Search Results

Search found 10515 results on 421 pages for 'automatically'.

Page 328/421 | < Previous Page | 324 325 326 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335  | Next Page >

• Data Formatters temporarily unavailable

  - by iphone newbie

  I'm currently working on an iPhone app. This app has a login screen, also a signup screen. After the user has successfully signed up, I dismiss the signup view, then the app automatically logs in using the created account. After which, the login view is dismissed, showing the main view. I'm trying to modify this by immediately dismissing the login view, since I already have the account details of the user when the signup is successful. Basically, the ideal flow is: after the user successfully signs up, I save the username and password in a singleton class, then dismiss the signup view. When I get to the parent view (which is the login screen), I have a variable that checks if there was a successful signup. If that variable is true, I want to immediately dismiss the login view. However, I come across this error message: Data Formatters temporarily unavailable, will re-try after a 'continue'. (Unknown error loading shared library "/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib") I'm not really sure why this happens. I have no problems dismissing the login view when I go through the actual login procedure - which of course also dismisses the login view if the user inputs a correct username and password. I'm not exactly sure, but I'm starting to think that the iPhone cannot handle dismissing 2 view controllers almost at the same time. Is it possible that I'm dismissing the login view too quickly? Is that a factor? Is there anyway for me to be able to dismiss 2 view controllers almost simultaneously without coming across this error message?

  Read the article

• Spring boot JAR as windows service

  - by roblovelock

  I am trying to wrap a spring boot "uber JAR" with procrun. Running the following works as expected: java -jar my.jar I need my spring boot jar to automatically start on windows boot. The nicest solution for this would be to run the jar as a service (same as a standalone tomcat). When I try to run this I am getting "Commons Daemon procrun failed with exit value: 3" Looking at the spring-boot source it looks as if it uses a custom classloader: https://github.com/spring-projects/spring-boot/blob/master/spring-boot-tools/spring-boot-loader/src/main/java/org/springframework/boot/loader/JarLauncher.java I also get a "ClassNotFoundException" when trying to run my main method directly. java -cp my.jar my.MainClass Is there a method I can use to run my main method in a spring boot jar (not via JarLauncher)? Has anyone successfully integrated spring-boot with procrun? I am aware of http://wrapper.tanukisoftware.com/. However due to their licence I can't use it. UPDATE I have now managed to start the service using procrun. set SERVICE_NAME=MyService set BASE_DIR=C:\MyService\Path set PR_INSTALL=%BASE_DIR%prunsrv.exe REM Service log configuration set PR_LOGPREFIX=%SERVICE_NAME% set PR_LOGPATH=%BASE_DIR% set PR_STDOUTPUT=%BASE_DIR%stdout.txt set PR_STDERROR=%BASE_DIR%stderr.txt set PR_LOGLEVEL=Error REM Path to java installation set PR_JVM=auto set PR_CLASSPATH=%BASE_DIR%%SERVICE_NAME%.jar REM Startup configuration set PR_STARTUP=auto set PR_STARTIMAGE=c:\Program Files\Java\jre7\bin\java.exe set PR_STARTMODE=exe set PR_STARTPARAMS=-jar#%PR_CLASSPATH% REM Shutdown configuration set PR_STOPMODE=java set PR_STOPCLASS=TODO set PR_STOPMETHOD=stop REM JVM configuration set PR_JVMMS=64 set PR_JVMMX=256 REM Install service %PR_INSTALL% //IS//%SERVICE_NAME% I now just need to workout how to stop the service. I am thinking of doing someting with the spring-boot actuator shutdown JMX Bean. What happens when I stop the service at the moment is; windows fails to stop the service (but marks it as stopped), the service is still running (I can browse to localhost), There is no mention of the process in task manager (Not very good! unless I am being blind).

  Read the article

• WPF / C#: Transforming coordinates from an image control to the image source

  - by Gabriel

  I'm trying to learn WPF, so here's a simple question, I hope: I have a window that contains an Image element bound to a separate data object with user-configurable Stretch property <Image Name="imageCtrl" Source="{Binding MyImage}" Stretch="{Binding ImageStretch}" /> When the user moves the mouse over the image, I would like to determine the coordinates of the mouse with respect to the original image (before stretching/cropping that occurs when it is displayed in the control), and then do something with those coordinates (update the image). I know I can add an event-handler to the MouseMove event over the Image control, but I'm not sure how best to transform the coordinates: void imageCtrl_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { Point locationInControl = e.GetPosition(imageCtrl); Point locationInImage = ??? updateImage(locationInImage); } Now I know I could compare the size of Source to the ActualSize of the control, and then switch on imageCtrl.Stretch to compute the scalars and offsets on X and Y, and do the transform myself. But WPF has all the information already, and this seems like functionality that might be built-in to the WPF libraries somewhere. So I'm wondering: is there a short and sweet solution? Or do I need to write this myself? EDIT I'm appending my current, not-so-short-and-sweet solution. Its not that bad, but I'd be somewhat suprised if WPF didn't provide this functionality automatically: Point ImgControlCoordsToPixelCoords(Point locInCtrl, double imgCtrlActualWidth, double imgCtrlActualHeight) { if (ImageStretch == Stretch.None) return locInCtrl; Size renderSize = new Size(imgCtrlActualWidth, imgCtrlActualHeight); Size sourceSize = bitmap.Size; double xZoom = renderSize.Width / sourceSize.Width; double yZoom = renderSize.Height / sourceSize.Height; if (ImageStretch == Stretch.Fill) return new Point(locInCtrl.X / xZoom, locInCtrl.Y / yZoom); double zoom; if (ImageStretch == Stretch.Uniform) zoom = Math.Min(xZoom, yZoom); else // (imageCtrl.Stretch == Stretch.UniformToFill) zoom = Math.Max(xZoom, yZoom); return new Point(locInCtrl.X / zoom, locInCtrl.Y / zoom); }

