Search Results

Search found 9128 results on 366 pages for 'execute immediate'.

Page 307/366 | < Previous Page | 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314  | Next Page >

  • iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

    - by arielcamus
    Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

    Read the article

  • Android app crashes on Async Task

    - by Telmo Vaz
    why is my APP crashing when I invoke the AsyncTask? public class Login extends Activity { String mail; EditText mailIn; Button btSubmit; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle tokenArg) { super.onCreate(tokenArg); setContentView(R.layout.login); mailIn = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.usermail); btSubmit = (Button)findViewById(R.id.submit); btSubmit.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View thisView) { new LoginProc().execute(); } }); } public class LoginProc extends AsyncTask<String, Void, Void> { @Override protected void onPreExecute() { mailIn = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.usermail); mail = mailIn.getText().toString(); super.onPreExecute(); } @Override protected Void doInBackground(String... params) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), mail, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); return null; } } } I'm trying to make the String name get it's value on the preExecute method, but it happens that the app crashes on that point. Even if I take the preExecute and do that on the doInBrackground, it still crashes. What's wrong?

    Read the article

  • Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

    - by Ryan Ternier
    Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

    Read the article

  • Javamail doesn't send a mail

    - by Jose Hdez
    I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • maven repository issue

    - by Pratap Murukutla
    i have created a maven web project using the below site. http://www.mkyong.com/maven/how-to-create-a-web-application-project-with-maven/ i have done all of the steps given there and executed the simple hello world program Now i have to include spring dependencies into my eclipse web project. So <dependency> <groupId>org.springframework</groupId> <artifactId>spring</artifactId> <version>3.1.2</version> </dependency> in the dependencies tag i added the above code. It is saying as below unable to find jars from the repositories (local and as well as remote) it gave suggestion to execute the command mvn install -artifactid=springframework (something like this) but when i mentioned version as 2.5.6 it correctly take. is it the problem with the version 3.1.2 is unavailable at maven repository. how to get the latest versions if maven is not working properly for latest versions. It also gave me the suggestion to go for manually download and put in local repository

    Read the article

  • SQL trigger to delete rows from database

    - by wpearse
    I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

    Read the article

  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

    Read the article

  • Memory efficient collection class

    - by Joe
    I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

    Read the article

  • How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

    Read the article

  • Manipulating a NSTextField via AppleScript

    - by Garry
    A little side project I'm working on is a digital life assistant, much like project JARVIS. What I'm trying to do is speak to my mac, have my words translated to text and then have the text interpreted by my program. Currently, my app is very simple, consisting of a single window containing a single wrapped NSTextView. Using MacSpeech Dictate, When I say the custom command "Jeeves", MacSpeech ensures that my app is frontmost, highlights any text in the TextField and clears it, then presses the Return key to trigger the textDidEndEditing method of NSTextField. This is done via Applescript. MacSpeech then switches to dictation mode and the next sentence I say will appear in the NSTextField. What I can't figure out is how to signify that I have finished saying a command to my program. I could simply say another keyword like "execute" or something similar that would send an AppleScript return keystroke to my app (thereby triggering the textDidEndEditing event) but this is cumbersome. Is there a notification that happens when text is pasted into a NSTextField? Would a timer work that would fire after maybe three seconds once my program becomes frontmost (three seconds should be sufficient for me to say a command)? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Objective C map view delegate viewForAnnotation for MKAnnotation gets just called after click

    - by user1185486
    I have a simple Map view. It has a method -(void)loadAndDisplayPois{ NSLog(@"loadAndDisplayPois"); if(mapView.annotations.count > 0) [mapView removeAnnotations:mapView.annotations]; self.pois = [self loadPoisFromDatabase]; NSLog(@"self.pois.count: %i", self.pois.count); [mapView addAnnotations:self.pois]; NSLog(@"mapView.annotations.count: %i",mapView.annotations.count);} This method gets called, and I am sure that the method gets called because of the Log, after I downloaded data and saved it into the database. The class which handles the download executes after saving the data to the database [self.senderObj performSelector:@selector(loadAndDisplayPois)]; Where senderObj is the MapViewControlller. The count Log from the pois array shows 4 after the first time I clicked. But no Annotations on the view, because viewForAnnotation is not called (one Annotation in the array ( my current position)). After I execute the method again by clicking a TEST button shows everything on the map. The viewForAnnotation method gets called after viewWillAppear and after I clicked the TEST button. It is driving me nuts since 2 days. I cant anymore ...

    Read the article

  • Doctrine 2 entity cannot be saved with its many-to-many related entities

    - by user1333185
    I'm writing a project in ZF and have many-to-many related accounts and videos entities and I provide the account with the videos collection. When I try to save the account I receive the following error: A new entity was found through the relationship 'Entities\Account#playlistVideos' that was not configured to cascade persist operations for entity: Entities\Video@000000004d5f02ef00000000196757dc. Explicitly persist the new entity or configure cascading persist operations on the relationship. If you cannot find out which entity causes the problem implement 'Entities\Video#__toString()' to get a clue. I found a suggested solution with cascade={"persist"} which should allow videos to be saved together with the account by only specifying $this-em-persist($account) but then I get the error: Fatal error: method_exists(): The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Proxies\EntitiesAccountProxy" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in... The same happens when I try to manually persist videos and account. Thank you for the help in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to insert array into mysql using PDO and bindParam?

