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  • Functions returning pointers

    - by fg nu
    C++ noob here. I have a very basic question about a construct I found in the C++ book I am reading. // class declaration class CStr { char sData[256]; public: char* get(void); }; // implementation of the function char* CStr::get(void) { return sData; } So the Cstr::get function is obviously meant to return a character pointer, but the function is passing what looks like the value (return sData). Does C++ know to return the address of the returned object? My guess would have been that the function definition would be return &sData.

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  • strtok wont accept: char *str

    - by bks
    strtok wont work correctly when using char *str as the first parameter (not the delimiters string). does it have something to do with the area that allocates strings in that notation? (which as far as i know, is a read-only area). thanks in advance example: //char* str ="- This, a sample string."; // <---doesn't work char str[] ="- This, a sample string."; // <---works char delims[] = " "; char * pch; printf ("Splitting string \"%s\" into tokens:\n",str); pch = strtok (str,delims); while (pch != NULL) { printf ("%s\n",pch); pch = strtok (NULL, delims); } return 0;

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  • ASP.NET MVC: Posting JSON to Controller

    - by JamesBrownIsDead
    I've got this in my controller: [HttpPost] public void UpdateLanguagePreference(string languageTag) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(languageTag)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("languageTag"); } ... } And have this jQuery code POSTing to the controller: jQuery.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/Config/UpdateLanguagePreference', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', data: '{ "languageTag": "' + selectedLanguage + '" }' }); When I try to the code, however, I get the error: Server Error in '/' Application. Value cannot be null. Parameter name: languageTag What's the problem? Isn't this how to POST JSON to an MVC Controller? I can examine the POST using Fiddler and see that the request is correct. For some reason, UpdateLanguagePreference() is getting a null or empty string.

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  • mysql 2 primary key onone table

    - by Bharanikumar
    CREATE TABLE Orders -> ( -> ID SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, -> ModelID SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, -> Descrip VARCHAR(40), -> PRIMARY KEY (ID, ModelID) -> ); Basically May i know ... Shall we create the two primary key on one table... Is it correct... Bcoz as per sql law,,, We can create N number of unque key in one table, and only one primary key only is the LAW know... Then how can my system allowing to create multiple primary key ? Please advise .... what is the general rule

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  • How to commit inside a CURSOR Loop?

    - by user320587
    Hi, I am trying to see if its possible to perform Update within a cursor loop and this updated data gets reflected during the second iteration in the loop. DECLARE cur CURSOR FOR SELECT [Product], [Customer], [Date], [Event] FROM MyTable WHERE [Event] IS NULL OPEN cur FETCH NEXT INTO @Product, @Customer, @Date, @Event WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE [Event] = 'No Event' AND [Date] < @DATE -- Now I update my Event value to 'No Event' for records whose date is less than @Date UPDATE MyTable SET [Event] = 'No Event' WHERE [Product] = @Product AND [Customer] = @Customer AND [Date] < @DATE FETCH NEXT INTO @Product, @Customer, @Date, @Event END CLOSE cur DEALLOCATE cur Assume when the sql executes the Event column is NULL for all records In the above sql, I am doing a select inside the cursor loop to query MyTable where Event value is 'No Event' but the query returns no value even though I am doing an update in the next line. So, I am thinking if it is even possible to update a table and the updated data get reflected in the next iteration of the cursor loop. Thanks for any help, Javid

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  • Magento set Store Id - customer login - but still logged out

