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  • ZF Autoloader to load ancestor and requested class

    - by Pekka
    I am integrating Zend Framework into an existing application. I want to switch the application over to Zend's autoloading mechanism to replace dozens of include() statements. I have a specific requirement for the autoloading mechanism, though. Allow me to elaborate. The existing application uses a core library (independent from ZF), for example: /Core/Library/authentication.php /Core/Library/translation.php /Core/Library/messages.php this core library is to remain untouched at all times and serves a number of applications. The library contains classes like class ancestor_authentication { ... } class ancestor_translation { ... } class ancestor_messages { ... } in the application, there is also a Library directory: /App/Library/authentication.php /App/Library/translation.php /App/Library/messages.php these includes extend the ancestor classes and are the ones that actually get instantiated in the application. class authentication extends ancestor_authentication { } class translation extends ancestor_translation { } class messages extends ancestor_messages { } usually, these class definitions are empty. They simply extend their ancestors and provide the class name to instantiate. $authentication = new authentication(); The purpose of this solution is to be able to easily customize aspects of the application without having to patch the core libraries. Now, the autoloader I need would have to be aware of this structure. When an object of the class authentication is requested, the autoloader would have to: 1. load /Core/Library/authentication.php 2. load /App/Library/authentication.php My current approach would be creating a custom function, and binding that to Zend_Loader_Autoloader for a specific namespace prefix. Is there already a way to do this in Zend that I am overlooking? The accepted answer in this question kind of implies there is, but that may be just a bad choice of wording. Are there extensions to the Zend Autoloader that do this? Can you - I am new to ZF - think of an elegant way, conforming with the spirit of the framework, of extending the Autoloader with this functionality? I'm not necessary looking for a ready-made implementation, some pointers (This should be an extension to the xyz method that you would call like this...) would already be enough.

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  • Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

    - by DonCallisto
    Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

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  • ACL implementation

    - by Kirzilla
    First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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  • Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

    - by Frans
    (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

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  • B-trees, databases, sequential inputs, and speed.

    - by IanC
    I know from experience that b-trees have awful performance when data is added to them sequentially (regardless of the direction). However, when data is added randomly, best performance is obtained. This is easy to demonstrate with the likes of an RB-Tree. Sequential writes cause a maximum number of tree balances to be performed. I know very few databases use binary trees, but rather used n-order balanced trees. I logically assume they suffer a similar fate to binary trees when it comes to sequential inputs. This sparked my curiosity. If this is so, then one could deduce that writing sequential IDs (such as in IDENTITY(1,1)) would cause multiple re-balances of the tree to occur. I have seen many posts argue against GUIDs as "these will cause random writes". I never use GUIDs, but it struck me that this "bad" point was in fact a good point. So I decided to test it. Here is my code: SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[T1]( [ID] [int] NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [T1_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([ID] ASC) ) GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[T2]( [ID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL CONSTRAINT [T2_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([ID] ASC) ) GO declare @i int, @t1 datetime, @t2 datetime, @t3 datetime, @c char(300) set @t1 = GETDATE() set @i = 1 while @i < 2000 begin insert into T2 values (NEWID(), @c) set @i = @i + 1 end set @t2 = GETDATE() WAITFOR delay '0:0:10' set @t3 = GETDATE() set @i = 1 while @i < 2000 begin insert into T1 values (@i, @c) set @i = @i + 1 end select DATEDIFF(ms, @t1, @t2) AS [Int], DATEDIFF(ms, @t3, getdate()) AS [GUID] drop table T1 drop table T2 Note that I am not subtracting any time for the creation of the GUID nor for the considerably extra size of the row. The results on my machine were as follows: Int: 17,340 ms GUID: 6,746 ms This means that in this test, random inserts of 16 bytes was almost 3 times faster than sequential inserts of 4 bytes. Would anyone like to comment on this? Ps. I get that this isn't a question. It's an invite to discussion, and that is relevant to learning optimum programming.