    - by moomoochoo
    I'm using the following code. The code works, but I want to change it so that it uses bindparam try { $dbh = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); $stqid=array(); for ($i=0; $i<$array_count; $i++){ $stqid[$i][0]=$lastInsertValue; $stqid[$i][1]=$qid[$i][0]; $stqid[$i][2]=$qid[$i][1]; } $values = array(); foreach ($stqid as $rowValues) { foreach ($rowValues as $key => $rowValue) { $rowValues[$key] = $rowValues[$key]; } $values[] = "(" . implode(', ', $rowValues) . ")"; } $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); $dbh = null; } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } I replaced the following $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); with $sql = "INSERT INTO qresults (instance, qid, result) VALUES (:an_array)"; $stmt = $dbh->prepare($sql); $stmt->bindParam(':an_array', implode(',', $values),PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); but the insert doesn't work anymore (I didn't get any error messages though). QUESTION: What am I doing wrong? How can I rewrite the code to use bindParam?

    Read the article

  • How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

    - by Kyle
    I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

    Read the article

  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • [Cocoa] Placing an NSTimer in a separate thread

    - by ndg
    I'm trying to setup an NSTimer in a separate thread so that it continues to fire when users interact with the UI of my application. This seems to work, but Leaks reports a number of issues - and I believe I've narrowed it down to my timer code. Currently what's happening is that updateTimer tries to access an NSArrayController (timersController) which is bound to an NSTableView in my applications interface. From there, I grab the first selected row and alter its timeSpent column. From reading around, I believe what I should be trying to do is execute the updateTimer function on the main thread, rather than in my timers secondary thread. I'm posting here in the hopes that someone with more experience can tell me if that's the only thing I'm doing wrong. Having read Apple's documentation on Threading, I've found it an overwhelmingly large subject area. NSThread *timerThread = [[[NSThread alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(startTimerThread) object:nil] autorelease]; [timerThread start]; -(void)startTimerThread { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; activeTimer = [[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES] retain]; [runLoop run]; [pool release]; } -(void)updateTimer:(NSTimer *)timer { NSArray *selectedTimers = [timersController selectedObjects]; id selectedTimer = [selectedTimers objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *currentTimeSpent = [selectedTimer timeSpent]; [selectedTimer setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:[currentTimeSpent intValue]+1] forKey:@"timeSpent"]; } -(void)stopTimer { [activeTimer invalidate]; [activeTimer release]; }

    Read the article

  • android custom dialog imageButton onclicklistener

    - by Asaf Nevo
    this is my custom dialog class: package com.WhosAround.Dialogs; import com.WhosAround.AppVariables; import com.WhosAround.R; import com.WhosAround.AsyncTasks.LoadUserStatus; import com.WhosAround.Facebook.FacebookUser; import android.app.Dialog; import android.content.Context; import android.graphics.drawable.Drawable; import android.view.MotionEvent; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ImageButton; import android.widget.ImageView; import android.widget.TextView; public class MenuFriend extends Dialog{ private FacebookUser friend; private AppVariables app; public MenuFriend(Context context, FacebookUser friend) { super(context, android.R.style.Theme_Translucent_NoTitleBar); this.app = (AppVariables) context.getApplicationContext(); this.friend = friend; } public void setDialog(String userName, Drawable userProfilePicture) { setContentView(R.layout.menu_friend); setCancelable(true); setCanceledOnTouchOutside(true); TextView name = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.menu_user_name); TextView status = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.menu_user_status); ImageView profilePicture = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.menu_profile_picture); ImageButton closeButton = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.menu_close); name.setText(userName); profilePicture.setImageDrawable(userProfilePicture); if (friend.getStatus() != null) status.setText(friend.getStatus()); else new LoadUserStatus(app, friend, status).execute(0); closeButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { dismiss(); } }) } } for some reason eclipse tells me the following errors on closeButton imageButton: The method setOnClickListener(View.OnClickListener) in the type View is not applicable for the arguments (new DialogInterface.OnClickListener(){}) The type new DialogInterface.OnClickListener(){} must implement the inherited abstract method DialogInterface.OnClickListener.onClick(DialogInterface, int) The method onClick(View) of type new DialogInterface.OnClickListener(){} must override or implement a supertype method why is that ?

