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  • How can I add two models in one form, where one model is a has_many :through?

    - by Angela
    How do I model having multiple Addresses for a Company and assign a single Address to a Contact? Contacts belong_to a Company. A Company has_many Contacts. A Company also has_many Addresses. And each Contact has_one Address. I want to be able, whenever I create a New Contact, to access all the addresses in all Contacts that belong to the Company. Here is are my Models: class Company < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :phone, :addresses has_many :contacts has_many :addresses, :through => :contacts end class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :first_name, :last_name, :title, :phone, :fax, :email, :company, :date_entered, :campaign_id, :company_name, :address belongs_to :company has_one :address accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :street1 has_many :contacts end How do I create the View in the _form for Contacts so that I can 1) Add an Address when creating a Contact; 2) Display the options of the Address. Here is how I am doing step 1, which is just to add a new address for a new contact: <% f.fields_for :addresses do |builder| %> <p> <%= builder.label :street1, "Street 1" %> </br> <%= builder.text_field :street1 %> <p> Right now, what I have doesn't work. The console says I cannot mass-assign addresses when I hit "submit" on this New contact form.

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  • Building a J2EE dev/test setup on a single PC

    - by John
    It's been a while since I did Java work, and even then I was never responsible for starting a large project from the very start... there were test/staging/production systems already running, etc, etc. Now I am looking to start a J2EE project from scratch on my trusty workstation, which has never been used for Java development and runs Windows 7 64bit. First of all, I'll be getting Eclipse. As far as writing the code goes I'm pretty happy. And running it through Eclipse is OK, but what I'd really want is to have a VM running MySQL and TomCat on which I can properly deploy my project and run/debug it 'remotely' from my dev PC. And I guess this should be done using Ant instead of letting Eclipse build the WAR for me, so that I don't end up with a dependence on Eclipse. I'm certain Eclipse can do this, so you hit a button and it runs Ant scripts, deploys and debugs for instance, but very hazy on it. Are there any good guides on this? I don't want to be taught Java, or even Ant, but rather the 'glue' parts like getting my test VM up and running under Windows, getting a build/test/deploy/run pipeline running through Eclipse, etc. One point, I only plan to use Windows... hosting a Windows VM on my Windwos desktop. And while I can use command-line tools like ant/svn, I'm much more a GUI person who loves IDE integration... I'd rather this didn't end up an argument about Linux or Vi, etc! I am looking for free, but am a MAPS subscriber, and run Win7 Ultimate in case that makes a difference as far as free VM solutions.

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  • Design for fastest page download

    - by mexxican
    I have a file with millions of URLs/IPs and have to write a program to download the pages really fast. The connection rate should be at least 6000/s and file download speed at least 2000 with avg. 15kb file size. The network bandwidth is 1 Gbps. My approach so far has been: Creating 600 socket threads with each having 60 sockets and using WSAEventSelect to wait for data to read. As soon as a file download is complete, add that memory address(of the downloaded file) to a pipeline( a simple vector ) and fire another request. When the total download is more than 50Mb among all socket threads, write all the files downloaded to the disk and free the memory. So far, this approach has been not very successful with the rate at which I could hit not shooting beyond 2900 connections/s and downloaded data rate even less. Can somebody suggest an alternative approach which could give me better stats. Also I am working windows server 2008 machine with 8 Gig of memory. Also, do we need to hack the kernel so as we could use more threads and memory. Currently I can create a max. of 1500 threads and memory usage not going beyond 2 gigs [ which technically should be much more as this is a 64-bit machine ]. And IOCP is out of question as I have no experience in that so far and have to fix this application today. Thanks Guys!

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  • Dom Traversal to Automate Keyboard Focus - Spatial Navigation

    - by Steve
    I'm going to start with a little background that will hopefully help my question make more sense. I am developing an application for a television. The concept is simple and basically works by overlaying a browser over the video plane of the TV. Now being a TV, there is no mouse or additional pointing device. All interaction is done through a remote control. Therefore, the user needs to be able to visually tell which element they are currently focused upon. To indicate that an element is focused, I currently append a colored transparent image over the element to indicate focus. Now, when a user hits the arrow keys, I need to respond by focusing on the correct elements according to the key pressed. So, if the down arrow is pressed I need to focus on the next focusable element in the DOM tree (which may be a child or sibling), and if they hit the up arrow, I need to respond to the previous element. This would essentially simulate spatial navigation within a browser. I am currently setting an attribute (focusable=true) on any DOM elements that should be able to receive focus. What I would like to do is determine the previous or next focusable element (i.e. attribute focusable=true) and apply focus to the element. I was hoping to traverse the DOM tree to determine the next and previously focusable elements, but I am not sure how to perform this in JQuery, or in general. I was leaning towards trying to use the JQuery tree travesal methods like next(), prev(), etc. What approach would you take to solve this type of issue? Thanks

