Search Results

Search found 9128 results on 366 pages for 'execute immediate'.

Page 307/366 | < Previous Page | 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314  | Next Page >

  • NHibernate query against the key field of a dictionary (map)

    - by Carl Raymond
    I have an object model where a Calendar object has an IDictionary<MembershipUser, Perms> called UserPermissions, where MembershipUser is an object, and Perms is a simple enumeration. This is in the mapping file for Calendar as <map name="UserPermissions" table="CalendarUserPermissions" lazy="true" cascade="all"> <key column="CalendarID"/> <index-many-to-many class="MembershipUser" column="UserGUID" /> <element column="Permissions" type="CalendarPermission" not-null="true" /> </map> Now I want to execute a query to find all calendars for which a given user has some permission defined. The permission is irrelevant; I just want a list of the calendars where a given user is present as a key in the UserPermissions dictionary. I have the username property, not a MembershipUser object. How do I build that using QBC (or HQL)? Here's what I've tried: ISession session = SessionManager.CurrentSession; ICriteria calCrit = session.CreateCriteria<Calendar>(); ICriteria userCrit = calCrit.CreateCriteria("UserPermissions.indices"); userCrit.Add(Expression.Eq("Username", username)); return calCrit.List<Calendar>(); This constructed invalid SQL -- the WHERE clause contained WHERE membership1_.Username = @p0 as expected, but the FROM clause didn't include the MemberhipUsers table. Also, I really had to struggle to learn about the .indices notation. I found it by digging through the NHibernate source code, and saw that there's also .elements and some other dotted notations. Where's a reference to the allowed syntax of an association path? I feel like what's above is very close, and just missing something simple.

    Read the article

  • Add an event to HTML elements with a specific class.

    - by Juan C. Rois
    Hello everybody, I'm working on a modal window, and I want to make the function as reusable as possible. Said that, I want to set a few anchor tags with a class equals to "modal", and when a particular anchor tag is clicked, get its Id and pass it to a function that will execute another function based on the Id that was passed. This is what I have so far: // this gets an array with all the elements that have a class equals to "modal" var anchorTrigger = document.getElementsByClassName('modal'); Then I tried to set the addEventListener for each item in the array by doing this: var anchorTotal = anchorTrigger.length; for(var i = 0; i < anchorTotal ; i++){ anchorTrigger.addEventListener('click', fireModal, false); } and then run the last function "fireModal" that will open the modal, like so: function fireModal(){ //some more code here ... } My problem is that in the "for" loop, I get an error saying that anchorTrigger.addEvent ... is not a function. I can tell that the error might be related to the fact that I'm trying to set up the "addEventListener" to an array as oppose to individual elements, but I don't know what I'm supposed to do. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Android app crashes on Async Task

    - by Telmo Vaz
    why is my APP crashing when I invoke the AsyncTask? public class Login extends Activity { String mail; EditText mailIn; Button btSubmit; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle tokenArg) { super.onCreate(tokenArg); setContentView(R.layout.login); mailIn = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.usermail); btSubmit = (Button)findViewById(R.id.submit); btSubmit.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View thisView) { new LoginProc().execute(); } }); } public class LoginProc extends AsyncTask<String, Void, Void> { @Override protected void onPreExecute() { mailIn = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.usermail); mail = mailIn.getText().toString(); super.onPreExecute(); } @Override protected Void doInBackground(String... params) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), mail, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); return null; } } } I'm trying to make the String name get it's value on the preExecute method, but it happens that the app crashes on that point. Even if I take the preExecute and do that on the doInBrackground, it still crashes. What's wrong?

    Read the article

  • iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

    - by arielcamus
    Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

    Read the article

  • Memory efficient collection class

    - by Joe
    I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

    Read the article

  • Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

    - by JPM
    Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

    Read the article

  • SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

    - by Arj
    Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

    Read the article

  • Is there a FAST way to export and install an app on my phone, while signing it with my own keystore?