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  • Akka framework support for finding duplicate messages

    - by scala_is_awesome
    I'm trying to build a high-performance distributed system with Akka and Scala. If a message requesting an expensive (and side-effect-free) computation arrives, and the exact same computation has already been requested before, I want to avoid computing the result again. If the computation requested previously has already completed and the result is available, I can cache it and re-use it. However, the time window in which duplicate computation can be requested may be arbitrarily small. e.g. I could get a thousand or a million messages requesting the same expensive computation at the same instant for all practical purposes. There is a commercial product called Gigaspaces that supposedly handles this situation. However there seems to be no framework support for dealing with duplicate work requests in Akka at the moment. Given that the Akka framework already has access to all the messages being routed through the framework, it seems that a framework solution could make a lot of sense here. Here is what I am proposing for the Akka framework to do: 1. Create a trait to indicate a type of messages (say, "ExpensiveComputation" or something similar) that are to be subject to the following caching approach. 2. Smartly (hashing etc.) identify identical messages received by (the same or different) actors within a user-configurable time window. Other options: select a maximum buffer size of memory to be used for this purpose, subject to (say LRU) replacement etc. Akka can also choose to cache only the results of messages that were expensive to process; the messages that took very little time to process can be re-processed again if needed; no need to waste precious buffer space caching them and their results. 3. When identical messages (received within that time window, possibly "at the same time instant") are identified, avoid unnecessary duplicate computations. The framework would do this automatically, and essentially, the duplicate messages would never get received by a new actor for processing; they would silently vanish and the result from processing it once (whether that computation was already done in the past, or ongoing right then) would get sent to all appropriate recipients (immediately if already available, and upon completion of the computation if not). Note that messages should be considered identical even if the "reply" fields are different, as long as the semantics/computations they represent are identical in every other respect. Also note that the computation should be purely functional, i.e. free from side-effects, for the caching optimization suggested to work and not change the program semantics at all. If what I am suggesting is not compatible with the Akka way of doing things, and/or if you see some strong reasons why this is a very bad idea, please let me know. Thanks, Is Awesome, Scala

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  • Refactoring Singleton Overuse

    - by drharris
    Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

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  • Supersized image captions - render outside of JavaScript

    - by Sol
    I am using the jQuery supersized script for a full screen slideshow (not the WordPress plugin as this didn't give me enough control). However, one issue that I am trying to tackle is how to render the image caption text outside of the javascript slides[ ] call - and instead, render them within the page div - to improve SEO on the page. My code works fine right now, images and the caption text are correctly displaying, but looking at the source code, there is very little text outside of the javascript (which is bad for SEO), so I would just like to improve it, if possible. I haven't been able to find any other topic on this subject and so far, I've been unsuccessful at improving on the current code, which is as follows; <!-- Supersized 3.2.7 - By Sam Dunn / One Mighty Roar (www.onemightyroar.com) Released under MIT License / GPL License --> <script type="text/javascript"> var slides=[]; <?php $my_query = new WP_Query ( array( 'post_status' => 'publish', 'post_type' => 'featured', //'numberposts' => 5, 'orderby' => 'menu_order', 'order' => 'ASC', 'showposts' => 50 )); while( $my_query->have_posts() ) : $my_query->the_post(); $slink = get_post_meta($post->ID,'FS_link',true); ?> slides.push({image : '<?php echo get_image_path(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_slideimage_src', true)); ?>', title : '<div class="slidecaptioninside"><h1><?php echo the_title(); ?></h1><p><?php echo strip_tags(get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FS_fitemcaption', true)); ?>...<a href="<?php echo $slink;?>">find out more</a></p></div>', url : '<?php echo $slink;?>'}); <?php endwhile; ?> // start supersized JS $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(window).load(function() { $j.supersized({ //Functionality slideshow: 1, // ..... additional functions go here... slide_captions : 1, //Slide caption (Pull from "title" in slides array) slides : slides, slide_links : 'blank', progress_bar : 1, mouse_scrub: 1 }); }); </script> <div id="slidecontainer"> <div id="slidecaption"></div> <!--Thumbnail Navigation--> <div id="prevthumb"></div> <div id="nextthumb"></div> <!--additional tray divs here--> </div><!--slidecontainer--> I have tried to get Supersized to output the content into a parent div [div id="supersized"] using $j('#supersized').supersized({ but this doesn't appear to work. Has anyone managed to do this differently to improve page SEO?