    - by user3564050
    I've got an overridden AccountController in which i set the current store to an other as currently running (example: Customer is in website default and store default, going to login page, click login, my loginPostAction sets the store to id "2" (on website 2) and then executes the parent code loginPostAction. The store is set, of course, but after the login and the redirect to home, the customer is not logged in anymore... Customer-sendlogindata-myaccountcontroller sets store-original account controller logs in without errors (cause $session customer is set)-redirect to home-customer is not logged in anymore... i set the store with Mage::app()-setCurrentStore($id); . And in index.php i've got an extra where the store is set to the right id (2) too and this works... but the customer is not logged in anymore.. is that an issue with the session cause different websites ? I don't want to globally share customer.. each website has his own customers, but every customer has to be able to login on default store. AccountController.php overridden: public $Website_Ids = array( array("code" => "gerstore", "id" => "3", "website" => "ger"), array("code" => "ukstore", "id" => "2", "website" => "uk"), array("code" => "esstore", "id" => "4", "website" => "es"), array("code" => "frstore", "id" => "5", "website" => "fr") ); public function loginPostAction() { $login = $this->getRequest()->get('login'); if(isset($login['username'])) { $found = null; foreach($this->Website_Ids as $WebsiteId) { $customer = Mage::getModel('customer/customer'); $customer->setWebsiteId($WebsiteId['id']); $customer->loadByEmail($login['username']); if(count($customer->getData()) > 0) { $found = $WebsiteId; } } if($found != null && Mage::app()->getStore()->getId() != $found['id']) { /* found, so set currentstore to id */ Mage::app()->setCurrentStore($found['id']); $_SESSION['current_store_b2b'] = $found; } /* not found, doesn't matter cause mage login exception handling */ } parent::loginPostAction(); } Index.php : session_start(); $session = $_SESSION['current_store_b2b']; if($session != null || $session != "") { Mage::app()->setCurrentStore($session['id']); Mage::run($session['code'], 'store'); } else { /* Store or website code */ $mageRunCode = isset($_SERVER['MAGE_RUN_CODE']) ? $_SERVER['MAGE_RUN_CODE'] : ''; /* Run store or run website */ $mageRunType = isset($_SERVER['MAGE_RUN_TYPE']) ? $_SERVER['MAGE_RUN_TYPE'] : 'store'; Mage::run($mageRunCode, $mageRunType); } Whats the matter ? Thanks.

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  • asp.net Multiple Page_Load events for a user control when using URL Routing

    - by Paul Hutson
    Hello, I've recently set up an ASP.net site (not using MVC.net) to use URL Routing (more on the code below) - when using user controls on the site (i.e I've created a "menu" user control to hold menu information) the page_load event for that control will fire twice when URLs have more than one variable passed over. i.e. pageName/VAR1 : will only fire the page_load event once. while pageName/VAR1/VAR2 : will fire the page_load event twice. *Multiple extra VARs added on the end will still only fire the page_load event twice*. Below are the code snippits from the files, the first is the MapPageRoute, located in the Global.asax : // Register a route for the Example page, with the NodeID and also the Test123 variables allowed. // This demonstrates how to have several items linked with the page routes. routes.MapPageRoute( "Multiple Data Example", // Route name "Example/{NodeID}/{test123}/{variable}", // Route URL - note the NodeID bit "~/Example.aspx", // Web page to handle route true, // Check for physical access new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "1" }, // Default Node ID { "test123", "1" }, // Default addtional variable value { "variable", "hello"} // Default test variable value } ); Next is the way I've directed to the page in the menu item, this is a list item within a UL tag : <li class="TopMenu_ListItem"><a href="<%= Page.GetRouteUrl("Multiple Data Example", new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "4855" }, { "test123", "2" } }) %>">Example 2</a></li> And finally the control that gets hit multiple times on a page load : // For use when the page loads. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Handle the routing variables. // this handles the route data value for NodeID - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] != null) { nodeID = Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for Test123 - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] != null) { ExampleOutput2.Text = "I am the output of the third variable : " + Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for variable - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] != null) { ExampleOutput3.Text = "I say " + Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] as string; }; } Note, that when I'm just hitting the page and it uses the default values for items, the reloads do not happen. Any help or guidance that anyone can offer would be very much appreciated! EDIT : The User Control is only added to the page once. I've tested the load sequence by putting a breakpoint in the page_load event - it only hits twice when the extra routes are added. Thanks in Advance, Paul Hutson

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  • Combine query results from one table with the defaults from another

    - by pulegium
    This is a dumbed down version of the real table data, so may look bit silly. Table 1 (users): id INT username TEXT favourite_food TEXT food_pref_id INT Table 2 (food_preferences): id INT food_type TEXT The logic is as follows: Let's say I have this in my food preference table: 1, 'VEGETARIAN' and this in the users table: 1, 'John', NULL, 1 2, 'Pete', 'Curry', 1 In which case John defaults to be a vegetarian, but Pete should show up as a person who enjoys curry. Question, is there any way to combine the query into one select statement, so that it would get the default from the preferences table if the favourite_food column is NULL? I can obviously do this in application logic, but would be nice just to offload this to SQL, if possible. DB is SQLite3...