    - by Alexei Andreev
    So, I've downloaded my own application from the market and installed it on my phone. Now, I am trying to install a temporary new version from Eclipse, but here is the message I get: Re-installation failed due to different application signatures. You must perform a full uninstall of the application. WARNING: This will remove the application data! Please execute 'adb uninstall com.applicationName' in a shell. Launch canceled! Now, I really really don't want to uninstall the application, because I will lose all my data. One solution I found is to Export my application, creating new .apk, and then install it via HTC Sync (probably a different program based on what phone you have). The problem is this takes a long time to do, since I need to enter the password for the keystore each time and then wait for HTC Sync. It's a pain in the ass! So the question is: Is there a way to make Eclipse automatically use my keystore to sign the application (quickly and automatically)? Or perhaps to replace debug keystore with my own? Or perhaps just tell it to remember the password, so I don't have to enter it every time...? Or some other way to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • [Cocoa] Placing an NSTimer in a separate thread

    - by ndg
    I'm trying to setup an NSTimer in a separate thread so that it continues to fire when users interact with the UI of my application. This seems to work, but Leaks reports a number of issues - and I believe I've narrowed it down to my timer code. Currently what's happening is that updateTimer tries to access an NSArrayController (timersController) which is bound to an NSTableView in my applications interface. From there, I grab the first selected row and alter its timeSpent column. From reading around, I believe what I should be trying to do is execute the updateTimer function on the main thread, rather than in my timers secondary thread. I'm posting here in the hopes that someone with more experience can tell me if that's the only thing I'm doing wrong. Having read Apple's documentation on Threading, I've found it an overwhelmingly large subject area. NSThread *timerThread = [[[NSThread alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(startTimerThread) object:nil] autorelease]; [timerThread start]; -(void)startTimerThread { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; activeTimer = [[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES] retain]; [runLoop run]; [pool release]; } -(void)updateTimer:(NSTimer *)timer { NSArray *selectedTimers = [timersController selectedObjects]; id selectedTimer = [selectedTimers objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *currentTimeSpent = [selectedTimer timeSpent]; [selectedTimer setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:[currentTimeSpent intValue]+1] forKey:@"timeSpent"]; } -(void)stopTimer { [activeTimer invalidate]; [activeTimer release]; }

    Read the article

  • Manipulating a NSTextField via AppleScript

    - by Garry
    A little side project I'm working on is a digital life assistant, much like project JARVIS. What I'm trying to do is speak to my mac, have my words translated to text and then have the text interpreted by my program. Currently, my app is very simple, consisting of a single window containing a single wrapped NSTextView. Using MacSpeech Dictate, When I say the custom command "Jeeves", MacSpeech ensures that my app is frontmost, highlights any text in the TextField and clears it, then presses the Return key to trigger the textDidEndEditing method of NSTextField. This is done via Applescript. MacSpeech then switches to dictation mode and the next sentence I say will appear in the NSTextField. What I can't figure out is how to signify that I have finished saying a command to my program. I could simply say another keyword like "execute" or something similar that would send an AppleScript return keystroke to my app (thereby triggering the textDidEndEditing event) but this is cumbersome. Is there a notification that happens when text is pasted into a NSTextField? Would a timer work that would fire after maybe three seconds once my program becomes frontmost (three seconds should be sufficient for me to say a command)? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Gathering entropy in web apps to create (more) secure random numbers

    - by H M
    after several days of research and discussion i came up with this method to gather entropy from visitors (u can see the history of my research here) when a user visits i run this code: $entropy=sha1(microtime().$pepper.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].$_SERVER['REMOTE_PORT']. $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].serialize($_POST).serialize($_GET).serialize($_COOKIE)); note: pepper is a per site/setup random string set by hand. then i execute the following (My)SQL query: $query="update `crypto` set `value`=sha1(concat(`value`, '$entropy')) where name='entropy'"; that means we combine the entropy of the visitor's request with the others' gathered already. that's all. then when we want to generate random numbers we combine the gathered entropy with the output: $query="select `value` from `crypto` where `name`='entropy'"; //... extract(unpack('Nrandom', pack('H*', sha1(mt_rand(0, 0x7FFFFFFF).$entropy.microtime())))); note: the last line is a part of a modified version of the crypt_rand function of the phpseclib. please tell me your opinion about the scheme and other ideas/info regarding entropy gathering/random number generation. ps: i know about randomness sources like /dev/urandom. this system is just an auxiliary system or (when we don't have (access to) these sources) a fallback scheme.