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  • .NET Free memory usage (how to prevent overallocation / release memory to the OS)

    - by Ronan Thibaudau
    I'm currently working on a website that makes large use of cached data to avoid roundtrips. At startup we get a "large" graph (hundreds of thouthands of different kinds of objects). Those objects are retrieved over WCF and deserialized (we use protocol buffers for serialization) I'm using redgate's memory profiler to debug memory issues (the memory didn't seem to fit with how much memory we should need "after" we're done initializing and end up with this report Now what we can gather from this report is that: 1) Most of the memory .NET allocated is free (it may have been rightfully allocated during deserialisation, but now that it's free, i'd like for it to return to the OS) 2) Memory is fragmented (which is bad, as everytime i refresh the cash i need to redo the memory hungry deserialisation process and this, in turn creates large object that may throw an OutOfMemoryException due to fragmentation) 3) I have no clue why the space is fragmented, because when i look at the large object heap, there are only 30 instances, 15 object[] are directly attached to the GC and totally unrelated to me, 1 is a char array also attached directly to the GC Heap, the remaining 15 are mine but are not the cause of this as i get the same report if i comment them out in code. So my question is, what can i do to go further with this? I'm not really sure what to look for in debugging / tools as it seems my memory is fragmented, but not by me, and huge amounts of free spaces are allocated by .net , which i can't release. Also please make sure you understand the question well before answering, i'm not looking for a way to free memory within .net (GC.Collect), but to free memory that is already free in .net , to the system as well as to defragment said memory. Note that a slow solution is fine, if it's possible to manually defragment the large heap i'd be all for it as i can call it at the end of RefreshCache and it's ok if it takes 1 or 2 second to run. Thanks for your help! A few notes i forgot: 1) The project is a .net 2.0 website, i get the same results running it in a .net 4 pool, idem if i run it in a .net 4 pool and convert it to .net 4 and recompile. 2) These are results of a release build, so debug build can not be the issue. 3) And this is probably quite important, i do not get these issues at all in the webdev server, only in IIS, in the webdev i get memory consumption rather close to my actual consumption (well more, but not 5-10X more!)

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  • Twitter RSS feed, [domdocument.load]: failed to open stream:

    - by dave1019
    hi i'm using the following: <?php $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->load('http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/XXXXXX.rss'); $arrFeeds = array(); foreach ($doc->getElementsByTagName('item') as $node) { $itemRSS = array ( 'title' => $node->getElementsByTagName('title')->item(0)->nodeValue, 'desc' => $node->getElementsByTagName('description')->item(0)->nodeValue, 'link' => $node->getElementsByTagName('link')->item(0)->nodeValue, 'date' => $node->getElementsByTagName('pubDate')->item(0)->nodeValue ); array_push($arrFeeds, $itemRSS); } for($i=0;$i<=3;$i++) { $tweet=substr($arrFeeds[$i]['title'],17); $tweetDate=strtotime($arrFeeds[$i]['date']); $newDate=date('G:ia l F Y ',$tweetDate); if($i==0) { $b='style="border:none;"'; } $tweetsBox.='<div class="tweetbox" ' . $b . '> <div class="tweet"><p>' . $tweet . '</p> <div class="tweetdate"><a href="http://twitter.com/XXXXXX">@' . $newDate .'</a></div> </div> </div>'; } return $tweetsBox; ?> to return the 4 most recent tweets from a given timeline (XXXXX is the relevant feed) It seems to work fine but i've recently been getting the following error sporadically: PHP error debug Error: DOMDocument::load(http://twitter.com/statuses/user_timeline/XXXXXX.rss) [domdocument.load]: failed to open stream: HTTP request failed! HTTP/1.1 502 Bad Gateway I've read that the above code is dependant on Twitter beign available and I know it gets rather busy sometimes. Is there either a better way of receiving twits, or is there any kind of error trapping i could do to just to display "tweets are currently unavailable..." ind of message rather than causing an error. I'm usnig ModX CMS so any parse error kills the site rather than just ouputs a warning. thanks.

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  • How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

    - by RPM1984
    Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Combining FileStream and MemoryStream to avoid disk accesses/paging while receiving gigabytes of data?

