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• Intercept creation of activities when the application is restored

  - by Johan Bilien

  Most of our activities access a user-specific model. All these activities inherit from a ModelActivity base class, which provides a getModel() call. When one of these activities detect that the user has signed out (through the AccountManager callback), it sticks to its existing model, but prepares to exit back to the root activity (which is not user-specific) by starting its intent with FLAG_ACTIVITY_CLEAR_TOP. If however the user deletes an account while the app is not running, we run into trouble when the activity is restored. Now the activity needs to handle there not being a model, which makes the code more complicated and bug-prone. Ideally we would intercept the application restore process before the activity is created. Then we would check whether we have an account and a model, and if not clear up the saved stack of activities, and restart from our root activity instead of the last saved activity. But as far as I can tell the first place where we can run code is in the onCreate callback of the activity. Is there a way to run some code when the application is restored from background-saving, but before the saved activity is created?

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• Changing direction of rotation Pygame

  - by czl

  How would you change the direction of a rotating image/rect in Pygame? Applying positive and negative degree values works but it seems to only be able to rotate one direction throughout my window. Is there a way to ensure a change in direction of rotation? Perhaps change up rotation of a spinning image every 5 seconds, or if able to change the direction of the spin when hitting a X or Y axis. I've added some code below. It seems like switching movement directions is easy with rect.move_ip as long as I specify a speed and have location clause, it does what I want. Unfortunately rotation is't like that. Here I'l adding angles to make sure it spins, but no matter what I try, I'm unable to negate the rotation. def rotate_image(self): #rotate image orig_rect = self.image.get_rect() rot_image = pygame.transform.rotate(self.image, self.angle) rot_rect = orig_rect.copy() rot_rect.center = rot_image.get_rect().center rot_image = rot_image.subsurface(rot_rect).copy() return rot_image def render(self): self.screen.fill(self.bg_color) self.rect.move_ip(0,5) #Y axis movement at 5 px per frame self.angle += 5 #add 5 anglewhen the rect has not hit one of the window self.angle %= 360 if self.rect.left < 0 or self.rect.right > self.width: self.speed[0] = -self.speed[0] self.angle = -self.angle #tried to invert the angle self.angle -= 5 #trying to negate the angle rotation self.angle %= 360 self.screen.blit(self.rotate_image(),self.rect) pygame.display.flip() I would really like to know how to invert rotation of a image. You may provide your own examples.

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• How do I pass a value to a method in Objective C

  - by user268124

  I'm new to Obj-C and I have run in to a very, very basic mental block that's making me feel a little stupid. I want to pass a variable from one method to another in an purely objective-C way. So far I'm stuck and have resorted to writing it in C. In C it goes as follows; //detect the change in the segmented switch so we can; change text - (IBAction)switchChanged:(id)sender { NSLog(@"Switch change detected"); //grab the info from the sender UISegmentedControl *selector = sender; //grab the selected segment info from selector. This returns a 0 or a 1. int selectorIndex = [selector selectedSegmentIndex]; changeText (selectorIndex); } int changeText (int selectorPosition) { NSLog(@"changeText received a value. Selector position is %d", selectorPosition); //Idea is to receive a value from the segmented controler and change the screen text accordingly return 0; } This works perfectly well, but I want to learn how to do this with objects and messages. How would I rewrite these two methods to do this? Cheers Rich

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• Beginner MVC question - Correct approach to render out a List and details?