    Read the article

  • Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

    - by Yishai
    I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I start the Windows Update control panel with WinExec?

    - by Bill
    In Executing Control Panel Items, MSDN says this: Windows Vista Canonical Names In Windows Vista and later, the preferred method of launching a Control Panel item from a command line is to use the Control Panel item's canonical name. According to the Microsoft website this should work: The following example shows how an application can start the Control Panel item Windows Update with WinExec. WinExec("%systemroot%\system32\control.exe /name Microsoft.WindowsUpdate", SW_NORMAL); For Delphi 2010 I tried: var CaptionString: string; Applet: string; Result: integer; ParamString: string; CaptionString := ListviewApplets1.Items.Item[ ListviewApplets1.ItemIndex ].Caption; if CaptionString = 'Folder Options' then { 6DFD7C5C-2451-11d3-A299-00C04F8EF6AF } Applet := 'Microsoft.FolderOptions' else if CaptionString = 'Fonts' then {93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD} Applet := 'Microsoft.Fonts' else if CaptionString = 'Windows Update' then { 93412589-74D4-4E4E-AD0E-E0CB621440FD } Applet := 'Microsoft.WindowsUpdate' else if CaptionString = 'Game Controllers' then { 259EF4B1-E6C9-4176-B574-481532C9BCE8 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GameControllers' else if CaptionString = 'Get Programs' then { 15eae92e-f17a-4431-9f28-805e482dafd4 } Applet := 'Microsoft.GetPrograms' //... ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; WinExec( ParamString, SW_NORMAL); <= This does not execute and when I trapped the error it returned ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND. I tried a ExecAndWait( ParamString ) method and it works perfectly with the same ParamString used with WinExec: ParamString := ( SystemFolder + '\control.exe /name ' ) + Applet; ExecAndWait( ParamString ); <= This executes and Runs perfectly The ExecAndWait method I used calls Windows.CreateProcess: if Windows.CreateProcess( nil, PChar( CommandLine ), nil, nil, False, 0, nil, nil, StartupInfo, ProcessInfo ) then begin try Does WinExec require a different ParamString, or am I doing this wrong with WinExec? I did not post the full ExecAndWait method but I can if someone wants to see it.

    Read the article

  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

    Read the article

  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

    Read the article

  • jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

    - by Ben
    Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

    Read the article

  • Javamail doesn't send a mail

    - by Jose Hdez
    I am developing a Java application and I am using Javamail to send a mail. My code is the following: Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "diana.cartif.es"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", "465"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class","javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "465"); Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("alerts","pass"); } }); Message message = new MimeMessage(session); message.setFrom(new InternetAddress("[email protected]")); message.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO,InternetAddress.parse("[email protected]")); message.setSubject("Testing Subject"); message.setText("Dear Mail Crawler," +"\n\n No spam to my email, please!"); Transport.send(message); However when I execute this code it throws an Exception: javax.mail.MessagingException: Could not connect to SMTP host: diana.cartif.es, port: 465, response: -1 at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.openServer(SMTPTransport.java:1960) at com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport.protocolConnect(SMTPTransport.java:642) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:317) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:176) at javax.mail.Service.connect(Service.java:125) at javax.mail.Transport.send0(Transport.java:194) at javax.mail.Transport.send(Transport.java:124) at com.cartif.data.MainConnection.getFTPConnection(MainConnection.java:106) at com.cartif.main.Main.connectToServer(Main.java:72) at com.cartif.main.Main.main(Main.java:60) Data to connect is right because I checked it in my Mail Server. Could someone help me please? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • android custom dialog imageButton onclicklistener

