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• Is there a generic way of dealing with varying connection strings in C#?

  - by James Wiseman

  I have an application that needs to connect to a SQL database, and execute a SQL Agent Job. The connection string I am trying to access is stored in the registry, which is easily enough pulled out. This appliction is to be run on multiple computers, and I cannot guarantee the format of this connection string being consistent across these computers. Two that I have pulled out for example are: Data Source=Server1;Initial Catalog=DB1;Integrated Security=SSPI; Data Source=Server2;Initial Catalog=DB1;Provider=SQLNCLI.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Auto Translate=False; I can use an object of type System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection to connect to the database with the first connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the second to it: keyword not supported: 'provider' Similarly, I can use the an object of type System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection to connect to the database with the second connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the first to it: An OLEDB Provider was not specified in the ConnectionString' I can solve this by scanning the string for 'Provider' and doing the connect conditionally, however I can't help but feel that there is a better way of doing this, and handle the connection strings in a more generic fashion. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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• jQuery validation with submit handler

  - by James

  I setup the form validation using jQuery validation plug-in's validate method and I have a submit handler that modifies the input element's value (I use YUI editor and it needs saveHTML() call to copy the iframe's content to the textarea element.). When submitting the form, I want the validator to validate the form after executing my submit handler. But it doesn't execute my submit handler if it is registered after the validate call. For example, <form id="form1" action="/test"> <input type="text" name="txt1" id="txt1" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); }); The form is validated after my submit handler so submit is canceled. $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); }); However if I change the order the form is validated before my submit handler.

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• iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

  - by arielcamus

  Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

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• Python 3, urllib ... Reset Connection Possible?

  - by Rhys

  In the larger scale of my program the goal of the below code is to filter out all dynamic html in a web-page source code code snippet: try: deepreq3 = urllib.request.Request(deepurl3) deepreq3.add_header("User-Agent","etc......") deepdata3 = urllib.request.urlopen(deepurl3).read().decode("utf8", 'ignore') The following code is looped 3 times in order to identify whether the target web-page is Dynamic (source code is changed at intervals) or not. If the page IS dynamic, the above code loops another 15 times and attempts to filter out the dynamic content. QUESTION: While this filtering method works 80% of the time, some pages will reload ALL 15 times and STILL contain dynamic code. HOWEVER. If I manually close down the Python Shell and re-execute my program, the dynamic html that my 'refresh-page method' could not shake off is no longer there ... it's been replaced with new dynamic html that my 'refresh-page method' cannot shake off. So I need to know, what is going on here? How is re-running my program causing the dynamic content of a page to change. AND, is there any way, any 'reset connection' command I can use to recreate this ... without manually restarting my app. Thanks for your response.

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• Accept All Cookies via HttpClient

  - by Vinay

  So this is currently how my app is set up: 1.) Login Activity. 2.) Once logged in, other activities may be fired up that use PHP scripts that require the cookies sent from logging in. I am using one HttpClient across my app to ensure that the same cookies are used, but my problem is that I am getting 2 of the 3 cookies rejected. I do not care about the validity of the cookies, but I do need them to be accepted. I tried setting the CookiePolicy, but that hasn't worked either. This is what logcat is saying: 11-26 10:33:57.613: WARN/ResponseProcessCookies(271): Cookie rejected: "[version: 0] [name: cookie_user_id][value: 1][domain: www.trackallthethings.com][path: trackallthethings][expiry: Sun Nov 25 11:33:00 CST 2012]". Illegal path attribute "trackallthethings". Path of origin: "/mobile-api/login.php" 11-26 10:33:57.593: WARN/ResponseProcessCookies(271): Cookie rejected: "[version: 0][name: cookie_session_id][value: 1985208971][domain: www.trackallthethings.com][path: trackallthethings][expiry: Sun Nov 25 11:33:00 CST 2012]". Illegal path attribute "trackallthethings". Path of origin: "/mobile-api/login.php" I am sure that my actual code is correct (my app still logs in correctly, just doesn't accept the aforementioned cookies), but here it is anyway: HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(//MY URL); HttpResponse response; response = Main.httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); InputStream in = entity.getContent(); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); From here I use the StringBuilder to simply get the String of the response. Nothing fancy. I understand that the reason my cookies are being rejected is because of an "Illegal path attribute" (I am running a script at /mobile-api/login.php whereas the cookie will return with a path of just "/" for trackallthethings), but I would like to accept the cookies anyhow. Is there a way to do this?