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  • Asynchronous javascript issue

    - by amit
    I am trying to create a function which takes values from various html elements of the page to create a string and pass on to a variable. now this works great for all browsers except IE 8 and 9. IE tends to skip the part of fetching the values and goes straight to the variable and finds nothing.. is there a way to sync it all so that it works in IE? function seturl() { var qstring = returnQString(); $('span.keyword').text($.trim($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value'))); $('input.search_box').attr('value', $.trim($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value'))); $('#hdnSearchKeyword').attr('value', $.trim($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value'))); $(".search_box").val($.trim($("#hdn_span_hdnKeyWord").text())); $(".header_inner input[type='text']").focus(); $(".search_term input[type='text']").focus(); $('#locationurl').attr('value', qstring); } function returnQString(){ var qstring = $.trim($('#locationurl').attr('init')); //initial value of the url qstring += "?type=" + $('#hdnSTSearch').attr('value'); // type of handler hit qstring += "&keyword=" + encodeURIComponent($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value')); // keyword addition qstring += "&pagestart=" + $('#current_page').attr('value'); // pagestart(current page) addition qstring += "&pagesize=" + $('#show_per_page').attr('value'); // per page size addition qstring += "&facets=" // facetsearch $.each(selectedFilter.items, function (index, value) { qstring += value.filter + ","; }); qstring += "&selectedSection=" + selectedSection // Section Select return qstring; }

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  • Where do I control the behavior of the "X" close button in the upper right of a winform?

    - by John at CashCommons
    I'm venturing into making my VB.NET application a little better to use by making some of the forms modeless. I think I've figured out how to use dlg.Show() and dlg.Hide() instead of calling dlg.ShowDialog(). I have an instance of my modeless dialog in my main application form: Public theModelessDialog As New dlgModeless To fire up the modeless dialog I call theModelessDialog.Show() and within the OK and Cancel button handlers in dlgModeless I have Private Sub OK_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles OK_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK Me.Hide() End Sub Private Sub Cancel_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Cancel_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.Cancel Me.Hide() End Sub and that seems to work fine. The "X" button in the upper right is getting me, though. When I close the form with that button, then try to reopen the form, I get ObjectDisposedException was unhandled. Cannot access a disposed object. I feel like I'm most of the way there but I can't figure out how to do either of the following: Hide that "X" button Catch the event so I don't dispose of the object (just treat it like I hit Cancel) Any ideas? The class of this dialog is System.Windows.Forms.Form. Thanks as always!

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  • Detectig by how much user has scrolled

    - by Sean
    I have an image pop-up ability on my website (see this screenshot), in order to show users the full resolution picture when they click on a smaller version on the page. This is the current CSS that positions it: div#enlargedImgWrapper { position: absolute; top: 30px; left: 55px; z-index: 999; } The problem now is that if I click on an image further down the page, the window still appears in the top left corner of the page, where I can't see it until I scroll back up. I need it to appear relative to the window, whatever its current position relative to the document is. Note: I don't want to use position: fixed; as some images might be taller than the screen, so I want users to be able to scroll along the image as well. My idea was to use JS to change the top value: var scrollValue = ???; document.getElementById('enlargedImgWrapper').style.top = scrollValue+30 + 'px'; How can I detect by how much the user has scrolled down the page (var scrollValue)? Or is there a 'better' way to do this? Thanks!

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  • Are workflows good for web service business logic?