  - by fizzer

  I'm trying to set up a page where I display a list of items and the details of the selected item. I have it working but wonder whether I have followed the correct approach. I'll use customers as an example I have set the aspx page to inherit from an IEnumerable of Customers. This seems to be the standard approach to display the list of items. For the Details I have added a Customer user control which inherits from customer. I think i'm on the right track so far but I was a bit confused as to where I should store the id of the customer whose details I intend to display. I wanted to make the id optional in the controller action so that the page could be hit using "/customers" or "customers/1" so I made the arg optional and stored the id in the ViewData like this: public ActionResult Customers(string id = "0") { Models.DBContext db = new Models.DBContext(); var cList = db.Customers.OrderByDescending(c => c.CustomerNumber); if (id == "0") { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = cList.First().CustomerNumber.ToString(); } else { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = id; } return View("Customers", cList); } I then rendered the User control using RenderPartial in the front end: <%var CustomerList = from x in Model where x.CustomerNumber == Convert.ToInt32(ViewData["CustomerNumber"]) select x; Customer c = (Customer)CustomerList.First(); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Customer",c); %> Then I just have an actionLink on each listed item: <%: Html.ActionLink("Select", "Customers", new { id = item.CustomerNumber })% It all seems to work but as MVC is new to me I would just be interested in others thoughts on whether this is a good approach?

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• Facebook call back function with timeout

  - by Dirty Bird Design

  So I've been getting my ass kicked pretty good with Facebook's moving target of an API. I need to display some hidden content after a person clicks 'like' on a landing page. I can somewhat get this to work, when the user clicks 'like' the normal fb dialogue appears and then goes away immediately and content is displayed. I have 'achieved' this with the following js. <script> FB.Event.subscribe('edge.create', function(href, widget) { document.getElementById('goodies').style.display = "block"; document.getElementById('fb-content').style.display= "block"; document.getElementById('copy').style.display = "none"; }); </script> I cannot find any documentation about a callback event after someone hits "post to facebook" or after the dialogue closes, only afte they hit like. How would I incorporate a setTimeout function into this to give people some time to fill out the fb dialogue? thanks. If anyone has a better way to do this I'm all ears. This is for a business page and I cannot seem to add an app to get an app ID anymore so the API is pretty useless to me at this point. Also, if the url to be liked is a fb page, the callbacks don't seem to fire. Other code used: <html xmlns:fb="http://ogp.me/ns/fb#"> <div id="fb-root"></div> <script>(function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) return; js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk')); </script> <fb:like href="onlynonfburl.com" send="false" layout="button_count" width="450" show_faces="false" font="arial"></fb:like>

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• Refresh page using cache

  - by cbh

  I am trying to refresh a page, but WANT to use the cache and can't figure out how to do this. There are two situations: If I click in the URL bar and hit enter (or visit the page from somewhere else) it reloads the page/images from the cache. GREAT! If I click on the refresh button or use Javascript to refresh the page it grabs all the images again and takes forever. NOT GREAT! I've tried: top.location.reload(false); and top.location.reload(true); (I'm sending this from in an iFrame) and neither used the cache. I'm avoiding using location so it doesn't end up in the browser history twice. Question: How do I reload the page using the cached images? Is there a different javascript function or is this a mod_expires issue? Thanks for any help in advance! EDIT: (info from chrome: developer tools) When navigating to the page I get "From Cache" for all images When refreshing page I get "304 - Not Modified" for all images (and it takes the time to download each)

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• Android while getting HTTP response to file how to know it wasn't fully loaded?

  - by Stan

  I'm using this approach to store a big-sized response from server to parse it later: final HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(new BasicHttpParams()); final HttpGet mHttpGetRequest = new HttpGet(strUrl); mHttpGetRequest.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); FileOutputStream fos = null; try { final HttpResponse response = client.execute(mHttpGetRequest); final StatusLine statusLine = response.getStatusLine(); lastHttpErrorCode = statusLine.getStatusCode(); lastHttpErrorMsg = statusLine.getReasonPhrase(); if (lastHttpErrorCode == 200) { HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); fos = new FileOutputStream(reponseFile); entity.writeTo(fos); entity.consumeContent(); fos.flush(); } } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); lastHttpErrorMsg = e.toString(); return null; } catch (final ParseException e) { e.printStackTrace(); lastHttpErrorMsg = e.toString(); return null; } catch (final UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); lastHttpErrorMsg = e.toString(); return null; } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); lastHttpErrorMsg = e.toString(); } finally{ if (fos!=null) try{ fos.close(); } catch (IOException e){} } now how could I ensure the response was completely received and thus saved to file? Assume client's device lost Internet connection while this code was running. So the app received only some part of real response. And I'm pretty sure it happens cuz I got parsing exceptions like "tag not closed", "unexpected end of file" etc. So I need to detect somehow this situation to prevent code from parsing partial response but can't see how. Is it possible at all and how to do it? Or has it has to raise IOException in such cases?