    Read the article

  • Returning data from SQL Server reporting web service call

    - by user79339
    Hi, I am generating a report that contains the version number. The version number is stored in the DB and retrieved/incremented as part of the report generation. The only problem is, I am calling SSRS via a web service call, which returns the generated report as a byte array. Is there any way to get the version number out of this generated report? For example to display a dialog that says "You generated Status Report, Version number 3". I tried passing in an output parameter and setting it inside the storedproc. Its modified when i execute it in sql management studio, but not in the reporting studio. Or atleast i can't seem to bind to the modified, post execution value (using expression "=Parameters!ReportVersion.Value"). Of course, I could get/increment the version number from database myself before calling the SSRS webservice and pass it along as a parameter to the Report, but that might cause concurrancy problems. On the whole, it just seems neater for the storedproc to access/generate a version number and return it to the ReportingEngine, which will generate the report with the version number and return the updated version number to the WebService client. Any thoughts/Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Gathering entropy in web apps to create (more) secure random numbers

    - by H M
    after several days of research and discussion i came up with this method to gather entropy from visitors (u can see the history of my research here) when a user visits i run this code: $entropy=sha1(microtime().$pepper.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].$_SERVER['REMOTE_PORT']. $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].serialize($_POST).serialize($_GET).serialize($_COOKIE)); note: pepper is a per site/setup random string set by hand. then i execute the following (My)SQL query: $query="update `crypto` set `value`=sha1(concat(`value`, '$entropy')) where name='entropy'"; that means we combine the entropy of the visitor's request with the others' gathered already. that's all. then when we want to generate random numbers we combine the gathered entropy with the output: $query="select `value` from `crypto` where `name`='entropy'"; //... extract(unpack('Nrandom', pack('H*', sha1(mt_rand(0, 0x7FFFFFFF).$entropy.microtime())))); note: the last line is a part of a modified version of the crypt_rand function of the phpseclib. please tell me your opinion about the scheme and other ideas/info regarding entropy gathering/random number generation. ps: i know about randomness sources like /dev/urandom. this system is just an auxiliary system or (when we don't have (access to) these sources) a fallback scheme.

    Read the article

  • Python Multiprocessing Question

    - by Avan
    My program has 2 parts divided into the core and downloader. The core handles all the app logic while the downloader just downloads urls. Right now, I am trying to use the python multiprocessing module to accomplish the task of the core as a process and the downloader as a process. The first problem I noticed was that if I spawn the downloader process from the core process so that the downloader is the child process and the core is the parent, the core process(parent) is blocked until the child is finished. I do not want this behaivor though. I would like to have a core process and a downloader process that are both able to execute their code and communicate between each other. example ... def main(): jobQueue = Queue() jobQueue.put("http://google.com) d = Downloader(jobQueue) p = Process(target=d.start()) p.start() if __name__ == '__main__': freeze_support() main() where Downloader's start() just takes the url out of the queue and downloads it. In order to have the 2 processes unblocked, would I need to create 2 processes from the parent process and then share something between them?

    Read the article

  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

    Read the article

  • jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

    - by Ben
    Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

    Read the article

  • ODP.NET Procedure Compilation

    - by Bobcat1506
    When I try to execute a create procedure using ODP.NET I get back ORA-24344: success with compilation error. However, when I run the same statement in SQL Developer it compiles successfully. Does anyone know what I need to change to get my procedure to compile? Is it a character set issue? I am using Oracle 10g Express, .NET 3.5 SP 1, and ODP.NET 2.111.7.20 (version from Oracle.DataAccess.dll) [TestMethod] public void OdpNet_CreateProcedure() { ConnectionStringSettings settings = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ODP.NET"]; using (var con = new OracleConnection(settings.ConnectionString)) { con.InfoMessage += new OracleInfoMessageEventHandler(con_InfoMessage); con.Open(); var cmd = new OracleCommand(); cmd.Connection = con; cmd.CommandText = @" CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET ( P_CURSOR OUT SYS_REFCURSOR ) IS BEGIN OPEN P_CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM TABLE1; END;"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error cmd.CommandText = @"ALTER PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET COMPILE"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error } } void con_InfoMessage(object sender, OracleInfoMessageEventArgs eventArgs) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(eventArgs.Message); }

    Read the article

  • Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

    - by Yishai
    I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

    Read the article

  • How to compare a string with an option value

    - by user225269
    I have this html form which has options: <tr> <td width="30" height="35"><font size="3">*List:</td> <td width="30"><input name="specific" type="text" id="specific" maxlength="25" value=""> </td> <td><font size="3">*By:</td> <td> <select name="general" id="general"> <font size="3"> <option value="YEAR">Year</option> <option value="ADDRESS">Address</option> </select></td></td> </tr> And I'm trying to have this as the form action: if ('{$_POST["ADDRESS"]}'="ADDRESS") Which will compare if the value in the option in the html form matches the word "Address". If it matches then it will execute this query: $saddress= mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['specific']);<--this is the input form where the user will put the specific address to search. mysql_query("SELECT * FROM student WHERE ADDRESS='$saddress'"); Please I need help in here, I thinks its wrong: if ('{$_POST["ADDRESS"]}'="ADDRESS")

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314  | Next Page >