also should contain two sets of Options buttons, each set placed inside a frame. The captions on the first set should be basketball, baseball, football, the captions on the second set should be watch on TV and Go to games. I need to write the event handlers and code in a module so that when the program runs, the user sees the form. If the user makes a couple of choices and clicks OK, he should see a message like "Your favorite sport is basketball, and you usually watch on TV." If the user clicks Cancel, the message "Sorry you don't want to play" should appear. I think I almost have it working, but I don't know why I cannot successfully execute the Macro. My Code is : Option Explicit Private Sub CommandButton2_Click() MsgBox ("sorry if you don't want to play") End Sub Private Sub commandbuttons_Click() Dim optbasket As String, optbaseball As String, optfootball As String Dim optwog As String, optgtg As String Select Case True Case optbasket optbasket = True Case optbaseball optbaseball = True Case optfootball optfootball = True End Select If optwog Then optwog = True Else optgtg = True End If btnok = MsgBox("you favorite sport is " & Frame1.Value & "you usually " & Frame2.Value & ",") End Sub Private Sub OptionButton1_Click() End Sub Private Sub btmcancel_Click() End Sub Private Sub btnok_Click() End Sub Private Sub Frame1_Click() End Sub Private Sub Frame2_Click() End Sub Private Sub optbaseball_Click() End Sub Private Sub optbasketball_Click() End Sub Private Sub optfootball_Click() End Sub Thank you very much!!!

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  • Is it possible to refer to metadata of the target from within the target implementation in MSBuild?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. My msbuild targets file contains the following section: <ItemGroup> <Targets Include="T1"> <Project>A\B.sln"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T1 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> <Targets Include="T2"> <Project>C\D.csproj"</Project> <DependsOnTargets>The targets T2 depends on</DependsOnTargets> </Targets> ... </ItemGroup> <Target Name="T1" DependsOnTargets="The targets T1 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="A\B.sln" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> <Target Name="T2" DependsOnTargets="The targets T2 depends on"> <MSBuild Projects="C\D.csproj" Properties="Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> </Target> As you can see, A\B.sln appears twice: As Project metadata of T1 in the ItemGroup section. In the Target statement itself passed to the MSBuild task. I am wondering whether I can remove the second instance and replace it with the reference to the Project metadata of the target, which name is given to the Target task? Exactly the same question is asked for the (Targets.DependsOnTargets) metadata. It is mentioned twice much like the %(Targets.Project) metadata. Thanks. EDIT: I should probably describe the constraints, which must be satisfied by the solution: I want to be able to build individual projects with ease. Today I can simply execute msbuild file.proj /t:T1 to build the T1 target and I wish to keep this ability. I wish to emphasize, that some projects depend on others, so the DependsOnTargets attribute is really necessary for them.

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  • Recommendations for Continuous integration for Mercurial/Kiln + MSBuild + MSTest

    - by TDD
    We have our source code stored in Kiln/Mercurial repositories; we use MSBuild to build our product and we have Unit Tests that utilize MSTest (Visual Studio Unit Tests). What solutions exist to implement a continuous integration machine (i.e. Build machine). The requirements for this are: A build should be kicked of when necessary (i.e. code has changed in the Repositories we care about) Before the actual build, the latest version of the source code must be acquired from the repository we are building from The build must build the entire product The build must build all Unit Tests The build must execute all unit tests A summary of success/failure must be sent out after the build has finished; this must include information about the build itself but also about which Unit Tests failed and which ones succeeded. The summary must contain which changesets were in this build that were not yet in the previous successful (!) build The system must be configurable so that it can build from multiple branches(/Repositories). Ideally, this system would run on a single box (our product isn't that big) without any server components. What solutions are currently available? What are their pros/cons? From the list above, what can be done and what cannot be done? Thanks

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  • Flash compiler error 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run... but run exists!

    - by Zane Geiger
    So I've been working on making a game in Processing but I think Flash would be a better way to get more people playing it, so I've decided to learn Flash. The problem is that I keep getting really stupid errors on incredibly simple things. For instance, I want to make a 'Block' object to use in a platform game. So I make a new .as file, name it Block.as, and define the Block class within it like so: package { public class Block { public function Block() { // constructor code } public function run() { } } } I don't want to add the code yet, I just want to ensure that this works. So in my main timeline code, I try to create an instance of the Block object and execute its run method: var block1:Block = new Block(); block1.run(); Every time it gives me this inane error: Scene 1, Layer 'Layer 1', Frame 1, Line 2 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run through a reference with static type Block. What undefined method!? It's defined RIGHT THERE in Block.as. The class file is even in the same folder and everything. I'm getting REALLY annoyed at how poorly Flash handles such a ridiculously simple project. Does anyone know why Flash hates me?

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  • How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

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  • jQuery validation with submit handler

    - by James
    I setup the form validation using jQuery validation plug-in's validate method and I have a submit handler that modifies the input element's value (I use YUI editor and it needs saveHTML() call to copy the iframe's content to the textarea element.). When submitting the form, I want the validator to validate the form after executing my submit handler. But it doesn't execute my submit handler if it is registered after the validate call. For example, <form id="form1" action="/test"> <input type="text" name="txt1" id="txt1" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); }); The form is validated after my submit handler so submit is canceled. $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); }); However if I change the order the form is validated before my submit handler.