    - by Asaf Nevo
    this is my custom dialog class: package com.WhosAround.Dialogs; import com.WhosAround.AppVariables; import com.WhosAround.R; import com.WhosAround.AsyncTasks.LoadUserStatus; import com.WhosAround.Facebook.FacebookUser; import android.app.Dialog; import android.content.Context; import android.graphics.drawable.Drawable; import android.view.MotionEvent; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ImageButton; import android.widget.ImageView; import android.widget.TextView; public class MenuFriend extends Dialog{ private FacebookUser friend; private AppVariables app; public MenuFriend(Context context, FacebookUser friend) { super(context, android.R.style.Theme_Translucent_NoTitleBar); this.app = (AppVariables) context.getApplicationContext(); this.friend = friend; } public void setDialog(String userName, Drawable userProfilePicture) { setContentView(R.layout.menu_friend); setCancelable(true); setCanceledOnTouchOutside(true); TextView name = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.menu_user_name); TextView status = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.menu_user_status); ImageView profilePicture = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.menu_profile_picture); ImageButton closeButton = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.menu_close); name.setText(userName); profilePicture.setImageDrawable(userProfilePicture); if (friend.getStatus() != null) status.setText(friend.getStatus()); else new LoadUserStatus(app, friend, status).execute(0); closeButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { dismiss(); } }) } } for some reason eclipse tells me the following errors on closeButton imageButton: The method setOnClickListener(View.OnClickListener) in the type View is not applicable for the arguments (new DialogInterface.OnClickListener(){}) The type new DialogInterface.OnClickListener(){} must implement the inherited abstract method DialogInterface.OnClickListener.onClick(DialogInterface, int) The method onClick(View) of type new DialogInterface.OnClickListener(){} must override or implement a supertype method why is that ?

    Read the article

  • Doctrine 2 entity cannot be saved with its many-to-many related entities

    - by user1333185
    I'm writing a project in ZF and have many-to-many related accounts and videos entities and I provide the account with the videos collection. When I try to save the account I receive the following error: A new entity was found through the relationship 'Entities\Account#playlistVideos' that was not configured to cascade persist operations for entity: Entities\Video@000000004d5f02ef00000000196757dc. Explicitly persist the new entity or configure cascading persist operations on the relationship. If you cannot find out which entity causes the problem implement 'Entities\Video#__toString()' to get a clue. I found a suggested solution with cascade={"persist"} which should allow videos to be saved together with the account by only specifying $this-em-persist($account) but then I get the error: Fatal error: method_exists(): The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Proxies\EntitiesAccountProxy" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in... The same happens when I try to manually persist videos and account. Thank you for the help in advance.

    Read the article

  • XMLHttpRequest() and outputting csv file

    - by sjw
    Initially, I developed a javascript function to use window.open to post contents of a form to a new window which simply opened the new window and initiated a csv file download. Now on reflection, I find the opening of the window superfluous and am trying to just execute a XMLHttpRequest() to download the csv. I am not getting what I want and I'm not 100% sure that I can so I thought I'd ask here for some assistance. When a form is submitted, I want to take all the form values and post them to another page which builds an SQL string and builds a csv based on the contents. (This I can do and works fine with XMLHttpRequest() as seen below) var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); var parameters = ""; for ( i=0; i<formObj.elements.length; i++ ) { parameters += formObj.elements[i].name + "=" + encodeURI( formObj.elements[i].value ) + "&"; } xhReq.open("POST", outputLocation, false); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xhReq.send(parameters); document.write(xhReq.responseText); The code above calls the page ok, builds the csv ok, but it outputs the contents into the current browser window instead of initiating a csv file download. Can I achieve what I need using XMLHttpRequest() or am I going it about it the wrong way? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Somewhat lost with jquery + php + json