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  • How to open email by x-gm-msgid in Gmail with Javascript

    - by Rui J
    I'm writing an extension which surfaces links to gmail messages. As the UI loads right in Gmail, I should be able to click on one of these links and have Gmail load it (without refreshing). I have "x-gm-msgid" available and theoretically, I should just be able to navigate to "https://mail.google.com/mail/u/0/#inbox/[x-gm-msgid]". I've tried using location.hash = "#inbox/[x-gm-msgid]" I've tried using history.pushState(null, null, "/mail/u/0/#inbox/[x-gm-msgid]") Neither of which works. Gmail just thwarts any attempt to change the URL (unless it is done via user interaction) Any thoughts on how to get around this restriction?

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  • EF4 Import/Lookup thousands of records - my performance stinks!

    - by Dennis Ward
    I'm trying to setup something for a movie store website (using ASP.NET, EF4, SQL Server 2008), and in my scenario, I want to allow a "Member" store to import their catalog of movies stored in a text file containing ActorName, MovieTitle, and CatalogNumber as follows: Actor, Movie, CatalogNumber John Wayne, True Grit, 4577-12 (repeated for each record) This data will be used to lookup an actor and movie, and create a "MemberMovie" record, and my import speed is terrible if I import more than 100 or so records using these tables: Actor Table: Fields = {ID, Name, etc.} Movie Table: Fields = {ID, Title, ActorID, etc.} MemberMovie Table: Fields = {ID, CatalogNumber, MovieID, etc.} My methodology to import data into the MemberMovie table from a text file is as follows (after the file has been uploaded successfully): Create a context. For each line in the file, lookup the artist in the Actor table. For each Movie in the Artist table, lookup the matching title. If a matching Movie is found, add a new MemberMovie record to the context and call ctx.SaveChanges(). The performance of my implementation is terrible. My expectation is that this can be done with thousands of records in a few seconds (after the file has been uploaded), and I've got something that times out the browser. My question is this: What is the best approach for performing bulk lookups/inserts like this? Should I call SaveChanges only once rather than for each newly created MemberMovie? Would it be better to implement this using something like a stored procedure? A snippet of my loop is roughly this (edited for brevity): while ((fline = file.ReadLine()) != null) { string [] token = fline.Split(separator); string Actor = token[0]; string Movie = token[1]; string CatNumber = token[2]; Actor found_actor = ctx.Actors.Where(a => a.Name.Equals(actor)).FirstOrDefault(); if (found_actor == null) continue; Movie found_movie = found_actor.Movies.Where( s => s.Title.Equals(title, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase)).FirstOrDefault(); if (found_movie == null) continue; ctx.MemberMovies.AddObject(new MemberMovie() { MemberProfileID = profile_id, CatalogNumber = CatNumber, Movie = found_movie }); try { ctx.SaveChanges(); } catch { } } Any help is appreciated! Thanks, Dennis

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  • Sequence Generators in T-SQL

    - by PaoloFCantoni
    We have an Oracle application that uses a standard pattern to populate surrogate keys. We have a series of extrinsic rows (that have specific values for the surrogate keys) and other rows that have intrinsic values. We use the following Oracle trigger snippet to determine what to do with the Surrogate key on insert: 'IF :NEW.SurrogateKey IS NULL THEN SELECT SurrogateKey_SEQ.NEXTVAL INTO :NEW.SurrogateKey FROM DUAL; END IF;' If the supplied surrogate key is null then get a value from the nominated sequence, else pass the supplied surrogate key through to the row. I can't seem to find an easy way to do this is T-SQL. There are all sorts of approaches, but none of which use the notion of a sequence generator like Oracle and other SQL-92 compliant DBs do. Anybody know of a really efficient way to do this in SQL Server T-SQL? BTW we're using SQL Server 2008 if that's any help. TIA, Paolo