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  • Accept All Cookies via HttpClient

    - by Vinay
    So this is currently how my app is set up: 1.) Login Activity. 2.) Once logged in, other activities may be fired up that use PHP scripts that require the cookies sent from logging in. I am using one HttpClient across my app to ensure that the same cookies are used, but my problem is that I am getting 2 of the 3 cookies rejected. I do not care about the validity of the cookies, but I do need them to be accepted. I tried setting the CookiePolicy, but that hasn't worked either. This is what logcat is saying: 11-26 10:33:57.613: WARN/ResponseProcessCookies(271): Cookie rejected: "[version: 0] [name: cookie_user_id][value: 1][domain: www.trackallthethings.com][path: trackallthethings][expiry: Sun Nov 25 11:33:00 CST 2012]". Illegal path attribute "trackallthethings". Path of origin: "/mobile-api/login.php" 11-26 10:33:57.593: WARN/ResponseProcessCookies(271): Cookie rejected: "[version: 0][name: cookie_session_id][value: 1985208971][domain: www.trackallthethings.com][path: trackallthethings][expiry: Sun Nov 25 11:33:00 CST 2012]". Illegal path attribute "trackallthethings". Path of origin: "/mobile-api/login.php" I am sure that my actual code is correct (my app still logs in correctly, just doesn't accept the aforementioned cookies), but here it is anyway: HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(//MY URL); HttpResponse response; response = Main.httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); InputStream in = entity.getContent(); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); From here I use the StringBuilder to simply get the String of the response. Nothing fancy. I understand that the reason my cookies are being rejected is because of an "Illegal path attribute" (I am running a script at /mobile-api/login.php whereas the cookie will return with a path of just "/" for trackallthethings), but I would like to accept the cookies anyhow. Is there a way to do this?

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  • Python Multiprocessing Question

    - by Avan
    My program has 2 parts divided into the core and downloader. The core handles all the app logic while the downloader just downloads urls. Right now, I am trying to use the python multiprocessing module to accomplish the task of the core as a process and the downloader as a process. The first problem I noticed was that if I spawn the downloader process from the core process so that the downloader is the child process and the core is the parent, the core process(parent) is blocked until the child is finished. I do not want this behaivor though. I would like to have a core process and a downloader process that are both able to execute their code and communicate between each other. example ... def main(): jobQueue = Queue() jobQueue.put("http://google.com) d = Downloader(jobQueue) p = Process(target=d.start()) p.start() if __name__ == '__main__': freeze_support() main() where Downloader's start() just takes the url out of the queue and downloads it. In order to have the 2 processes unblocked, would I need to create 2 processes from the parent process and then share something between them?

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  • Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

    - by MadhavanRP
    I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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  • Problem with UITextView

    - by user367039
    I have a strange problem with trying to pass a string from one viewcontroller to another view controller if the string originates from a UITextview instead of UITextfield. Both UITextview.text and UITextfield.text are of type NSString. The following code takes either Textfield.text or Textview.text depending on the fieldType and puts it into a string called aString. NSString *aString = [[NSString alloc] init]; if (fieldType == 3) { aString = textView.text; } else { aString = textField.text; } When I examine aString on either cases, I can see that it has successfully assigned the text into aString. I then pass the string to the other view controller using this code. [delegate updateSite:aString :editedFieldKey :fieldType]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; This works fine if aString originated from textfield.text but nothing happens except the view controller is popped if aString was from textview.text This is the code that takes aString and does stuff with it, however it doesn't even execute the first line of code "NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey);" if aString was from textview.text Any help will be appreciated. -(void)updateSite:(NSString *)aString :(NSString *)editedFieldKey :(int)fieldType { NSLog(@"Returned object: %@, field type:%@", aString,editedFieldKey); switch (fieldType) { case 0: //string [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey] ; NSLog(@"String set %@",[aDiveSite valueForKey:editedFieldKey] ); break; case 1: //int [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aString.intValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Integer set"); break; case 2: //float NSLog(@"Saving floating value"); [aDiveSite setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:aString.floatValue] forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Float set"); break; case 3: //Text view [aDiveSite setValue:aString forKey:editedFieldKey]; NSLog(@"Textview text saved"); default: break; } [self.tableView reloadData]; }

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  • Memory leaks while using array of double

    - by Gacek
    I have a part of code that operates on large arrays of double (containing about 6000 elements at least) and executes several hundred times (usually 800) . When I use standard loop, like that: double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... } The memory usage rises for about 40MB (from 40MB at the beggining of the loop, to the 80MB at the end). When I force to use the garbage collector to execute at every iteration, the memory usage stays at the level of 40MB (the rise is unsignificant). double[] singleRow = new double[6000]; int maxI = 800; for(int i=0; i<maxI; i++) { singleRow = someObject.producesOutput(); //... // do something with singleRow // ... GC.Collect() } But the execution time is 3 times longer! (it is crucial) How can I force the C# to use the same area of memory instead of allocating new ones? Note: I have the access to the code of someObject class, so if it would be needed, I can change it.

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  • How to compare a string with an option value

    - by user225269
    I have this html form which has options: <tr> <td width="30" height="35"><font size="3">*List:</td> <td width="30"><input name="specific" type="text" id="specific" maxlength="25" value=""> </td> <td><font size="3">*By:</td> <td> <select name="general" id="general"> <font size="3"> <option value="YEAR">Year</option> <option value="ADDRESS">Address</option> </select></td></td> </tr> And I'm trying to have this as the form action: if ('{$_POST["ADDRESS"]}'="ADDRESS") Which will compare if the value in the option in the html form matches the word "Address". If it matches then it will execute this query: $saddress= mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['specific']);<--this is the input form where the user will put the specific address to search. mysql_query("SELECT * FROM student WHERE ADDRESS='$saddress'"); Please I need help in here, I thinks its wrong: if ('{$_POST["ADDRESS"]}'="ADDRESS")

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  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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