Search Results

Search found 43986 results on 1760 pages for 'sql session state'.

Page 312/1760 | < Previous Page | 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319  | Next Page >

  • Can I connect to SQL Server using Windows Authentication from Java EE webapp?

    - by KG
    I am currently investigating how to make a connection to a SQL Server database from my Java EE web application using Windows Authentication instead of SQL Server authentication. I am running this app off of Tomcat 6.0, and am utilizing the Microsoft JDBC driver. My connection properties file looks as follows: dbDriver = com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver dbUser = user dbPass = password dbServer = localhost:1433;databaseName=testDb dbUrl = jdbc:sqlserver://localhost:1433 I have zero problems with connecting to a SQL Server database in this fashion when using SQL Server authentication. Is there any way I can retrieve the credentials of the user's Windows Authentication and use that authentication for SQL Server? UPDATE: I know in ASP.net there is a way to set up Windows Authentication for access to the webapp, which is exactly what I am looking for, except I want to pass that token off to SQL Server for access to the database.

    Read the article

  • SQL ConnectionString in web.config and global.asax implications

    - by rlb.usa
    This is going to sound very odd, but I have a web.config like this: <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Data Source=BACKUPDB;..." providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> And a global.asax like this: void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when a new session is started if (Application["con"] == null || Application["con"] == "") { Application["con"] = "Data Source=PRODUCTIONDB;..."; } } And EVERYWHERE in my code, I reference my ConnectionStrings like this: SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(Convert.ToString(HttpContext.Current.Application["con"])); However, I see that everything I do inside this application goes to BACKUP db instead of PRODUCTIONDB. What is going on, how could this happen, and why? It doesn't make any sense to me, and it got me into a lot of trouble. We use LocalSqlServer string for FormsAuthentication.

    Read the article

  • How to rollback a database deployment without losing new data?

    - by devlife
    My company uses virtual machines for our web/app servers. This allows for very easy rollbacks of a deployment if something goes wrong. However, if an app server deployment also requires a database deployment and we have to rollback I'm kind of at a loss. How can you rollback database schema changes without losing data? The only thing that I can think of is to write a script that will drop/revert tables/columns back to their original state. Is this really the best way?

    Read the article

  • Lazy loading in Hibernate

    - by Steve
    My Java Web application uses Hibernate to perform ORM. In some of my objects, I use lazy loading to avoid getting data until I absolutely need it. The problem is that I load the initial object in a session, and then that session is destroyed. When I later attempt to resolve the lazy-loaded collections in my object I get the following error: org.hibernate.LazyInitializationException: failed to lazily initialize a collection of role: common.model.impl.User.groups, no session or session was closed I tried associating a new session with the collection and then resolving, but this gives the same results. Does anyone know how I can resolve the lazy collections once the original session is gone? Thanks... --Steve

    Read the article

  • How to call an extended procedure from a function

    - by Alan Featherston Lago
    hi im having trouble trying to get the following function to work. CREATE FUNCTION test ( @nt_group VARCHAR(128) ) RETURNS @nt_usr TABLE ( [name] [nchar](128) NULL , [type] [char](8) NULL , [privilege] [char](9) NULL , [mapped login name] [nchar](128) NULL , [permission path] [nchar](128) NULL ) AS BEGIN INSERT INTO @nt_usr EXEC master.dbo.xp_logininfo 'DOMAIN\USER', @nt_group RETURN END As far as i know i should be allowed to call an extended stored procedure, im getting the following error Mes 443, Level 16, State 14 Could it be that xp_logininfo might return different result sets depending on the parameters? When i use openquery i can overcome this by setting this: SET FMTONLY OFF. Does anyone know if there's a similar workaround for my problem?