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  • Determining threshold for lock escalation

    - by Davin
    I have a table with around 2.5 millions records and will be updating around 700k of them and want to update these while still allowing other users to see the data. My update statement looks something like this: UPDATE A WITH (UPDLOCK,ROWLOCK) SET A.field = B.field FROM Table_1 A INNER JOIN Table2 B ON A.id = B.id WHERE A.field IS NULL AND B.field IS NOT NULL I was wondering if there was any way to work out at what point sql server will escalate a lock placed on an update statement (as I don't want the whole table to be locked)? I don't have permissions to run a server trace to see how the locks are being applied, so is there any other way of knowing at what point the lock will be escalated to cover the whole table? Thanks!

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  • Edit the opposite side of a many to many relationship with django generic form

    - by Ed
    I have two models: class Actor(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=30, unique = True) event = models.ManyToManyField(Event, blank=True, null=True) class Event(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=30, unique = True) long_description = models.TextField(blank=True, null=True) In a previous question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2503243/django-form-linking-2-models-by-many-to-many-field, I created an EventForm with a save function: class EventForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = Event def save(self, commit=True): instance = forms.ModelForm.save(self) instance.actors_set.clear() for actor in self.cleaned_data['actors']: instance.actors_set.add(actors) return instance This allowed me to add m2m links from the other side of the defined m2m connection. Now I want to edit the entry. I've been using a generic function: def generic_edit(request, modelname, object_id): modelname = modelname.lower() form_class = form_dict[modelname] return update_object(request, form_class = form_class, object_id = object_id, template_name = 'createdit.html' ) but this pulls in all the info except the many-to-many selections saved to this object. I think I need to do something similar to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1700202/editing-both-sides-of-m2m-in-admin-page, but I haven't figured it out. How do I use the generic update_object to edit the other side of many-to-many link?

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  • Implement INotifyPropertyChanged

    - by yossharel
    Hi all, I want to have Dictionary that would be 'Observable' in order to throw events when its item changing.(Remove or Add). In other class I created such dictionary and set Binding to ListBox.ItemsSourseProperty. The Binding work well. I can see the items. But something wrong. the event 'PropertyChanged' always null. Can anyone help? Thanks in advance! class ObservableDictionary<TKey, TValue>:Dictionary<TKey, TValue>, INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public new void Remove(TKey obj) { base.Remove(obj); if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("Remove")); } } }

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  • SYSDATE - 1 error on pl/sql function

    - by ayo
    Hi curtisk/all, I have an issue: when i issue this function below ti gives me the following error: select 'EXECUTE DBMS_LOGMNR.ADD_LOGFILE(LOGFILENAME =>'''||name||'''||,OPTIONS=>DBMS_LOGMNR.NEW);' from v\$archived_log where name is not null; select 'EXECUTE DBMS_LOGMNR.ADD_LOGFILE(LOGFILENAME =>'''||name||'''||,OPTIONS=>DBMS_LOGMNR.ADDFILE);' from v\$archived_log where name is not null; EXECUTE DBMS_LOGMNR.START_LOGMNR( STARTTIME => SYSDATE - 1, ENDTIME => SYSDATE, OPTIONS => DBMS_LOGMNR.DICT_FROM_ONLINE_CATALOG + DBMS_LOGMNR.CONTINUOUS_MINE + DBMS_LOGMNR.COMMITTED_DATA_ONLY + DBMS_LOGMNR.PRINT_PRETTY_SQL); Error: * ERROR at line 1: ORA-01291: missing logfile ORA-06512: at "SYS.DBMS_LOGMNR", line 58 ORA-06512: at line 1 But i have added all the archived logs for several days before and my sysdate is at today. Kindly help out on this issue. thanks. Reagrds Ayo