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• jQuery: Problems cookies internet explorer

  - by user1140479

  I have made a login page. When the user logs in a request to an API is send. This API is PHP and checks the username and password. When both are correct an unique key is send back (this is placed in the database for further use: userid and other stuff needed in the website). After that key is sent back it is placed in a cookie: $.cookie("session", JSON.stringify(result)); After the cookie is set I send the user to a new page: location.href = 'dashboard.htm'; In this page jQuery checks if the cookie "session" is present. If not, the user is send back to the login page. sessionId = ($.cookie("session") ? JSON.parse($.cookie("session")).SessionId : 0); return sessionId; This works fine in Chrome, but IE (8/9) has some problems with this. I figured out that when you get to dashboard.htm the session is present. As soon as I hit F5 the session is gone. And sometimes the cookie isn't set at all! I can't seem to figure out why this is happening in IE. Has someone any idea? Other options/ideas to save that unique key are also welcome. Thanks in advance.

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• Major JQuery bug on IE not reproducible - What can i do in this situation to solve this bug?

  - by ming yeow

  I am hoping to get some help on this issue. Some users on IE have been reporting this javascript issue, but I have been unable to re-produce it. In essence, for some class of windows IE users, the game doesn't work (or $.ajax() is not working). What I know: I swapped out an ajax call (ajax_init_trainer) and used a standard link with some request parameters to do the initialization and ppl seemed to get passed the problem until they hit the next ajax call. I read somewhere that IE does crazy caching so you need to make the urls unique, which is why i added the _requestno parameter. However, setting the cache:false is said to also do this. This didn't fix it for someone who was complaining. function done(res, status) { var data = JSON.parse(res.responseText); hide_loading(); if (status == "success") { window.location.href="/bamo/battle/?{{ fb_sig}}"; } else { display_alert("Problem!",data.msg,$("#notifications")); } }; $(".monster_select_class").click(function() { $(this).attr("src","{{MEDIA_URL}}/bamo/button_select_click.png"); monster_class = $(this).attr("monster_class"); monster_type = $(this).attr("monster_type"); ajax_init_trainer(monster_class,monster_type); }); function ajax_init_trainer(trainer_class,monster_type) { var data = {trainer_class:trainer_class,monster_type:monster_type}; var d = new Date(); var args = { type:"POST",url:"/bamo/api/init_trainer/?_requestno="+d.getTime(),data:data,contentType:"application/json;", dataType: "json",cache:false,complete:done}; $.ajax(args); return false; };

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• Android designing an app to keep me logged into a wifi access point

  - by MrGibbage

  At the gym where I work out, they have an open wifi access point. The way it is set up, once you "connect", you have to navigate to a web page (it is a 1.1.X.X ip address) and click the "I agree" button, after presumably reading the user agreement. The problem is, they have it set up to log you out once an hour, which always happens in the middle of my workout. I have the SSID remembered, so it connects automatically when I come in range, but I get an android notification that further action is needed to fully connect. What I was wondering is if there a work around so that I don't have to click-through every hour? I was thinking of writing an app that could detect when I was in range, or when "half-connected", and then have it somehow complete the registration process. Perhaps this will have to be done by loading the web page in memory and then somehow clicking the "I agree" button. What I would like help with is: 1) what is the terminology involved here? What state is the connection in when I am connected, but I haven't clicked through? What other connection states may apply? If I knew that, I might just be able to research this and come up with a solution. Are these different states "detectable"? It seems like it is since I get a notification that I need to complete the registration process when I am "half-connected". 2) I know there are plugins for desktop browsers that can click buttons (like the keepass plugins, which will log you into a site). How could I replicate this in Android? Ideally I would like to do it internally, in memory, rather than firing up a browser. Possible? Comments? Is my understanding and thought process sound here, or am I overlooking something?