    Read the article

  • sql query question

    - by bu0489
    hey guys, just having a bit of difficulty with a query, i'm trying to figure out how to show the most popular naturopath that has been visited in a centre. My tables look as follows; Patient(patientId, name, gender, DoB, address, state,postcode, homePhone, businessPhone, maritalStatus, occupation, duration,unit, race, registrationDate , GPNo, NaturopathNo) and Naturopath (NaturopathNo, name, contactNo, officeStartTime, officeEndTime, emailAddress) now to query this i've come up with SELECT count(*), naturopathno FROM dbf10.patient WHERE naturopathno != 'NULL' GROUP BY naturopathno; which results in; COUNT(*) NATUROPATH 2 NP5 1 NP6 3 NP2 1 NP1 2 NP3 1 NP7 2 NP8 My question is, how would I go about selecting the highest count from this list, and printing that value with the naturopaths name? Any suggestions are very welcome, Brad

    Read the article

  • Persisting hashlib state

    - by anthony
    I'd like to create a hashlib instance, update() it, then persist its state in some way. Later, I'd like to recreate the object using this state data, and continue to update() it. Finally, I'd like to get the hexdigest() o the total cumulative run of data. State persistence has to survive across multiple runs. Example: import hashlib m = hashlib.sha1() m.update('one') m.update('two') # somehow, persist the state of m here #later, possibly in another process # recreate m from the persisted state m.update('three') m.update('four') print m.hexdigest() # at this point, m.hexdigest() should be equal to hashlib.sha1().update('onetwothreefour').hextdigets()

    Read the article

  • Wrong sessionID being used in callback, but only on one particular computer

    - by user210119
    I am writing a Python/Django web application that uses OAuth (for the TwitterAPI, not that it should matter). I am storing a session ID in my login function, and then after using OAuth to get the user's token, I try to retrieve the sessionID in my callback function. The callback function then always fails(throws an exception) because it can't find the OAuth token in the session. Through the debugger, I am able to determine that the session ID that the server is using is incorrect - it does not match the session ID that was stored in the login function. It's therefore unsurprising that the Oauth tokens were not there. The session that appears in the callback was the same one each time (until I tried deleting it - see "things I've tried below"), and it started out as an old session, with some data in it that is from a different django app running on the same server that I hadn't touched in a couple weeks. Here's the kicker: everything I described is an issue only on our production server, and only when connecting to it from my computer. Let me clarify: this only happens with my particular laptop. I can connect to the app just fine from someone else's computer. Other people cannot connect with their accounts on my computer. Furthmore, I can connect just fine to the app when it is running on my localhost using the built-in django webserver, just not to the production server. My setup: my server and local box are running= Django 1.2.0 and Python 2.6.5. My local box is running Snow Leopard and the Django webserver, the server is running Ubuntu, Apache2, and mod-wsgi. For sessions, I am using Django's default session backend (DB). Things I have tried, all to no avail: logging in with a different account, including new accounts that have never OAuthed to this app before Clearing cookies, using incognito mode, using a different web browser on my same computer. Each time, upon inspecting my cookies, the sessionID matched the sessionID in the login function and was different from the sessionID in the callback. deleting the session in the database that appears in the callback function, (the one that appeared to be old data). The callback function still fails, and the sessionID it appears to be using is now a new one using a different session backend (DB-cache, flat file, etc...) restarting the server, my computer, etc. My first question on StackOverflow, so bear with me if I didn't quite follow local conventions. I am just at a loss as to what to even look for - what are the things that could possibly be causing sessions to not work on my particular computer, and (so far!) only my particular computer?

    Read the article

  • Using a JMS Session from different threads

    - by Evan
    From the javadoc for Session it states: A Session object is a single-threaded context for producing and consuming messages. So I understand that you shouldn't use a Session object from two different threads at the same time. What I'm unclear on is if you could use the Session object (or children such as a Queue) from a different thread than the one it created. In the case I'm working on, I'm considering putting my Session objects into a pool of available sessions that any thread could borrow from, use, and return to the pool when it is finished with it. Is this kosher? (Using ActiveMQ BTW, if that impacts the answer at all.)