    - by w128
    I'm receiving a file as a stream of byte[] data packets (total size isn't known in advance) that I need to store somewhere before processing it immediately after it's been received (I can't do the processing on the fly). Total received file size can vary from as small as 10 KB to over 4 GB. One option for storing the received data is to use a MemoryStream, i.e. a sequence of MemoryStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count) calls to store the received packets. This is very simple, but obviously will result in out of memory exception for large files. An alternative option is to use a FileStream, i.e. FileStream.Write(bufferReceived, 0, count). This way, no out of memory exceptions will occur, but what I'm unsure about is bad performance due to disk writes (which I don't want to occur as long as plenty of memory is still available) - I'd like to avoid disk access as much as possible, but I don't know of a way to control this. I did some testing and most of the time, there seems to be little performance difference between say 10 000 consecutive calls of MemoryStream.Write() vs FileStream.Write(), but a lot seems to depend on buffer size and the total amount of data in question (i.e the number of writes). Obviously, MemoryStream size reallocation is also a factor. Does it make sense to use a combination of MemoryStream and FileStream, i.e. write to memory stream by default, but once the total amount of data received is over e.g. 500 MB, write it to FileStream; then, read in chunks from both streams for processing the received data (first process 500 MB from the MemoryStream, dispose it, then read from FileStream)? Another solution is to use a custom memory stream implementation that doesn't require continuous address space for internal array allocation (i.e. a linked list of memory streams); this way, at least on 64-bit environments, out of memory exceptions should no longer be an issue. Con: extra work, more room for mistakes. So how do FileStream vs MemoryStream read/writes behave in terms of disk access and memory caching, i.e. data size/performance balance. I would expect that as long as enough RAM is available, FileStream would internally read/write from memory (cache) anyway, and virtual memory would take care of the rest. But I don't know how often FileStream will explicitly access a disk when being written to. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS when simply casting a pointer in Obj-C

    - by AlexChilcott
    Hi all, Frequent visitor but first post here on StackOverflow, I'm hoping that you guys might be able to help me out with this. I'm fairly new to Obj-C and XCode, and I'm faced with this really... weird... problem. Googling hasn't turned up anything whatsoever. Basically, I get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal on a line that doesn't do any dereferencing or anything like that that I can see. Wondering if you guys have any idea where to look for this. I've found a work around, but no idea why this works... The line the broken version barfs out on is the line: LevelEntity *le = entity; where I get my bad access signal. Here goes: THIS VERSION WORKS NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (PhysicsContact *contact in contacts) { PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } THIS VERSION DOESNT WORK NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < [contacts count]; i++) { PhysicsContact *contact = [contacts objectAtIndex:i]; PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } Here, the only difference between the two examples is the way I enumerate through my array. In the first version (which works) I use for (... in ...), where as in the second I use for (...; ...; ...). As far as I can see, these should be the same. This is seriously weirding me out. Anyone have any similar experience or idea whats going on here? Would be really great :) Cheers, Alex

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  • How would you structure your entity model for storing arbitrary key/value data with different data t

    - by Nathan Ridley
    I keep coming across scenarios where it will be useful to store a set of arbitrary data in a table using a per-row key/value model, rather than a rigid column/field model. The problem is, I want to store the values with their correct data type rather than converting everything to a string. This means I have to choose either a single table with multiple nullable columns, one for each data type, or a set of value tables, one for each data type. I'm also unsure as to whether I should use full third normal form and separate the keys into a separate table, referencing them via a foreign key from the value table(s), or if it would be better to keep things simple and store the string keys in the value table(s) and accept the duplication of strings. Old/bad: This solution makes adding additional values a pain in a fluid environment because the table needs to be modified regularly. MyTable ============================ ID Key1 Key2 Key3 int int string date ---------------------------- 1 Value1 Value2 Value3 2 Value4 Value5 Value6 Single Table Solution This solution allows simplicity via a single table. The querying code still needs to check for nulls to determine which data type the field is storing. A check constraint is probably also required to ensure only one of the value fields contains non-nulll data. DataValues ============================================================= ID RecordID Key IntValue StringValue DateValue int int string int string date ------------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 NULL NULL 2 1 Key2 NULL Value2 NULL 3 1 Key3 NULL NULL Value3 4 2 Key1 Value4 NULL NULL 5 2 Key2 NULL Value5 NULL 6 2 Key3 NULL NULL Value6 Multiple-Table Solution This solution allows for more concise purposing of each table, though the code needs to know the data type in advance as it needs to query a different table for each data type. Indexing is probably simpler and more efficient because there are less columns that need indexing. IntegerValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string int ------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 2 2 Key1 Value4 StringValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string string ------------------------------- 1 1 Key2 Value2 2 2 Key2 Value5 DateValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string date ------------------------------- 1 1 Key3 Value3 2 2 Key3 Value6 How do you approach this problem? Which solution is better? Also, should the key column be separated into a separate table and referenced via a foreign key or be should it be kept in the value table and bulk updated if for some reason the key name changes?