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• Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

  - by Matt Rowles

  I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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• Slow loading of UITableView. How know why?

  - by mamcx

  I have a UITableView that show a long list of data. Use sections and follow the sugestion of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/695814/how-solve-slow-scrolling-in-uitableview . The flow is load a main UITableView & push a second selecting a row from there. However, with 3000 items take 11 seconds to show. I suspect first from the load of the records from sqlite (I preload the first 200). So I cut it to only 50. However, no matter if I preload only 1 or 500, the time is the same. The view is made from IB and all is opaque. I run out of ideas in how detect the problem. I run the Instruments tool but not know what to look. Also, when the user select a cell from the previous UITable, no visual feedback is show (ie: the cell not turn selected) for a while so he thinks he not select it and try several times. Is related to this problem. What to do? NOTE: The problem is only in the actual device: iPod Touch 2d generation Using fmdb as sqlite api Doing the caching in viewDidLoad Using NSDictionary for the caching Using a NSAutoreleasePool for the caching part. Only caching the row ID & mac 4 fields necesary to show the cell data UIView made with interface builder, SDK 2.2.1 Instruments say I use 2.5 MB in the device

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• How do you handle huge if-conditions?

  - by Teifion

  It's something that's bugged me in every language I've used, I have an if statement but the conditional part has so many checks that I have to split it over multiple lines, use a nested if statement or just accept that it's ugly and move on with my life. Are there any other methods that you've found that might be of use to me and anybody else that's hit the same problem? Example, all on one line: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true && var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true){ Example, multi-line: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true && var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true){ Example-nested: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true){     if (var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true)     {

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• c++ simple conditional logging

  - by Sunny

  Disclaimer: I'm not a c++ developer, I can only do basic things. (I understand pointers, just my knowledge is so rusty, I haven't touch c/c++ for about 20 years :) ) The setup: I have an Outlook addin, written in C#/.Net 1.1. It uses a c++ shim to load. Usually, this works pretty well, and I use in my c# code nlog for logging purposes. But sometimes, the addin fails to load, i.t. it does not hit the managed code at all for me to be able to investigate the problem from the log files. So, I need to hook some basic logging into the c++ shim - just writing in a file. I need to make it as simple as possible for our users to enable. Actually I would prefer not to ship it by default. I was thinking about something, which will check if a specific dll is present (the logging dll), and if so, to use it. Otherwise, it will just not log anything. That way, when I have a user with such a problems, I can send him only the logging dll, the user will save it in the runtime directory, and I'll have the file. I guess this have to be done with some form a factory solution, which returns either a dummy logger, or if the dll is found, a real one. Another option would be to make some simple logger, and rebuild the shim with or w/o using it, based on directives. This is not the desirable approach, because the shim needs to be signed, and I have to instruct the user to make a backup copy of the "real" one, then restore when done, etc., instead of just saving and deleting a dll. I'd appreciate any good suggestion how to approach it, together with links or sample code how to go after this. Cheers

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• Doing a virus check on a file from a build script

  - by the_mandrill

  I would like to be be able to invoke a virus check as the final stage of the build process (please don't question why a dev machine would get a virus, it's just a belt-and-braces approach to avoid the risk of getting sued by customers...). Also I'd like the option of having AV on a machine but switching the auto file system protection off (at least for the build directories). What I would like is a generic way of scanning a file using whatever AV system is in place. I'm assuming that there's an Windows API to do this, given that Windows detects the presence of an AV system, and browsers such as Firefox invoke a virus scan whenever a file is downloaded. So what's the API that they're using? There's the Microsoft AntiVirus API but that seems to be specific to Office documents. Does the approach involve using WMI? (and if you can detect the AV provider from there, how do you then invoke it to scan a file?) I know that I could write the script to manually call the AV scanner that I know to be installed, but as an intellectual exercise I'm more interested to know how apps like Firefox are doing this.