    Read the article

  • tomcat 6 - Cluster / BackupManager

    - by Kevin
    Hi, I have a question regarding Clustering (session replication/failover) in tomcat 6 using BackupManager. Reason I chose BackupManager, is because it replicates the session to only one other server. I am going to run through the example below to try and explain my question. I have 6 nodes setup in a tomcat 6 cluster with BackupManager. The front end is one Apache server using mod_jk with sticky session enabled Each node has 1 session each. node1 has a session from client1 node2 has a session from client2 .. .. Now lets say node1 goes down ; assuming node2 is the backup, node2 now has two sessions (for client2 and client1) The next time client1 makes a request, what exactly happens ? Does Apache "know" that node1 is down and does it send the request directly to node2 ? =OR= does it try each of the 6 instances and find out the hard way who the backup is ?

    Read the article

  • Django: accessing session variables from within a template?

    - by AP257
    Hi all If I set a session variable in Django, like: request.session["name"] = "name" Is there a way I can access it from within a template, or do I have to retrieve it from within a view, and then pass it to a template? Asking because I have around 10 little session variables that I'd like to access within a template, and passing all 10 from the view to the template could get a bit messy. (I have to use session variables because it's a HttpResponseRedirect, but storing the variables in a database is overkill for my purposes.) So - any way to grab session variables directly within a template?

    Read the article

  • Issue using Session in MVC Actions with [authorice]

    - by Pablo Gonzalez
    Hi all, first of all sorry for my poor English! When I use the [Authorice` attribute i can't get Session data that i stored before. For example: public ViewResult Index() { // do some stuffs Session["Test"] = "Hi stackoverflow!"; } And then i try to get it in another action, but with the [Authorize] attibute [Authorize] public ViewResult Test() { // do some stuffs if(Session["Test"] == null) { //do some stuffs } } Session["Test"] is always null, but if i remove the attribute it's work, may anyone help me?, thanks a lot!!! P.S: I instance Session["Test"] in Session_Start

    Read the article

  • Problems with sp_addlinkedserver in MSSQL 2000

    - by manneorama
    Hi! I'm having a bit of a problem with moving specific data from one server running MSSQL 2000 (A) and another running MSSQL 2008 (B). I'm writing a script according to customer specifications which is to be executed on A, populating tables in B with data. However, I can't seem to get the server link to work. -- Bunch of declarations here EXEC sp_addlinkedserver @server = @ServerName, @srvproduct = @ServerProduct, @provider = @ProviderString, @datasrc = @RemoteHost -- Data migration stuff here EXEC sp_dropserver @ServerName Now if I run the script in its entirety I get an error saying: Msg 7202, Level 11, State 2, Line 55 Could not find server 'remoteServer' in sysservers. Execute sp_addlinkedserver to add the server to sysservers. However, if I higlight only the sp_addlinkedserver-part and execute that, there is no error and I can highlight the rest of the script and run it. What am I missing here? Please help! PS. If backup-restore was an option, I would have done that already.

    Read the article

  • T-SQL error object exists when separated in if/else blocks

    - by Jeff O
    I get the error: Msg 2714, Level 16, State 1, Line 16 There is already an object named '#mytemptable' in the database. There are ways around it, but wonder why this happens. Seems like SQL Server is verifying both blocks of the if/else statement? declare @choice int select @choice = 1 if @choice = 1 begin select 'MyValue = 1' AS Pick into #my_temp_table end else begin select 'MyValue <> 1' AS Pick into #my_temp_table end select * from #temptable drop table #temptable If the tables have different names, it works. Or if I create the temp table and use Insert Into... statements that works as well.

    Read the article

  • Approach for authentication and storing user details.