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  • In R, how do you get the best fitting equation to a set of data?

    - by Matherion
    I'm not sure wether R can do this (I assume it can, but maybe that's just because I tend to assume that R can do anything :-)). What I need is to find the best fitting equation to describe a dataset. For example, if you have these points: df = data.frame(x = c(1, 5, 10, 25, 50, 100), y = c(100, 75, 50, 40, 30, 25)) How do you get the best fitting equation? I know that you can get the best fitting curve with: plot(loess(df$y ~ df$x)) But as I understood you can't extract the equation, see Loess Fit and Resulting Equation. When I try to build it myself (note, I'm not a mathematician, so this is probably not the ideal approach :-)), I end up with smth like: y.predicted = 12.71 + ( 95 / (( (1 + df$x) ^ .5 ) / 1.3)) Which kind of seems to approximate it - but I can't help to think that smth more elegant probably exists :-) I have the feeling that fitting a linear or polynomial model also wouldn't work, because the formula seems different from what those models generally use (i.e. this one seems to need divisions, powers, etc). For example, the approach in Fitting polynomial model to data in R gives pretty bad approximations. I remember from a long time ago that there exist languages (Matlab may be one of them?) that do this kind of stuff. Can R do this as well, or am I just at the wrong place? (Background info: basically, what we need to do is find an equation for determining numbers in the second column based on the numbers in the first column; but we decide the numbers ourselves. We have an idea of how we want the curve to look like, but we can adjust these numbers to an equation if we get a better fit. It's about the pricing for a product (a cheaper alternative to current expensive software for qualitative data analysis); the more 'project credits' you buy, the cheaper it should become. Rather than forcing people to buy a given number (i.e. 5 or 10 or 25), it would be nicer to have a formula so people can buy exactly what they need - but of course this requires a formula. We have an idea for some prices we think are ok, but now we need to translate this into an equation.

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  • Is It possible to use the second part of this code for repository patterns and generics

    - by newToCSharp
    Is there any issues in using version 2,to get the same results as version 1. Or is this just bad coding. Any Ideas public class Customer { public int CustomerID { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } int Age { get; set; } } public interface ICustomer { void AddNewCustomer(Customer Customer); void AddNewCustomer(string EmailAddress, int Age); void RemoveCustomer(Customer Customer); } public class BALCustomer { private readonly ICustomer dalCustomer; public BALCustomer(ICustomer dalCustomer) { this.dalCustomer = dalCustomer; } public void Add_A_New_Customer(Customer Customer) { dalCustomer.AddNewCustomer(Customer); } public void Remove_A_Existing_Customer(Customer Customer) { dalCustomer.RemoveCustomer(Customer); } } public class CustomerDataAccess : ICustomer { public void AddNewCustomer(Customer Customer) { // MAKE DB CONNECTION AND EXECUTE throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void AddNewCustomer(string EmailAddress, int Age) { // MAKE DB CONNECTION AND EXECUTE throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void RemoveCustomer(Customer Customer) { // MAKE DB CONNECTION AND EXECUTE throw new NotImplementedException(); } } // VERSION 2 public class Customer_New : DataRespository<CustomerDataAccess> { public int CustomerID { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } public class DataRespository<T> where T:class,new() { private T item = new T(); public T Execute { get { return item; } set { item = value; } } public void Update() { //TO BE CODED } public void Save() { //TO BE CODED } public void Remove() { //TO BE CODED } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Customer_New cus = new Customer_New() { Age = 10, EmailAddress = "[email protected]" }; cus.Save(); cus.Execute.RemoveCustomer(new Customer()); // Repository Version Customer customer = new Customer() { EmailAddress = "[email protected]", CustomerID = 10 }; BALCustomer bal = new BALCustomer(new CustomerDataAccess()); bal.Add_A_New_Customer(customer); } } }