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• How to get VC# to rebuild auto-generated .cs files?

  - by Jive Dadson

  I imagine this question has been asked and answered, but I cannot find it. I wanted to make a simple GUI to interface to a windows 7 command. I usually use Wx, but since this was to be a windows-only thing, I decided to see if I could whip it out real fast using Visual C# 2010 Express, which I had never used before. Things started off just great. I created a form, put a few buttons and text boxes and such on it, and hit Debug. It came up and ran just like that. No muss, no fuss. So I then designed the form just the way I wanted it, renamed the controls from "Button1" and so forth to meaningful names. But now it's a mess. By clicking around, I discovered that VC# had auto-generated two files called Form1.cs and Form1.Designer.cs. The later contains the bindings between functions and the events generated from user-clicks etc., and the former contains no-op code for those functions, for me to complete. Problem is, the names are all still the original "Button1" and so forth, not the new ones, and the new controls I added after running the first time do not appear at all. I want it to regenerate all that stuff afresh from the finished form. How to?

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• How do I change the application background color at run-time in a Flex 3.5 application?

  - by Adam Tuttle

  I have a Flex 3.5 application that will serve multiple purposes, and as part of the visual changes that I'd like to make to indicate which mode the application is in, I want to change its background color. Currently, the application tag looks like this: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns:com="ventures.view.component.*" xmlns:views="ventures.view.*" layout="absolute" preinitialize="onPreInitialize()" creationComplete="onCreationComplete()" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete()" click="onClick(event)" enabled="{(!chainController.generalLocked)}" backgroundGradientColors="[0xFFFFFF, 0xFFFFFF]" > I've tried using a binding, for both the backgroundColor and backgroundGradientColors attributes: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundColor="{app_background_color}" > —and— <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundGradientColors="{app_background_color}" > but for the former binding is not allowed, and for the latter there is a warning that: Data binding will not be able to detect assignments to "app_background_color". I also ran across this page which seems to indicate that I could do it with the setStyle() method, but the documentation seems to indicate that this method is only available for components, not the main canvas. I suppose I could wrap everything in a <mx:Canvas></mx:Canvas> specificially for this purpose, but that seems wasteful—like Div-itis in HTML or something. What's the best way to change the main application background color at run-time?

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• What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

  - by priehl

  I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

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• Rails RESTful routs without #new, rspec trouble

  - by pdkl95

  I'm currently writing a Rails app, and hit a somewhat strange quirk. I have a controller PermissionsController, which is mainly for display purposes at the moment. So my routing is locked down: map.resources :permissions, :only => [:index, :show] Unfortunately, when writing the tests, one of the routing tests fails: it "does not recognize #new" do { :get => "/permissions/new" }.should_not be_routable end with the error: Expected 'GET /permissions/new' to fail, but it routed to {"action"=>"show", "id"=>"new", "controller"=>"permissions"} instead Obviously, the #show action's route is matching with /permissions/:id, which also gives the expected error Couldn't find Permission with ID=new if you actually browse to that URL. This is not a serious error, as it is correctly raising an exception with the bad :id parameter, but it's kind of ugly. Is there any way to actually make Rails reject that route? Some trick in the routing options that I'm missing? I suppose I should just leave that test out and ignore it, or maybe remove the whole RESTful idea altogether and go back to a simpler map.connect 'permissions/:id' style. I strongly suspect I'll be expanding this in the future, though, and kind of wanted to keep my controllers consistent with each other. Just having to add occasional :only or :except rules made routes.rb nice and clean...

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• Setting a cookie based on the name of the link that is clicked.