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  • Java Convert ColorSpace of BufferedImage to CS_GRAY without using ConvertColorOp

    - by gmatt
    I know its possible to convert an image to CS_GRAY using public static BufferedImage getGrayBufferedImage(BufferedImage image) { BufferedImageOp op = new ColorConvertOp(ColorSpace .getInstance(ColorSpace.CS_GRAY), null); BufferedImage sourceImgGray = op.filter(image, null); return sourceImgGray; } however, this is a chokepoint of my entire program. I need to do this often, on 800x600 pixel images and takes about 200-300ms for this operation to complete, on average. I know I can do this alot faster by using one for loop to loop through the image data and set it right away. The code above on the other hand constructs a brand new 800x600 BufferedImage that is gray scale. I would rather just transform the image I pass in. Does any one know how to do this with a for loop and given that the image is RGB color space?

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  • Watching setTimeout loops so that only one is running at a time.

    - by DA
    I'm creating a content rotator in jQuery. 5 items total. Item 1 fades in, pauses 10 seconds, fades out, then item 2 fades in. Repeat. Simple enough. Using setTimeout I can call a set of functions that create a loop and will repeat the process indefinitely. I now want to add the ability to interrupt this rotator at any time by clicking on a navigation element to jump directly to one of the content items. I originally started going down the path of pinging a variable constantly (say every half second) that would check to see if a navigation element was clicked and, if so, abandon the loop, then restart the loop based on the item that was clicked. The challenge I ran into was how to actually ping a variable via a timer. The solution is to dive into JavaScript closures...which are a little over my head but definitely something I need to delve into more. However, in the process of that, I came up with an alternative option that actually seems to be better performance-wise (theoretically, at least). I have a sample running here: http://jsbin.com/uxupi/14 (It's using console.log so have fireBug running) Sample script: $(document).ready(function(){ var loopCount = 0; $('p#hello').click(function(){ loopCount++; doThatThing(loopCount); }) function doThatOtherThing(currentLoopCount) { console.log('doThatOtherThing-'+currentLoopCount); if(currentLoopCount==loopCount){ setTimeout(function(){doThatThing(currentLoopCount)},5000) } } function doThatThing(currentLoopCount) { console.log('doThatThing-'+currentLoopCount); if(currentLoopCount==loopCount){ setTimeout(function(){doThatOtherThing(currentLoopCount)},5000); } } }) The logic being that every click of the trigger element will kick off the loop passing into itself a variable equal to the current value of the global variable. That variable gets passed back and forth between the functions in the loop. Each click of the trigger also increments the global variable so that subsequent calls of the loop have a unique local variable. Then, within the loop, before the next step of each loop is called, it checks to see if the variable it has still matches the global variable. If not, it knows that a new loop has already been activated so it just ends the existing loop. Thoughts on this? Valid solution? Better options? Caveats? Dangers? UPDATE: I'm using John's suggestion below via the clearTimeout option. However, I can't quite get it to work. The logic is as such: var slideNumber = 0; var timeout = null; function startLoop(slideNumber) { ...do stuff here to set up the slide based on slideNumber... slideFadeIn() } function continueCheck(){ if (timeout != null) { // cancel the scheduled task. clearTimeout(timeout); timeout = null; return false; }else{ return true; } }; function slideFadeIn() { if (continueCheck){ // a new loop hasn't been called yet so proceed... // fade in the LI $currentListItem.fadeIn(fade, function() { if(multipleFeatures){ timeout = setTimeout(slideFadeOut,display); } }); }; function slideFadeOut() { if (continueLoop){ // a new loop hasn't been called yet so proceed... slideNumber=slideNumber+1; if(slideNumber==features.length) { slideNumber = 0; }; timeout = setTimeout(function(){startLoop(slideNumber)},100); }; startLoop(slideNumber); The above kicks of the looping. I then have navigation items that, when clicked, I want the above loop to stop, then restart with a new beginning slide: $(myNav).click(function(){ clearTimeout(timeout); timeout = null; startLoop(thisItem); }) If I comment out 'startLoop...' from the click event, it, indeed, stops the initial loop. However, if I leave that last line in, it doesn't actually stop the initial loop. Why? What happens is that both loops seem to run in parallel for a period. So, when I click my navigation, clearTimeout is called, which clears it.