    - by JL
    I have a series of complex web services that are getting used in my SOA application. I am generally happy with the overall design of the application, but as the complexity grows, I was wondering if Windows Workflow might be the way to go. My motivations for this are that you can get a graphic representation of the applications functionality, so it would be easier to maintain the code by its business function, rather than what I have now ( a standard 3 tier class library structure). My concerns are: I would be inducing an abstraction in my code, and I don't want to spend time having to deal with possible WF quirks or bugs. I've never worked with WF, is it a solid technology? I don't want to hit any WF limitations that prevent me from developing my solution. Is a WF even the right solution for the task? Simply put I am considering writing my next web service in this app to call a WF, and in this work flow manage the tasks the web service needs to carry out. I think it will be much neater and easier to maintain than a regular c# class library (maintainable by namespaces, classes ). Do you think this is the right thing to do? I'm hoping for positive feedback on WF (.net 4), but brutal honestly at the end of the day would help more. Thanks

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  • Is there any PDF parser written in objective-c or c?

    - by user549683
    I'm writing a pdf reader iPhone application. I know how to show pdf file in view using CGPDF** classes in iOS. What I want to do now is to search text in pdf file, and highlight the searched text. So, I need a library which can detect what text is in what position. Besides, I want the library able to handle unicode and Chinese characters. I've searched for a few days but still cannot find anything suitable. I've tried xpdf, but it is written in c++. I don't know how to use c++ code in iPhone app. I've also tried http://www.codeproject.com/KB/cpp/ExtractPDFText.aspx but it does not handle Chinese characters. I've tried to code by myself, but the encoding in PDF is really complicated. For example, I don't know what to refer to when I want to decode the text by the following font: 8 0 obj << /Type /Font /Subtype /Type0 /Encoding /Identity-H /BaseFont /RNXJTV+PMingLiU /DescendantFonts [ 157 0 R ] >> endobj 157 0 obj << /Type /Font /Subtype /CIDFontType2 /BaseFont /RNXJTV+PMingLiU /CIDSystemInfo << /Registry (Adobe) /Ordering (CNS1) /Supplement 0 >> /FontDescriptor 158 0 R /W 161 0 R /DW 1000 /CIDToGIDMap 162 0 R >> endobj 158 0 obj << /Type /FontDescriptor /Ascent 801 /CapHeight 711 /Descent -199 /Flags 32 /FontBBox [0 -199 999 801] /FontName /RNXJTV+PMingLiU /ItalicAngle 0 /StemV 0 /Leading 199 /MaxWidth 1000 /XHeight 533 /FontFile2 159 0 R >> endobj

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  • What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

    - by Joe
    I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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  • On counting pairs of words that differ by one letter

    - by Quintofron
    Let us consider n words, each of length k. Those words consist of letters over an alphabet (whose cardinality is n) with defined order. The task is to derive an O(nk) algorithm to count the number of pairs of words that differ by one position (no matter which one exactly, as long as it's only a single position). For instance, in the following set of words (n = 5, k = 4): abcd, abdd, adcb, adcd, aecd there are 5 such pairs: (abcd, abdd), (abcd, adcd), (abcd, aecd), (adcb, adcd), (adcd, aecd). So far I've managed to find an algorithm that solves a slightly easier problem: counting the number of pairs of words that differ by one GIVEN position (i-th). In order to do this I swap the letter at the ith position with the last letter within each word, perform a Radix sort (ignoring the last position in each word - formerly the ith position), linearly detect words whose letters at the first 1 to k-1 positions are the same, eventually count the number of occurrences of each letter at the last (originally ith) position within each set of duplicates and calculate the desired pairs (the last part is simple). However, the algorithm above doesn't seem to be applicable to the main problem (under the O(nk) constraint) - at least not without some modifications. Any idea how to solve this?

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  • Calculating collission for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

    - by Robert Vella
    Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmitically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collission problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

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  • Navigating the timeline

    - by Dean 'Deacon' Beard
    O.K, being a little new to this, I have hit a brick wall, I'm using AS3 in Flash CS5. All I want to do is have a tweened animation which stops at a frame and which has a clickable button to access another part of the maintime line. Also there will be a button on the animation to skip it. How does one set this up? Obviously you need a stop(); at the stop frame of the time line and an event listener and function for both buttons right? Any more help besides that. I have it set up like this; totalSlides:Number = 60; currentSlideNumber:Number = 1; skipbutton.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK,skipbuttonPress); function skipbuttonPress(evt:MouseEvent):void{ currentframelabel = currentframelabel+1; if(currentSlideNumber>=0){ currentframelabel = introstop; } framelabel.gotoAndStop(introstop); } and the frame it stops on is set up as follows stop(); totalSlides:Number = 60; currentSlideNumber:Number = 5; click01.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK,click01Press); function click01Press( evt : MouseEvent ) : void { currentSlideNumber = currentSlideNumber+1; if (currentSlideNumber >= 0) { currentSlideNumber = 25; } framelabel.gotoAndStop(mainpage); } As I need this for a project, any help would be greatly valued. Many Thanks