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• SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

  - by Arj

  Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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• Address family not supported by protocol exception

  - by srg

  I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

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• Binding not working correctly in silverlight

  - by Harsh Maurya

  I am using a DataGrid in my silverlight project which contains a custom checkbox column. I have binded its command property with a property of my ViewModel class. Now, the problem is that I want to send the "selected item" of DataGrid through the command paramter for which I have written the following code : <sdk:DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Margin="10,0,10,0" Name="dataGridOrders" ItemsSource="{Binding OrderList}" Height="190"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Select"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <CheckBox> <is:Interaction.Triggers> <is:EventTrigger EventName="Checked"> <is:InvokeCommandAction Command="{Binding Source={StaticResource ExecutionTraderHomePageVM},Path=OrderSelectedCommand,Mode=TwoWay}" CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=dataGridOrders,Path=SelectedItem}" /> </is:EventTrigger> <is:EventTrigger EventName="Unchecked"> <is:InvokeCommandAction Command="{Binding Source={StaticResource ExecutionTraderHomePageVM},Path=OrderSelectedCommand,Mode=TwoWay}" CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=dataGridOrders,Path=SelectedItem}" /> </is:EventTrigger> </is:Interaction.Triggers> </CheckBox> But I am always getting null in the parameter of my command's execute method. I have tried with other properties of DataGrid such as Width, ActualHeight e.t.c. but of no use. What am I missing here ?

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• Handling user interface in a multi-threaded application (or being forced to have a UI-only main thre

  - by Patrick

  In my application, I have a 'logging' window, which shows all the logging, warnings, errors of the application. Last year my application was still single-threaded so this worked [quite] good. Now I am introducing multithreading. I quickly noticed that it's not a good idea to update the logging window from different threads. Reading some articles on keeping the UI in the main thread, I made a communication buffer, in which the other threads are adding their logging messages, and from which the main thread takes the messages and shows them in the logging window (this is done in the message loop). Now, in a part of my application, the memory usage increases dramatically, because the separate threads are generating lots of logging messages, and the main thread cannot empty the communication buffer quickly enough. After the while the memory decreases again (if the other threads have finished their work and the main thread gradually empties the communication buffer). I solved this problem by having a maximum size on the communication buffer, but then I run into a problem in the following situation: the main thread has to perform a complex action the main thread takes some parts of the action and let's separate threads execute this while the seperate threads are executing their logic, the main thread processes the results from the other threads and continues with its work if the other threads are finished Problem is that in this situation, if the other threads perform logging, there is no UI-message loop, and so the communication buffer is filled, but not emptied. I see two solutions in solving this problem: require the main thread to do regular polling of the communication buffer only performing user interface logic in the main thread (no other logic) I think the second solution seems the best, but this may not that easy to introduce in a big application (in my case it performs mathematical simulations). Are there any other solutions or tips? Or is one of the two proposed the best, easiest, most-pragmatic solution? Thanks, Patrick

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• [Cocoa] Placing an NSTimer in a separate thread

  - by ndg

  I'm trying to setup an NSTimer in a separate thread so that it continues to fire when users interact with the UI of my application. This seems to work, but Leaks reports a number of issues - and I believe I've narrowed it down to my timer code. Currently what's happening is that updateTimer tries to access an NSArrayController (timersController) which is bound to an NSTableView in my applications interface. From there, I grab the first selected row and alter its timeSpent column. From reading around, I believe what I should be trying to do is execute the updateTimer function on the main thread, rather than in my timers secondary thread. I'm posting here in the hopes that someone with more experience can tell me if that's the only thing I'm doing wrong. Having read Apple's documentation on Threading, I've found it an overwhelmingly large subject area. NSThread *timerThread = [[[NSThread alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(startTimerThread) object:nil] autorelease]; [timerThread start]; -(void)startTimerThread { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; activeTimer = [[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES] retain]; [runLoop run]; [pool release]; } -(void)updateTimer:(NSTimer *)timer { NSArray *selectedTimers = [timersController selectedObjects]; id selectedTimer = [selectedTimers objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *currentTimeSpent = [selectedTimer timeSpent]; [selectedTimer setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:[currentTimeSpent intValue]+1] forKey:@"timeSpent"]; } -(void)stopTimer { [activeTimer invalidate]; [activeTimer release]; }

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• Using SMO to call Database.ExecuteNonQuery() concurrently?