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  • CodeIgniter Form Validation

    - by mmcglynn
    I am trying to set up validation on a simple contact form that is created using the form helper. No validation at all occurs. What is wrong? In the code below, the “good” keyword always shows, regardless of what is entered into the form, and the saved values set via set_value are never shown. Controller // Contact function contact() { $data['pageTitle'] = "Contact"; $data['bodyId'] = "contact"; $this->load->library('form_validation'); $config_rules = array ('email' => 'required','message' => 'required'); $this->form_validation->set_rules($config_rules); if ($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { echo "bad"; $data['include'] = "v_contact"; $this->load->view('v_template',$data); } else { echo "good"; $data['include'] = "v_contact"; $this->load->view('v_template',$data); } } View echo validation_errors(); echo form_open('events/contact'); // name echo form_label('Name', 'name'); $data = array ( 'name' => 'name', 'id' => 'name', 'maxlength' => '64', 'size' => '40', 'value' => set_value('name') ); echo form_input($data) . "\n<br />"; // email address echo form_label('Email Address', 'email'); $data = array ( 'name' => 'email', 'id' => 'email', 'maxlength' => '64', 'size' => '40', 'value' => set_value('email') ); echo form_input($data) . "\n<br />"; // message echo form_label('Message', 'message'); $data = array ( 'name' => 'message', 'id' => 'message', 'rows' => '8', 'cols' => '35', 'value' => set_value('message') ); echo form_textarea($data) . "\n<br />"; echo form_submit('mysubmit', 'Send Message'); echo form_close();

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  • Send multidimensional array to php with jQuery

    - by robertdd
    hy, i have a little, big problem here :) after i upload some images i get a list with all the images. I have some jQuery function for rotate, duplicate, delete, shuffle images! when i select a image and hit delete i send a post to php with the alt="" value of the image,i identify the picture and edit. I want to make a save button, Instead of sending a post every time i rotate a image, better send a post after editing the list of images with an array that contains all data? my php array after upload looks like this: [files] => Array ( [lcxkijgr] => lcxkijgr.jpg [xcewxpfv] => xcewxpfv.jpg [rtiurwxf] => rtiurwxf.jpg [gsbxdsdc] => gsbxdsdc.jpg ) say that I uploaded 4 pictures, firs picture i rotate 90 degrees second i want to duplicate third i rotate 270 degrees and the fourth image i delete i can do all this only with jQuery, but on the server the images are the same, after a refresh the images are the same this is the list with the images: <div class="upimage"> <ul id="upimagesQueue"> <li id="upimagesHPVEJM"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesHPVEJM').showlargeimage('HPVEJM')"> <img alt="lcxkijgr" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/lcxkijgr.jpg?1272087830477" id="HPVEJM" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesSTCSAV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesSTCSAV').showlargeimage('STCSAV')"> <img alt="xcewxpfv" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/xcewxpfv.jpg?1272087831360" id="STCSAV" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesBFPUEQ"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesBFPUEQ').showlargeimage('BFPUEQ')"> <img alt="rtiurwxf" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/rtiurwxf.jpg?1272087832162" id="BFPUEQ" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesRKXNSV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesRKXNSV').showlargeimage('RKXNSV')"> <img alt="gsbxdsdc" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/gsbxdsdc.jpg?1272087832957" id="RKXNSV" style="display: block;"> </a> </li> <ul> </div> is ok if i make one array like this: array{ imgFromLi = array(img1,img2,img3,img4,img5,img6) rotate = array{img1=90, img2=270, img3=90} delete = array{img4,img5,img6} duplicate = array{img2, img3} } how i can make/send/cache this array?? sorry for my very bad english

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  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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  • How can I append and execute a script inside an iframe in a cross browser way (specifically IE!)?