    - by cappuccino
    Hey folks, I am using the Zend Framework but my question is broadly about sessions / databases / auth (PHP MySQL). Currently this is my approach to authentication: 1) User signs in, the details are checked in database. - Standard stuff really. 2) If the details are correct only the user's unique ID is stored in the session and a security token (user unique ID + IP + Browser info + salt). The session in written to the filesystem. I've been reading around and many are saying that storing stuff in sessions is not a good idea, and that you should really only write a unique ID which refers back to the user's details and a security token to prevent session hijacking. So this is the approach i've taken, i use to write the user's details in session, but i've moved that out. Wanted to know your opinions on this. I'm keeping sessions in the filesystem since i don't run on multiple servers, and since i'm only writting a tiny tiny bit of data to sessions, i thought that performance would be greater keeping sessions in the filesystem to reduce load on the database. Once the session is written on authentication, it really is only read-only from then on. 3) The rest of the user's details (like subscription details, permissions, account info etc) are cached in the filesystem (this can always be easily moved to memory if i wanted even more performance). So rather than keeping the user's details in session, the user's details are cached in the file system. I'm using Zend_Cache and the unique cache id is something like md5(/cache/auth/2892), the number is the unique id of the user. I guess the benefit of this method is that once the user is logged in, there is essentially not database queries being run to get the user's details. Just wonder if this approach is better than keeping the whole lot in session... 4) As the user moves throughout the site the only thing that is checked is the ID in the session and the security token. So, overall the first question is 1) is the filesystem more efficient than a database for this purpose 2) have i taken enough security precautions 3) is separating user detail's from the session into a cached file a pointless task? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Need help configuring SQL Server CE connections string in Fluent NHibernate

    - by Yoav
    Hi, I'm trying to return a session factory using this code: return Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlCeConfiguration.Standard.ShowSql().ConnectionString(path)) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<Project>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); Path is the full path to an .sdf file. And get this exception: System.ArgumentException: Format of the initialization string does not conform to specification starting at index 0. at System.Data.SqlServerCe.ConStringUtil.GetKeyValuePair(Char[] connectionString, Int32 currentPosition, String& key, Char[] valuebuf, Int32& vallength, Boolean& isempty) What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Microsoft SQL Server 2008 - 99% fragmentation on non-clustered, non-unique index

    - by user550441
    I have a table with several indexes (defined below). One of the indexes (IX_external_guid_3) has 99% fragmentation regardless of rebuilding/reorganizing the index. Anyone have any idea as to what might cause this, or the best way to fix it? We are using Entity Framework 4.0 to query this, the EF queries on the other indexed fields about 10x faster on average then the external_guid_3 field, however an ADO.Net query is roughly the same speed on both (though 2x slower than the EF Query to indexed fields). Table id(PK, int, not null) guid(uniqueidentifier, null, rowguid) external_guid_1(uniqueidentifier, not null) external_guid_2(uniqueidentifier, null) state(varchar(32), null) value(varchar(max), null) infoset(XML(.), null) -- usually 2-4K created_time(datetime, null) updated_time(datetime, null) external_guid_3(uniqueidentifier, not null) FK_id(FK, int, null) locking_guid(uniqueidentifer, null) locked_time(datetime, null) external_guid_4(uniqueidentifier, null) corrected_time(datetime, null) is_add(bit, not null) score(int, null) row_version(timestamp, null) Indexes PK_table(Clustered) IX_created_time(Non-Unique, Non-Clustered) IX_external_guid_1(Non-Unique, Non-Clustered) IX_guid(Non-Unique, Non-Clustered) IX_external_guid_3(Non-Unique, Non-Clustered) IX_state(Non-Unique, Non-Clustered)

    Read the article

  • Why Could Linq to Sql Submit Changes Fail for Updates Despite Data in Change Set

    - by KevDog
    I'm updating a set of objects, but the update fails on a SqlException that says "Incorrect Syntax near 'Where'". So I crack open SqlProfiler, and here is the generated SQL: exec sp_executesql N'UPDATE [dbo].[Addresses] SET WHERE ([AddressID] = @p0) AND ([StreetAddress] = @p1) AND ([StreetAddress2] = @p2) AND ([City] = @p3) AND ([State] = @p4) AND ([ZipCode] = @p5) AND ([CoordinateID] = @p6) AND ([CoordinateSourceID] IS NULL) AND ([CreatedDate] = @p7) AND ([Country] = @p8) AND (NOT ([IsDeleted] = 1)) AND (NOT ([IsNonSACOGZip] = 1))',N'@p0 uniqueidentifier,@p1 varchar(15),@p2 varchar(8000),@p3 varchar(10),@p4 varchar(2),@p5 varchar(5),@p6 uniqueidentifier,@p7 datetime,@p8 varchar(2)',@p0='92550F32-D921-4B71-9622-6F1EC6123FB1',@p1='125 Main Street',@p2='',@p3='Sacramento',@p4='CA',@p5='95864',@p6='725E7939-AEE3-4EF9-A033-7507579B69DF',@p7='2010-06-15 14:07:51.0100000',@p8='US' Sure enough, no set statement. I also called context.GetChangeSet() and the proper values are in the updates section. Also, I checked the .dbml file and all of the properties Update Check values are 'Always'. I am completely baffled on this one, any help out there?