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  • Anchoring the Action URL of a Form

    - by John
    Hello, I am using a function that leads users to a file called "comments2.php": <form action="http://www...com/.../comments/comments2.php" method="post"> On comments2.php, data passed over from the form is inserted into MySQL: $query = sprintf("INSERT INTO comment VALUES (NULL, %d, %d, '%s', NULL)", $uid, $subid, $comment); mysql_query($query) or die(mysql_error()); Then, later in comments2.php, I am using a query that loops through entries meeting certain criteria. The loop contains a row with the following information: echo '<td rowspan="3" class="commentname1" id="comment-' . $row["commentid"] . '">'.stripslashes($row["comment"]).'</td>'; For the function above, I would like the URL to be anchored by the highest value of "commentid" for id="comment-' . $row["commentid"] . '" How can this be done? Thanks in advance, John

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  • Question About DateCreated and DateModified Columns - SQL Server

    - by user311509
    CREATE TABLE Customer ( customerID int identity (500,20) CONSTRAINT . . dateCreated datetime DEFAULT GetDate() NOT NULL, dateModified datetime DEFAULT GetDate() NOT NULL ); When i insert a record, dateCreated and dateModified gets set to default date/time. When i update/modify the record, dateModified and dateCreated remains as is? What should i do? Obviously, i need to dateCreated value to remain as was inserted the first time and dateModified keeps changing when a change/modification occurs in the record fields. In other words, can you please write a sample quick trigger? I don't know much yet...

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  • how can i get proper Uri of a particular contact in android 2.1

    - by Rishabh
    I have written an application and added 2 contacts on emulator, but i am not able to update their names on android 2.1, code is working on android 1.6 platform with the following code. ContentValues contactValues = new ContentValues(); contactValues.put(Contacts.People.NAME, firstName+" "+lastName); getContentResolver().update(UpdateContactUri, contactValues, null, null); In android 1.6 i am getting Uri for those two contacts are "content:// contacts/people/1" and "content://contacts/people/2". but in 2.1 I am getting these values are "content://contacts/people/8" and "content://contacts/people/9" and while updating its giving "java.IllegalArgumentException, Empty values" exception. When i tried to put a static Uri like "content://contacts/people/1", code was debugged sucessfully but contact was not updated. How can i resolve it, why i am not getting uri like 1.6 platform ? Thanks in advance...

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  • MySql left join on several regs

    - by egidiocs
    Hi there! I have this table1 idproduct(PK) | date_to_go 1 2010-01-18 2 2010-02-01 3 2010-02-21 4 2010-02-03 and this other table2 that controls date_to_go updates id | idproduct(FK) | prev_date_to_go | date_to_go | update_date 1 1 2010-01-01 2010-01-05 2009-12-01 2 1 2010-01-05 2010-01-10 2009-12-20 3 1 2010-01-10 2010-01-18 2009-12-20 4 3 2010-01-20 2010-02-03 2010-01-05 So, in this example, for table1.idproduct #1 2010-01-18 is the actual date_to_go and 2010-01-01 (table2.prev_date_to_go, first reg) is the original date_to_go . using this query select v.idproduct, v.date_to_go, p.prev_date_to_go original_date_to_go from table1 v left join produto_datas p on p.idproduto = v.idproduto group by (v.idproduto) order by v.idproduto can I assume that original_date_to_go will be the first related reg of table2? idproduct | date_to_go | original_date_to_go 1 2010-01-18 2010-01-01 2 2010-02-01 NULL 3 2010-02-21 2010-01-20 4 2010-02-03 NULL

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  • Prevent DTD download when parsing XML, redux