    - by agmin
    Background: I need to load ad scripts after the DOM has loaded. Because many of the scripts use document.write() and other potentially bad functions to run after the DOM has loaded, I want to load the scripts inside an iframe. So when the ad needs to be shown, an event is triggered which does the following: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); iframe.setAttribute('id', 'iframeId'); iframe.setAttribute('src', 'about:blank'); var adContainer = document.getElementById('AdContainer'); adContainer.appendChild(iframe); var val = '<html><head></head><body>'; val += '<scr' + 'ipt type="text/javascript" src="' + url + '"></scr' + 'ipt>'; val += '</body></html>'; If I don't assign the html and body tags to val, the script automatically gets appended to the head of the iframe and fails to execute in FF. In IE, the script doesn't execute with or without the head/body/html tags. var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document){ doc = doc.document } doc.open(); doc.write(val); doc.close(); I found this last bit of code here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1591135/why-does-appending-a-script-to-a-dynamically-created-iframe-seem-to-run-the-s. I do NOT want to load jquery in the iframe though, I just want to append a script and have it execute. My current solution seems to work great in FF and Webkit. However, IE doesn't execute the script. The script is written to the page, but doesn't start running. Is there a better way to append the script to the iframe so it will run cross browser? Or is it possible to tell IE to run the script? I know that I could load an external document with the ad script via the iframe, but I don't want to make the extra call to my server if I can do this dynamically. Also, I've tried using appendChild() on the iframe's body to insert the script, but since the script element is created outside the iframe's DOM this doesn't seem to work.

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  • Sending string to wcf service using jquery ajax. why can i only send strings of numbers?

    - by Robodude
    Hi Guys, For some reason, I'm only able to pass strings containing numbers to my web service when using jquery ajax. This hasn't been an issue so far because I was always just passing IDs to my wcf service. But I'm trying to do something more complex now but I can't figure it out. In my interface: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json); My webservice: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json) { DataTableOutput x = new DataTableOutput(); x.iTotalDisplayRecords = 9; x.iTotalRecords = 50; x.sColumns = "1"; x.sEcho = "1"; x.aaData = null; return x; } Javascript/Jquery: var x = "1"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: "Services/Service1.svc/GetDataTableOutput", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: x, dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); The above code WORKS perfectly. But when I change x to "t" or even to "{'test':'test'}" I get a Error 400 Bad Request error in Firebug. Thanks, John EDIT: Making some progress! data: JSON.stringify("{'test':'test'}"), Sends the string to my function! EDIT2: var jsonAOData = JSON.stringify(aoData); $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: "{'Input':" + jsonAOData + "}", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); EDIT3: I modified the code block I put in EDIT2 up above. Swapping the " and ' did the trick! $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: '{"Input":' + jsonAOData + '}', dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); However, I have a new problem: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(DataTableInputOverview Input) { The input here is completely null. The values I passed from jsonAOData didn't get assigned to the DataTableInputOverview Input variable. :(

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  • What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

    - by fandingo
    I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

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  • Inheritance of jQuery's prototype partially fails

    - by user1065745
    I want to use Coffeescript to create an UIObject class. This class should inherit from jQuery, so that instances of UIObject can be used as if they where created with jQuery. class UIObject isObject: (val) -> typeof val is "object" constructor: (tag, attributes) -> @merge jQuery(tag, attributes), this @UIObjectProperties = {} merge: (source, destination) -> for key of source if destination[key] is undefined destination[key] = source[key] else if @isObject(source[key]) @merge(source[key], destination[key]) return It partially works. Consider the Foobar class below: class Foobar extends UIObject constructor: -> super("<h1/>", html: "Foobar") $("body").append(new Foobar) works fine. BUT: (new Foobar).appendTo("body") places the tag, but also raises RangeError: Maximum call stack size exceeded. Was it just a bad idea to inherit from jQuery? Or is there a solurion? For those who don't know CoffeeScript, the JavaScript source is: var Foobar, UIObject; var __hasProp = Object.prototype.hasOwnProperty, __extends = function(child, parent) { for (var key in parent) { if (__hasProp.call(parent, key)) child[key] = parent[key]; } function ctor() { this.constructor = child; } ctor.prototype = parent.prototype; child.prototype = new ctor; child.__super__ = parent.prototype; return child; }; UIObject = (function () { UIObject.prototype.isObject = function (val) { return typeof val === "object"; }; function UIObject(tag, attributes) { this.merge(jQuery(tag, attributes), this); this.UIObjectProperties = {}; } UIObject.prototype.merge = function (source, destination) { var key; for (key in source) { if (destination[key] === void 0) { destination[key] = source[key]; } else if (this.isObject(source[key])) { this.merge(source[key], destination[key]); } } }; return UIObject; })(); Foobar = (function () { __extends(Foobar, UIObject); function Foobar() { Foobar.__super__.constructor.call(this, "<h1/>", { html: "Foobar" }); } return Foobar; })();