  - by Ozaki

  TLDR When clicking on a link I want to assign a cookie with a name of instrument and a value of the text on the link clicked. Using Jquery.1.4.2.min.js, Jquery.cookie.1.0.js I am trying to create a cookie when a link is clicked (will always link to "page.html"). name of instrument value of the TEXT So far I am trying to use: Link1: <a href="page.html">link1</a> Link2: <a href="page.html">link2</a> Script: $('a[href=page.html]').click(function() { var name = 'instrument'; var value = $(this).text(); $.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 }); }); When I click the link it just loads the link and no cookie is set. Debugging with firebug, firecookie, firequery. No cookie for instrument or anything along the lines is found. Onload I'll hit the "<a href="page.html">projects</a>" but not the "$.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 });" at all.

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• Peoplesoft queries - performance

  - by DBa

  Hi, I'm facing a problem with PeopleSoft queries (using Oracle backend database): when a rather complex query involving multiple records is set off by a user, PS does an enforced join of security records, thus producing SQL like this: select .... from ps_job a, PS_EMPL_SRCQRY a1, ps_table2 b, ps_sec_rcd2 b1, ps_table3 c, ps_sec_rcd3 c1 where (...security joins a-a1, b-b1, c-c1...) and (...joins of a, b and c...) and a.setid_dept = 'XYZ'; (let's assume the last condition has a high selectivity and there is an index on the column) Obviously, due to the arrangement of the conditions, first a huge join is created, written to the temp segment, and when the last condition is finally applied, only a small subset is selected. A query formulated in this way is very likely to hit the preset timeout of the APPSRV, and even of the QRYSRV. When writing the query manually, I would rather move the most selective condition to the start, thus limiting the amount of the data being handled, to a considerable level. Any ideas on how to make PS behave like this? Actually, already rewriting "Oracle-styled" SQL to ANSI SQL seems to accelerate the queries - however, PS writes Oracle-style queries... Thanks in advance DBa

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• Complicated API issue with calling assemblies dynamically?

  - by Stefanos Tses

  I have an interesting challenge that I'm wondering if anyone here can give me some direction. I'm writing a .Net windows forms application that runs on a network and uses an SQL Server to save and pull data. I want to offer a mini "plugin" API, where developers can build their own assemblies and implement a specific interface (IDataManipulate). These assemblies then can be used by my application to call the interface functions and do something. I can create assemblies using my API, copy the file to a folder in my local hard drive and configure my application to use Reflection to call a specific function from the implemented interface (IDataManipulate.Execute). The problem: Since the application will be installed in multiple workstations in the network, is impossible to copy the plugin dlls the users will create to each machine. Solutions I tried: Solution 1 Copy the API dll to a network share. Problem: Requires AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, which requires .Net singing, which I can't force from my users. Solution 2 (preferred) Serialize the dll object, save it to the database, deserialize it and call IDataManipulate.Execute. Problem: After deserialization, I try cast it to a IDataManipulate object but returns an error looking for the actual dll file. Solution 3 Save the dll bytes as byte[] to the database and recreate the dll at the local PC every time the user starts my application. Problem: Dll may have dependencies, which I don't know if I can detect. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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• Python : How do you find the CPU consumption for a piece of code?

  - by Yugal Jindle

  Background: I have a django application, it works and responds pretty well on low load, but on high load like 100 users/sec, it consumes 100% CPU and then due to lack of CPU slows down. Problem : Profiling the application gives me time taken by functions. This time increases on high load. Time consumed may be due to complex calculation or for waiting for CPU. so, how to find the CPU cycles consumed by a piece of code ? Since, reducing the CPU consumption will increase the response time. I might have written extremely efficient code and need to add more CPU power OR I might have some stupid code taking the CPU and causing the slow down ? Any help is appreciated ! Update: I am using Jmeter to profile my webapp, it gives me a throughput of 2 requests/sec. [ 100 users] I get a average time of 36 seconds on 100 request vs 1.25 sec time on 1 request. More Info Configuration Nginx + Uwsgi with 4 workers No database used, using a responses from a REST API On 1st hit the response of REST API gets cached, therefore doesn't makes a difference. Using ujson for json parsing. Curious to Know: Python-Django is used by so many orgs for so many big sites, then there must be some high end Debug / Memory-CPU analysis tools. All those I found were casual snippets of code that perform profiling.