  - by JimDaniel

  I have been banging my head against the wall trying to figure out how I can run update scripts concurrently against multiple databases in a single SQL Server instance using SMO. Our environments have an ever-increasing number of databases which need updating, and iterating through one at a time is becoming a problem (too slow). From what I understand SMO does not support concurrent operations, and my tests have bore that out. There seems to be shared memory at the Server object level, for things like DataReader context, keeps throwing exceptions such as "reader is already open." I apologize for not having the exact exceptions I am getting. I will try to get them and update this post. I am no expert on SMO and just feeling my way through to be honest. Not really sure I am approaching it the right way, but it's something that has to be done, or our productivity will slow to a crawl. So how would you guys do something like this? Am I using the wrong technology with SMO? All I am wanting to do is execute sql scripts against databases in a single sql server instance in parallel. Thanks for any help you can give, Daniel

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• PostgreSQL: return select count(*) from old_ids;

  - by Alexander Farber

  Hello, please help me with 1 more PL/pgSQL question. I have a PHP-script run as daily cronjob and deleting old records from 1 main table and few further tables referencing its "id" column: create or replace function quincytrack_clean() returns integer as $BODY$ begin create temp table old_ids (id varchar(20)) on commit drop; insert into old_ids select id from quincytrack where age(QDATETIME) > interval '30 days'; delete from hide_id where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_mks where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_cl where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_comment where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from quincytrack where id in (select id from old_ids); return select count(*) from old_ids; end; $BODY$ language plpgsql; And here is how I call it from the PHP script: $sth = $pg->prepare('select quincytrack_clean()'); $sth->execute(); if ($row = $sth->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) printf("removed %u old rows\n", $row['count']); Why do I get the following error? SQLSTATE[42601]: Syntax error: 7 ERROR: syntax error at or near "select" at character 9 QUERY: SELECT select count(*) from old_ids CONTEXT: SQL statement in PL/PgSQL function "quincytrack_clean" near line 23 Thank you! Alex

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• Is there some formal way to update the browser detection files for ASP.Net?

  - by Deane

  I have an ASP.Net site on which we're using control adapters. We have the adapters mapped to a "refID" of "Default." These adapters are working fine on all browsers except Chrome and Safari. For those browsers, they do not execute. I've given up trying to figure out why -- I have a question here on SO that no one has been able to answer, and I've been researching it for days now. It's just inexplicable. I have tested the same code in my local environment, and it works just fine. Additionally, no one else can replicate my problem on other servers. It seems to be somehow confined to the machines at my client's site. Could they be somehow out-of-date? If this is the case, is there some way to "update" the .browser files? I'm half-tempted to just copy the .browser files out of the Framework directory from my machine over to theirs, but I'm curious is there's something more formal than this? Is there some other source of data that ASP.Net uses for browser detection other than these files?

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• PHP curl timing mismatch

  - by JonoB

  I am running a php script that: queries a local database to retrieve an amount executes a curl statement to update an external database with the above amount + x queries the local database again to insert a new row reflecting that the curl statement has been executed. One of the problems that I am having is that the curl statement takes 2-4 seconds to execute, so I have two different users from the same company running the same script at the same time, the execution time of the curl command can cause a mismatch in what should be updated in the external database. This is the because the curl statement has not yet returned from the first user...so the second user is working off incorrect figures. I am not sure of the best options here, but basically I need to prevent two or more curl statements being run at the same time. I thought of storing a value in the database that indicates that the curl statement is being executed at that time, and prevent any other curl statements being run until its completed. Once the first curl statement has been executed, then the database flag is updated and the next one can run. If this field is 'locked', then I could loop through the code and sleep for (5) seconds, and then check again if the flag has been reset. If after (3) loops, then reset the flag automatically (i've never seen the curl take longer than 5 seconds) and continue processing. Are there any other (more elegant) ways of approaching this?

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• Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

  - by JPM

  Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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• android: consume key press, bypassing framework processing

  - by user360024

  What I want android to do: when user presses a single key, have the view respond, but do so without opening a text area and displaying the character associated with the key that was pressed, and without requiring that the Enter key be pressed, and without requiring that the user press Esc to make the text area go away. For example, when user presses "u" (and doesn't press Enter), that means "undo the last action", so the controller and model immediately undo the last action, then the view does an invalidate() and user sees that their last action has been undone. In other words the "u" key press should be silently processed, such that the only visual result is that user's last action has been undone. I've implemented OnKeyListener and provided an onKey() method: the class: public class MyGameView extends View implements OnKeyListener{ in the constructor: //2010jun06, phj: With onKey(), helps let this View consume key presses // before the framework gets a chance to consume the key press. setOnKeyListener((View.OnKeyListener)this); the onKey() method: public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_R) { Log.d("BWA", "In onKey received keycode associated with R."); } return true; // meaning the event (key press) has been consumed, so // the framework should not handle this event. } but when user presses "u" key on the emulator keypad, a textarea is opened at the bottom of the screen, the "u" charater is displayed there, and the onKey() method doesn't execute until user presses the Enter key. Is there a way to make android do what I want? Thanks,

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• temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

  - by lau

  Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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• routing mvc on the web

  - by generic_noob

  Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

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• Is there a FAST way to export and install an app on my phone, while signing it with my own keystore?