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  • Elements of a Java Object Array are created but without correct names

    - by Greenhouse Gases
    Hi all Im having rather an annoying problem. I have a class called Person and a class called Event which serve to create objects to be used for competitors that compete in a certain event. When I add a competitor thats fine and the GUI list updates accordingly, however when I add an event the element in the array does not take on the value of the instance variable name in the class Event and so the GUI does not show the event name, though it is being added in the array correctly. How can I make it so that the event object in each element of the listOfEvents array (which is an array of event objects) has the name of the event. I should add this is for university though this isnt the part for which we will be assessed, it is somethign i have come across and due to not being able to see the code for the GUI, I've hit the proverbial brick wall. I wont include the whole load of code Ive been writing but hopefully my description and snippets below will suffice. Any advice I would appreciate greatly. No doubt I have overlooked something simple! Many thanks. listOfEvents is declared as: Event[] listOfEvents = new Event[20]; A snippet from the Event class: public class Event { String name; Person[] participants = new Person[10]; // array of competitors for the event public Event(String name) { this.name = name; } } and its use in the addEvent method (p is a global variable): public void addEvent(String eventName) { listOfEvents[p] = new Event(eventName); p++; }

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  • Complicated API issue with calling assemblies dynamically?

    - by Stefanos Tses
    I have an interesting challenge that I'm wondering if anyone here can give me some direction. I'm writing a .Net windows forms application that runs on a network and uses an SQL Server to save and pull data. I want to offer a mini "plugin" API, where developers can build their own assemblies and implement a specific interface (IDataManipulate). These assemblies then can be used by my application to call the interface functions and do something. I can create assemblies using my API, copy the file to a folder in my local hard drive and configure my application to use Reflection to call a specific function from the implemented interface (IDataManipulate.Execute). The problem: Since the application will be installed in multiple workstations in the network, is impossible to copy the plugin dlls the users will create to each machine. Solutions I tried: Solution 1 Copy the API dll to a network share. Problem: Requires AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, which requires .Net singing, which I can't force from my users. Solution 2 (preferred) Serialize the dll object, save it to the database, deserialize it and call IDataManipulate.Execute. Problem: After deserialization, I try cast it to a IDataManipulate object but returns an error looking for the actual dll file. Solution 3 Save the dll bytes as byte[] to the database and recreate the dll at the local PC every time the user starts my application. Problem: Dll may have dependencies, which I don't know if I can detect. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • How do I change the application background color at run-time in a Flex 3.5 application?

    - by Adam Tuttle
    I have a Flex 3.5 application that will serve multiple purposes, and as part of the visual changes that I'd like to make to indicate which mode the application is in, I want to change its background color. Currently, the application tag looks like this: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns:com="ventures.view.component.*" xmlns:views="ventures.view.*" layout="absolute" preinitialize="onPreInitialize()" creationComplete="onCreationComplete()" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete()" click="onClick(event)" enabled="{(!chainController.generalLocked)}" backgroundGradientColors="[0xFFFFFF, 0xFFFFFF]" > I've tried using a binding, for both the backgroundColor and backgroundGradientColors attributes: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundColor="{app_background_color}" > —and— <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundGradientColors="{app_background_color}" > but for the former binding is not allowed, and for the latter there is a warning that: Data binding will not be able to detect assignments to "app_background_color". I also ran across this page which seems to indicate that I could do it with the setStyle() method, but the documentation seems to indicate that this method is only available for components, not the main canvas. I suppose I could wrap everything in a <mx:Canvas></mx:Canvas> specificially for this purpose, but that seems wasteful—like Div-itis in HTML or something. What's the best way to change the main application background color at run-time?

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  • Getting values from another winform and passing it to current!