    - by Luis Armando
    I am starting to use the jquery $.ajax() but I can't get back what I want to...I send this: $(function(){ $.ajax({ url: "graph_data.php", type: "POST", data: "casi=56&nada=48&nuevo=98&perfecto=100&vales=50&apenas=70&yeah=60", dataType: "json", error: function (xhr, desc, exceptionobj) { document.writeln("El error de XMLHTTPRequest dice: " + xhr.responseText); }, success: function (json) { if (json.error) { alert(json.error); return; } var output = ""; for (p in json) { output += p + " : " + json[p] + "\n"; } document.writeln("Results: \n\n" + output); } }); }); and my php is: <?php $data = $_POST['data']; function array2json($data){ $json = $data; return json_encode($json); } ?> and when I execute this I come out with: Results: just like that I used to have in the php a echo array2json statement but it just gave back gibberish...I really don't know what am I doing wrong and I've googled for about 3 hours just getting basically the same stuff. Also I don't know how to pass parameters to the "data:" in the $.ajax function in another way like getting info from the web page, can anyone please help me? Edit I did what you suggested and it prints the data now thank you very much =) however, I was wondering, how can I send the data to the "data:" part in jQuery so it takes it from let's say user input, also I was checking the php documentation and it says I'm allowed to write something like: json_encode($a,JSON_HEX_TAG|JSON_HEX_APOS|JSON_HEX_QUOT|JSON_HEX_AMP) however, if I do that I get an error saying that json_encode accepts 1 parameter and I'm giving 2...any idea why? I'm using php 5.2

    Read the article

  • Python Multiprocessing Question

    - by Avan
    My program has 2 parts divided into the core and downloader. The core handles all the app logic while the downloader just downloads urls. Right now, I am trying to use the python multiprocessing module to accomplish the task of the core as a process and the downloader as a process. The first problem I noticed was that if I spawn the downloader process from the core process so that the downloader is the child process and the core is the parent, the core process(parent) is blocked until the child is finished. I do not want this behaivor though. I would like to have a core process and a downloader process that are both able to execute their code and communicate between each other. example ... def main(): jobQueue = Queue() jobQueue.put("http://google.com) d = Downloader(jobQueue) p = Process(target=d.start()) p.start() if __name__ == '__main__': freeze_support() main() where Downloader's start() just takes the url out of the queue and downloads it. In order to have the 2 processes unblocked, would I need to create 2 processes from the parent process and then share something between them?

    Read the article

  • App Crashes Loading View Controllers

    - by golfromeo
    I have the following code in my AppDelegate.h file: @class mainViewController; @class AboutViewController; @interface iSearchAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; mainViewController *viewController; AboutViewController *aboutController; UINavigationController *nav; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet mainViewController *viewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet AboutViewController *aboutController; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UINavigationController *nav; [...IBActions declared here...] @end Then, in my .m file: @implementation iSearchAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController, aboutController, settingsData, nav, engines; (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [window addSubview:nav.view]; [window addSubview:aboutController.view]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } -(IBAction)switchToHome{ [window bringSubviewToFront:viewController.view]; } -(IBAction)switchToSettings{ [window bringSubviewToFront:nav.view]; } -(IBAction)switchToAbout{ [window bringSubviewToFront:aboutController.view]; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [aboutController release]; [nav release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end Somehow, when I run the app, the main view presents itself fine... however, when I try to execute the actions to switch views, the app crashes with an EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Thanks for any help in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to compare a string with an option value

    - by user225269
    I have this html form which has options: <tr> <td width="30" height="35"><font size="3">*List:</td> <td width="30"><input name="specific" type="text" id="specific" maxlength="25" value=""> </td> <td><font size="3">*By:</td> <td> <select name="general" id="general"> <font size="3"> <option value="YEAR">Year</option> <option value="ADDRESS">Address</option> </select></td></td> </tr> And I'm trying to have this as the form action: if ('{$_POST["ADDRESS"]}'="ADDRESS") Which will compare if the value in the option in the html form matches the word "Address". If it matches then it will execute this query: $saddress= mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['specific']);<--this is the input form where the user will put the specific address to search. mysql_query("SELECT * FROM student WHERE ADDRESS='$saddress'"); Please I need help in here, I thinks its wrong: if ('{$_POST["ADDRESS"]}'="ADDRESS")

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310 311 312 313 314  | Next Page >