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  • How can I force the server socket to re-accept a request from a client?

    - by Roman
    For those who does not want to read a long question here is a short version: A server has an opened socket for a client. The server gets a request to open a socket from the same client-IP and client-port. I want to fore the server not to refuse such a request but to close the old socket and open a new one. How can I do ti? And here is a long (original) question: I have the following situation. There is an established connection between a server and client. Then an external software (Bonjour) says to my client the it does not see the server in the local network. Well, client does nothing about that because of the following reasons: If Bonjour does not see the server it does not necessarily means that client cannot see the server. Even if the client trusts the Bonjour and close the socket it does not improve the situation ("to have no open socket" is worser that "to have a potentially bad socket"). So, client do nothing if server becomes invisible to Bonjour. But than the server re-appears in the Bonjour and Bonjour notify the client about that. In this situation the following situations are possible: The server reappears on a new IP address. So, the client needs to open a new socket to be able to communicate with the server. The server reappears on the old IP address. In this case we have two subcases: 2.1. The server was restarted (switched off and then switched on). So, it does not remember the old socket (which is still used by the client). So, client needs to close the old socket and open a new one (on the same server-IP address and the same server-port). 2.2. We had a temporal network problem and the server was running the whole time. So, the old socket is still available for the use. In this case the client does not really need to close the old socket and reopen a new one. But to simplify my life I decide to close and reopen the socket on the client side in any case (in spite on the fact that it is not really needed in the last described situation). But I can have problems with that solution. If I close the socket on the client side and than try to reopen a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, server will not accept the call for a new socket. The server will think that such a socket already exists. Can I write the server in such a way, that it does not refuse such calls. For example, if it (the server) sees that a client send a request for a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, it (server) close the available socket, associated with this client-IP and client-port and than it reopens a new socket.

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  • What is the most idiomatic way to emulating Perl's Test::More::done_testing?

    - by DVK
    I have to build unit tests for in environment with a very old version of Test::More (perl5.8 with $Test::More::VERSION being '0.80') which predates the addition of done_testing(). Upgrading to newer Test::More is out of the question for practical reasons. And I am trying to avoid using no_tests - it's generally a bad idea not catching when your unit test exits prematurely - say due to some logic not executing when you expected it to. What is the most idiomatic way of running a configurable amount of tests, assuming no no_tests or done_testing() is used? Details: My unit tests usually take the form of: use Test::More; my @test_set = ( [ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] ,[ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] # ,... ); foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } sub run_test { # $expected_tests += count_tests($test); ok(test1($test)) || diag("Test1 failed"); # ... } The standard approach of use Test::More tests => 23; or BEGIN {plan tests => 23} does not work since both are obviously executed before @tests is known. My current approach involves making @tests global and defining it in the BEGIN {} block as follows: use Test::More; BEGIN { our @test_set = (); # Same set of tests as above my $expected_tests = 0; foreach my $test (@tests) { my $expected_tests += count_tests($test); } plan tests = $expected_tests; } our @test_set; # Must do!!! Since first "our" was in BEGIN's scope :( foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } # Same sub run_test {} # Same I feel this can be done more idiomatically but not certain how to improve. Chief among the smells is the duplicate our @test_test declarations - in BEGIN{} and after it. Another approach is to emulate done_testing() by calling Test::More->builder->plan(tests=>$total_tests_calculated). I'm not sure if it's any better idiomatically-wise.

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