  - by Alexei Andreev

  So, I've downloaded my own application from the market and installed it on my phone. Now, I am trying to install a temporary new version from Eclipse, but here is the message I get: Re-installation failed due to different application signatures. You must perform a full uninstall of the application. WARNING: This will remove the application data! Please execute 'adb uninstall com.applicationName' in a shell. Launch canceled! Now, I really really don't want to uninstall the application, because I will lose all my data. One solution I found is to Export my application, creating new .apk, and then install it via HTC Sync (probably a different program based on what phone you have). The problem is this takes a long time to do, since I need to enter the password for the keystore each time and then wait for HTC Sync. It's a pain in the ass! So the question is: Is there a way to make Eclipse automatically use my keystore to sign the application (quickly and automatically)? Or perhaps to replace debug keystore with my own? Or perhaps just tell it to remember the password, so I don't have to enter it every time...? Or some other way to solve this problem?

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• Centralized Exception handling for Eclipse plug-in

  - by Svilen

  Hello, At first I thought this would be question often asked, however trying (and failing) to look up info on this proved me wrong. Is there a mechanism in Eclipse platform for centralized exception handling of exceptions? For example... You have plug-in project which connects to a DB and issues queries, results of which are used to populate some e.g. views. This is like the most common example ever. :) Queries are executed almost for any user action, from every UI control the plug-in provides. Most likely the DB Query API will have some specific to the DB SomeDBGeneralException declared as being thrown by it. That's OK, you can handle those according to whatever your software design is. But how about unchecked exceptions which are likely to occur, e.g. , when communication with DB suddenly breaks for some network related reason? What if in such case one would like to catch those exceptions in a central place and for example provide user friendly message to the user (rather than the low level communication protocol api messages) and even some possible actions the user could execute in order to deal with the specific problem? Thinking in Eclipse platform context, the question may be rephrased as "Is there an extension point like "org.eclipse.ExceptionHandler" which allows to declare exception handlers for specific (some kind of filtering support) exceptions giving a lot of flexibility with the actual handling?"

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• ODP.NET Procedure Compilation

  - by Bobcat1506

  When I try to execute a create procedure using ODP.NET I get back ORA-24344: success with compilation error. However, when I run the same statement in SQL Developer it compiles successfully. Does anyone know what I need to change to get my procedure to compile? Is it a character set issue? I am using Oracle 10g Express, .NET 3.5 SP 1, and ODP.NET 2.111.7.20 (version from Oracle.DataAccess.dll) [TestMethod] public void OdpNet_CreateProcedure() { ConnectionStringSettings settings = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ODP.NET"]; using (var con = new OracleConnection(settings.ConnectionString)) { con.InfoMessage += new OracleInfoMessageEventHandler(con_InfoMessage); con.Open(); var cmd = new OracleCommand(); cmd.Connection = con; cmd.CommandText = @" CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET ( P_CURSOR OUT SYS_REFCURSOR ) IS BEGIN OPEN P_CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM TABLE1; END;"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error cmd.CommandText = @"ALTER PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET COMPILE"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error } } void con_InfoMessage(object sender, OracleInfoMessageEventArgs eventArgs) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(eventArgs.Message); }

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• Flash compiler error 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run... but run exists!

  - by Zane Geiger

  So I've been working on making a game in Processing but I think Flash would be a better way to get more people playing it, so I've decided to learn Flash. The problem is that I keep getting really stupid errors on incredibly simple things. For instance, I want to make a 'Block' object to use in a platform game. So I make a new .as file, name it Block.as, and define the Block class within it like so: package { public class Block { public function Block() { // constructor code } public function run() { } } } I don't want to add the code yet, I just want to ensure that this works. So in my main timeline code, I try to create an instance of the Block object and execute its run method: var block1:Block = new Block(); block1.run(); Every time it gives me this inane error: Scene 1, Layer 'Layer 1', Frame 1, Line 2 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run through a reference with static type Block. What undefined method!? It's defined RIGHT THERE in Block.as. The class file is even in the same folder and everything. I'm getting REALLY annoyed at how poorly Flash handles such a ridiculously simple project. Does anyone know why Flash hates me?

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• Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

  - by MadhavanRP

  I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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• jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

  - by Ben

  Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

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• How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

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