    - by klm9971
    Hello: I have 2 windows forms. The 1st one who gets active during start of the program has a button in which another 2nd windows form appears which has text field in which user type their name and HIT okay. Now in the 1st form I have a variable name: nameproccessed which takes the name from the second form. But the problem is my button which is in the 1st form has more functions besides taking name, how can I stop the flow of the compiler to take first the name from the second form and then process the rest execution of the function??? Here is the snippet of my code: //1st form //Class1 public string _nameProcessed = ""; private void btnGetSomething_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { showdial(); //some more functionalities in this function!!! } private void showdial() { InputName inm = new InputName(); inm.Show(); } //2nd form //Class2 public string name; private void btnEnterName_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { name = tbxName.Text; Class1 ict = new Class1(); ict._nameProcessed = name; this.Close(); } Now I want to take the 'name' from the second form put it on the _nameprocessed in the 1st form and then execute the rest of the function. How can I do that? Any help!

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  • Why does my plist file exist even when I've uninstalled an app and wiped the simulator?

    - by just_another_coder
    I am trying to detect the existence of a plist file on application start. When my data class (descendant of NSObject) is initialized, it loads the plist file. Before it loads, it checks to see if the file exists, and if it doesn't, it sets the data = nil instead of trying to process the array of data in the plist file. However, every time it starts it indicates the file exists. Even when I uninstall the app in the organizer and when wiping the simulator directory (iPhone Simulator/3.0/Applications). I have the following static method in a library class named FileIO: +(BOOL) fileExists:(NSString *)fileName { NSString *path = [FileIO getPath:fileName]; // gets the path to the docs directory if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:path]) return YES; else return NO; } In my data class: //if( [FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename] ) [FileIO deleteFile:kFavorites_Filename]; if ([FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename]) {NSLog(@"exists"); The "exists" is logged every time unless I un-comment the method to delete the file. How can the file exist if I've deleted the app? I've deleted the simulator directory and uninstalled on the device but both say it still exists. What gives???

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  • What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

    - by priehl
    I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • Can I create an activity for a particular task without that task coming to the foreground?

    - by Neil Traft
    Here's my use case: The app starts at a login screen. You enter your credentials and hit the "Login" button. Then a progress dialog appears and you wait for some stuff to download. Once the stuff has downloaded, you are taken to a new activity. Exactly which activity you are taken to depends on the server response. Here's my problem: If you go HOME during this login/download process, at some point in the near future your download will complete and will invoke startActivity(). So then the new activity will be pushed to the foreground, rudely interrupting the user. I can't start the activity before I start the download, because, as I mentioned earlier, the activity I start depends on the result of the download. I would obviously not like to interrupt the user like this. One way to solve this is to refrain from calling startActivity() until the user returns to the app. I can do this by keeping track of the LoginActivity's onStop() and onRestart(). But I'm wondering, is there any way to create the activity while it is in the background? That way the user returns to the app and he is ready to go... otherwise he would have to wait for the new activity to be created (which could take some time because the new activity also has to download and display some data). Update: Guess what? I LIED! I could have sworn that starting this activity was causing it to come to the foreground, but I went back to test it again and the problem has magically disappeared. I tested in both 1.6 and 2.0.1 and both OSes were smart enough not to bring a backgrounded task to the front.

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  • Invalid table view update with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:

    - by Crystal
    I'm having trouble with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:. I'm not quite sure how it works. I watched the WWDC 2010 video on it, but I'm still getting an error. I thought I was supposed to update the model, then wrap the insertRowsAtIndexPaths: in the tableView beginUpdates and endUpdates calls. What I have is this: self.customTableArray = (NSMutableArray *)sortedArray; [_customTableView beginUpdates]; [tempUnsortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id obj, NSUInteger idx, BOOL *stop) { [sortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id sortedObj, NSUInteger sortedIdx, BOOL *sortedStop) { if ([obj isEqualToString:sortedObj]) { NSIndexPath *newRow = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:sortedIdx inSection:0]; [_customTableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newRow] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationAutomatic]; *sortedStop = YES; } }]; }]; [_customTableView endUpdates]; customTableArray is my model array. sortedArray is just the sorted version of that array. When I run this code when I hit my plus button to add a new row, I get this error: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (2) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (2 inserted, 0 deleted) and plus or minus the number of rows moved into or out of that section (0 moved in, 0 moved out).' I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Thoughts? Thanks.