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• Can a Java HashMap's size() be out of sync with its actual entries' size ?

  - by trix

  I have a Java HashMap called statusCountMap. Calling size() results in 30. But if I count the entries manually, it's 31 This is in one of my TestNG unit tests. These results below are from Eclipse's Display window (type code - highlight - hit Display Result of Evaluating Selected Text). statusCountMap.size() (int) 30 statusCountMap.keySet().size() (int) 30 statusCountMap.values().size() (int) 30 statusCountMap (java.util.HashMap) {40534-INACTIVE=2, 40526-INACTIVE=1, 40528-INACTIVE=1, 40492-INACTIVE=3, 40492-TOTAL=4, 40513-TOTAL=6, 40532-DRAFT=4, 40524-TOTAL=7, 40526-DRAFT=2, 40528-ACTIVE=1, 40524-DRAFT=2, 40515-ACTIVE=1, 40513-DRAFT=4, 40534-DRAFT=1, 40514-TOTAL=3, 40529-DRAFT=4, 40515-TOTAL=3, 40492-ACTIVE=1, 40528-TOTAL=4, 40514-DRAFT=2, 40526-TOTAL=3, 40524-INACTIVE=2, 40515-DRAFT=2, 40514-ACTIVE=1, 40534-TOTAL=3, 40513-ACTIVE=2, 40528-DRAFT=2, 40532-TOTAL=4, 40524-ACTIVE=3, 40529-ACTIVE=1, 40529-TOTAL=5} statusCountMap.entrySet().size() (int) 30 What gives ? Anyone has experienced this ? I'm pretty sure statusCountMap is not being modified at this point. There are 2 methods (lets call them methodA and methodB) that modify statusCountMap concurrently, by repeatedly calling incrementCountInMap. private void incrementCountInMap(Map map, Long id, String qualifier) { String key = id + "-" + qualifier; if (map.get(key) == null) { map.put(key, 0); } synchronized (map) { map.put(key, map.get(key).intValue() + 1); } } methodD is where I'm getting the issue. methodD has a TestNG @dependsOnMethods = { "methodA", "methodB" } so when methodD is executing, statusCountMap is pretty much static already. I'm mentioning this because it might be a bug in TestNG. I'm using Sun JDK 1.6.0_24. TestNG is testng-5.9-jdk15.jar Hmmm ... after rereading my post, could it be because of concurrent execution of outside-of-synchronized-block map.get(key) == null & map.put(key,0) that's causing this issue ?

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• SQL Standard Regarding Left Outer Join and Where Conditions

  - by Ryan

  I am getting different results based on a filter condition in a query based on where I place the filter condition. My questions are: Is there a technical difference between these queries? Is there anything in the SQL standard that explains the different resultsets in the queries? Given the simplified scenario: --Table: Parent Columns: ID, Name, Description --Table: Child Columns: ID, ParentID, Name, Description --Query 1 SELECT p.ID, p.Name, p.Description, c.ID, c.Name, c.Description FROM Parent p LEFT OUTER JOIN Child c ON (p.ID = c.ParentID) WHERE c.ID IS NULL OR c.Description = 'FilterCondition' --Query 2 SELECT p.ID, p.Name, p.Description, c.ID, c.Name, c.Description FROM Parent p LEFT OUTER JOIN Child c ON (p.ID = c.ParentID AND c.Description = 'FilterCondition') I assumed the queries would return the same resultsets and I was surprised when they didn't. I am using MS SQL2005 and in the actual queries, query 1 returned ~700 rows and query 2 returned ~1100 rows and I couldn't detect a pattern on which rows were returned and which rows were excluded. There were still many rows in query 1 with child rows with data and NULL data. I prefer the style of query 2 (and I think it is more optimal), but I thought the queries would return the same results.

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