    - by harpo
    I have a folder full of XHTML files, and a console program to process them. The problem is, it doesn't work when I'm offline, because The remote name could not be resolved: 'www.w3.org' A number of sites, including this one, say to set the XmlResolver to null. That is not not working. I have tried setting the XmlResolver to null every way that I can think of: in the XmlDocument, in XmlTextReader, and in the XmlReaderSettings. I believe that it's just creating a default instance. I have also tried implementing my own XmlResolver, but I don't know what to return for external items. public class NonXmlResolver : XmlUrlResolver { public override object GetEntity( Uri absoluteUri, string role, Type ofObjectToReturn ) { if ( absoluteUri.Scheme == "http" ) throw new Exception("What you talking 'bout, Willis?"); else return base.GetEntity( absoluteUri, role, ofObjectToReturn ); } } The documents do not use any special entities, only pure XML. This is possible, right?

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  • Simaltaneous connections with PHP and SOAP?

    - by Dov
    I'm new to using SOAP and understanding the utmost basics of it. I create a client resource/connection, I then run some queries in a loop and I'm done. The issue I am having is when I increase the iterations of the loop, ie: from 100 to 1000, it seems to run out of memory and drops an internal server error. How could I possibly run either a) multiple simaltaneous connections or b) create a connection, 100 iterations, close connection, create connection.. etc. "a)" looks to be the better option but I have no clue as to how to get it up and running whilst keeping memory (I assume opening and closing connections) at a minimum. Thanks in advance! index.php <?php // set loops to 0 $loops = 0; // connection credentials and settings $location = 'https://theconsole.com/'; $wsdl = $location.'?wsdl'; $username = 'user'; $password = 'pass'; // include the console and client classes include "class_console.php"; include "class_client.php"; // create a client resource / connection $client = new Client($location, $wsdl, $username, $password); while ($loops <= 100) { $dostuff; } ?> class_console.php <?php class Console { // the connection resource private $connection = NULL; /** * When this object is instantiated a connection will be made to the console */ public function __construct($location, $wsdl, $username, $password, $proxyHost = NULL, $proxyPort = NULL) { if(is_null($proxyHost) || is_null($proxyPort)) $connection = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('login' => $username, 'password' => $password)); else $connection = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('login' => $username, 'password' => $password, 'proxy_host' => $proxyHost, 'proxy_port' => $proxyPort)); $connection->__setLocation($location); $this->connection = $connection; return $this->connection; } /** * Will print any type of data to screen, where supported by print_r * * @param $var - The data to print to screen * @return $this->connection - The connection resource **/ public function screen($var) { print '<pre>'; print_r($var); print '</pre>'; return $this->connection; } /** * Returns a server / connection resource * * @return $this->connection - The connection resource */ public function srv() { return $this->connection; } } ?>

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  • Get data types from arbitrary sql statement in SQL Server 2008

    - by Christopherous 5000
    Given some arbitrary SQL I would like to get the data types of the returned columns. The statement might join many tables, views, TVFs, etc. I know I could create a view based on the query and get the datatypes from that, hoping there's a quicker way. Only think I've been able to think of is writing a .net utility to run the SQL and examine the results, wondering if there is a TSQL answer. i.e. Given (not real tables just an example) SELECT p.Name AS PersonName, p.Age, a.Account as AccountName FROM Person as p LEFT JOIN Account as a ON p.Id = a.OwnerId I would like to have something like PersonName: (nvarchar(255), not null) Age: (smallInt, not null) etc...

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  • Optimal Database design regarding functionality of letting user share posts by other users

    - by codecool
    I want to implement functionality which let user share posts by other users similar to what Facebook and Google+ share button and twitter retweet. There are 2 choices: 1) I create duplicate copy of the post and have a column which keeps track of the original post id and makes clear this is a shared post. 2) I have a separate table shared post where I save the post id which is a foreign key to post id in post table. Talking in terms of programming basically I keep pointer to the original post in a separate table and when need to get post posted by user and also shared ones I do a left join on post and shared post table Post(post_id(PK), post_content, posted_by) SharedPost(post_id(FK to Post.post_id), sharing_user, sharedfrom(in case someone shares from non owners profile)) I am in favour of second choice but wanted to know the advice of experts out there? One thing more posts on my webapp will be more on the lines of facebook size not tweet size.

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