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  • Rails RESTful routs without #new, rspec trouble

    - by pdkl95
    I'm currently writing a Rails app, and hit a somewhat strange quirk. I have a controller PermissionsController, which is mainly for display purposes at the moment. So my routing is locked down: map.resources :permissions, :only => [:index, :show] Unfortunately, when writing the tests, one of the routing tests fails: it "does not recognize #new" do { :get => "/permissions/new" }.should_not be_routable end with the error: Expected 'GET /permissions/new' to fail, but it routed to {"action"=>"show", "id"=>"new", "controller"=>"permissions"} instead Obviously, the #show action's route is matching with /permissions/:id, which also gives the expected error Couldn't find Permission with ID=new if you actually browse to that URL. This is not a serious error, as it is correctly raising an exception with the bad :id parameter, but it's kind of ugly. Is there any way to actually make Rails reject that route? Some trick in the routing options that I'm missing? I suppose I should just leave that test out and ignore it, or maybe remove the whole RESTful idea altogether and go back to a simpler map.connect 'permissions/:id' style. I strongly suspect I'll be expanding this in the future, though, and kind of wanted to keep my controllers consistent with each other. Just having to add occasional :only or :except rules made routes.rb nice and clean...

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  • Android designing an app to keep me logged into a wifi access point

    - by MrGibbage
    At the gym where I work out, they have an open wifi access point. The way it is set up, once you "connect", you have to navigate to a web page (it is a 1.1.X.X ip address) and click the "I agree" button, after presumably reading the user agreement. The problem is, they have it set up to log you out once an hour, which always happens in the middle of my workout. I have the SSID remembered, so it connects automatically when I come in range, but I get an android notification that further action is needed to fully connect. What I was wondering is if there a work around so that I don't have to click-through every hour? I was thinking of writing an app that could detect when I was in range, or when "half-connected", and then have it somehow complete the registration process. Perhaps this will have to be done by loading the web page in memory and then somehow clicking the "I agree" button. What I would like help with is: 1) what is the terminology involved here? What state is the connection in when I am connected, but I haven't clicked through? What other connection states may apply? If I knew that, I might just be able to research this and come up with a solution. Are these different states "detectable"? It seems like it is since I get a notification that I need to complete the registration process when I am "half-connected". 2) I know there are plugins for desktop browsers that can click buttons (like the keepass plugins, which will log you into a site). How could I replicate this in Android? Ideally I would like to do it internally, in memory, rather than firing up a browser. Possible? Comments? Is my understanding and thought process sound here, or am I overlooking something?

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  • Beginner MVC question - Correct approach to render out a List and details?

    - by fizzer
    I'm trying to set up a page where I display a list of items and the details of the selected item. I have it working but wonder whether I have followed the correct approach. I'll use customers as an example I have set the aspx page to inherit from an IEnumerable of Customers. This seems to be the standard approach to display the list of items. For the Details I have added a Customer user control which inherits from customer. I think i'm on the right track so far but I was a bit confused as to where I should store the id of the customer whose details I intend to display. I wanted to make the id optional in the controller action so that the page could be hit using "/customers" or "customers/1" so I made the arg optional and stored the id in the ViewData like this: public ActionResult Customers(string id = "0") { Models.DBContext db = new Models.DBContext(); var cList = db.Customers.OrderByDescending(c => c.CustomerNumber); if (id == "0") { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = cList.First().CustomerNumber.ToString(); } else { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = id; } return View("Customers", cList); } I then rendered the User control using RenderPartial in the front end: <%var CustomerList = from x in Model where x.CustomerNumber == Convert.ToInt32(ViewData["CustomerNumber"]) select x; Customer c = (Customer)CustomerList.First(); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Customer",c); %> Then I just have an actionLink on each listed item: <%: Html.ActionLink("Select", "Customers", new { id = item.CustomerNumber })% It all seems to work but as MVC is new to me I would just be interested in others thoughts on whether this is a good approach?

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  • wordpress add post validation

    - by dskanth
    This is embarrassing, but yet i am surprised to see that there is no validation by default while adding a new post in wordpress. When i don't enter a title and even content, and just hit Publish, it says that the post is published, and when i view the front end, there is no new post. How could wordpress skip the simple validation for adding a post? Atleast i expected a server side validation (if not client side). Don't know why the validation is skipped. It is upto wordpress, whether they incorporate it in the new versions. But i want to know how can i add a javascript (or jquery) validation for adding a post in wordpress. I know it must not at all be difficult. But being new to wordpress, i would like to get some hint. From Firebug, i could see the form is rendering like: <form id="post" method="post" action="post.php" name="post"> ... </form> Where shall i put my javascript validation code?

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