    Read the article

  • Wrong SQLServer syntax: need help!

    - by user512602
    Hi, this is what I want to achieve: 4 tables are involved: Players with PlayerID as PK, Competitions with CompetID as PK Results with ResultID as PK and CompetID as FK And the 4th table: PlayerResultts with ResultID + PlayerID as PK and CompetID as new column I created. Competitions, results and PlayerResults are already populated and quite large (300000 PlayerResults so far). In order to populate the PlayerResults.CompetID column, I try a Update ... (Select....) request but I'm not aware of the right syntax and it fails. Here is my feeble attempt: update PlayerResults set competid = (select distinct(r.competid) from results r, playerresults p where r.resultID = p.resultid) Error is (of course): "Msg 512, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , , = or when the subquery is used as an expression." Can someone put me in the right direction? TIA

    Read the article

  • Updating a session variable on a page that uses enablesessionstate=readonly attribute doesn't fail f

    - by chandmk
    Asp.Net allows you you set the session state to readonly at individual page level or in the web.config for all pages. But it doesn't prevent you from creating a brand new session variable on that page or modify an existing session variable. But when you try to use that session variable it is either not available or its value is not modified. Why wouldn't the asp.net framework throw a run time error, if not compile time error, when a write attempt is made to a session on the pages where that is not allowed?

    Read the article

  • Oracle SQL Update query takes days to update

    - by B Senthil Kumar
    I am trying to update a record in the target table based on the record coming in from source. For instance, if the incoming record is present in the target table I would update them in the target else I would simply insert. I have over one million records in my source while my target has 46 million records. The target table is partitioned based on calendar key. I implement this whole logic using Informatica. I find that the Informatica code is perfectly fine looking at the Informatica session log but its in the update it takes long time (more than 5 days to update one million records). Any suggestions as to what can be done on the scenario to improve the performance?

    Read the article

  • How are a session identifiers generated?

    - by Asaf R
    Most web applications depend on some kind of session with the user (for instance, to retain login status). The session id is kept as a cookie in the user's browser and sent with every request. To make it hard to guess the next user's session these session-ids need to be sparse and somewhat random. The also have to be unique. The question is - how to efficiently generate session ids that are sparse and unique? This question has a good answer for unique random numbers, but it seems not scalable for a large range of numbers, simply because the array will end up taking a lot of memory.

    Read the article

  • Nesting queries in SQL

    - by ZAX
    The goal of my query is to return the country name and its head of state if it's headofstate has a name starting with A, and the capital of the country has greater than 100,000 people utilizing a nested query. Here is my query: SELECT country.name as country, (SELECT country.headofstate from country where country.headofstate like 'A%') from country, city where city.population > 100000; I've tried reversing it, placing it in the where clause etc. I don't get nested queries. I'm just getting errors back, like subquery returns more than one row and such. If someone could help me out with how to order it, and explain why it needs to be a certain way, that'd be great.

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQl updating primary key field?

    - by Curtis White
    I have a linq to sql table/class that uses a GUID as both a primary key and as foreign key. This problem came up when factoring some code that previously worked. The exception generated is "Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object." The process I use is as such: aspnet_User user() = new aspnet_User(); aspnet_user.childTable = new childTable(); .. set some properties user.Insert() -> my custom method ... @ my custom method using (mycontext dc = new context() ) { user.childTable.ID = (Guid)myNewlyCreatedGuid; } The exception occurs on the assignment childTable.set_UserId().

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 308 309 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319  | Next Page >