  Read the article

• CA2000 passing object reference to base constructor in C#

  - by Timothy

  I receive a warning when I run some code through Visual Studio's Code Analysis utility which I'm not sure how to resolve. Perhaps someone here has come across a similar issue, resolved it, and is willing to share their insight. I'm programming a custom-painted cell used in a DataGridView control. The code resembles: public class DataGridViewMyCustomColumn : DataGridViewColumn { public DataGridViewMyCustomColumn() : base(new DataGridViewMyCustomCell()) { } It generates the following warning: CA2000 : Microsoft.Reliability : In method 'DataGridViewMyCustomColumn.DataGridViewMyCustomColumn()' call System.IDisposable.Dispose on object 'new DataGridViewMyCustomCell()' before all references to it are out of scope. I understand it is warning me DataGridViewMyCustomCell (or a class that it inherits from) implements the IDisposable interface and the Dispose() method should be called to clean up any resources claimed by DataGridViewMyCustomCell when it is no longer. The examples I've seen on the internet suggest a using block to scope the lifetime of the object and have the system automatically dispose it, but base isn't recognized when moved into the body of the constructor so I can't write a using block around it... which I'm not sure I'd want to do anyway, since wouldn't that instruct the run time to free the object which could still be used later inside the base class? My question then, is the code okay as is? Or, how could it be refactored to resolve the warning? I don't want to suppress the warning unless it is truly appropriate to do so.

  Read the article

• jquery parseFloat assigning val to field

  - by user306472

  I have a select box that gives a description of a product along with a price. Depending on what the user selects, I'd like to automatically grab that dollar amount from the option selected and assign it to a price input field. My HTML: <tr> <td> <select class="selector"> <option value="Item One $500">Item One $500</option> <option value="Item Two $400">Item Two $400</option> </select> </td> <td> <input type="text" class="price"></input> </td> </tr> So based on what is selected, I want either 500 or 400 assigned to the .class input. I tried this but I'm not quite sure where I'm going wrong: $('.selector').blur(function(){ var selectVal = ('.selector > option.val()'); var parsedPrice = parseFloat(selectVal.val()); $('.price').val(parsedPrice); });

  Read the article

• Multi tenant membership provider ASP.NET MVC

  - by Masna

  Hello, I'm building a multi-tenant app with ASP.NET MVC and have a problem with validating users. Situation I have: -a table with User(ID, Name, FirstName, Email) This table is made, so that a users who is registered in two tenants doesn't need to login again. -a table with Tentantuser(ID, TenantID, UserID (FK to table User), UserName, Loginname, Password, Active) This table contains de login en password for one tenant. Example: UserX is registered in TenantA and TenantB UserX logs in on TenantA, with his login and password for TenantA System verifies or login and password are correct in the table TenantUser System validates UserX which userID corresponds to the Id in the table User UserX goes to TenantB and is automatically logged in My problem: How can I create a custom Provider so I can check the login & password in a tenant? For example: public abstract bool ValidateUser(string username,string password); How can I say to my provider on which tenant the user is? How can I change this in something like: public overrides bool ValidateUser(string username,string password, string tenant); ? Or what is another way to solve this issue?

  Read the article

• Exporting makefile from Eclipse CDT

  - by Alex Farber

  I have C++ project in the Ubuntu OS, Eclipse CDT. My final goal is to build the project binaries for FreeBSD OS. The first test. I create simple C++ CDT project with main.cpp file: cout << "OK" << endl; and build it. Then I open Terminal window in Release directory: alex@alex-linux:~/workspace/HelloWorld/Release$ ls HelloWorld main.d main.o makefile objects.mk sources.mk subdir.mk alex@alex-linux:~/workspace/HelloWorld/Release$ rm HelloWorld main.d main.o alex@alex-linux:~/workspace/HelloWorld/Release$ ls makefile objects.mk sources.mk subdir.mk alex@alex-linux:~/workspace/HelloWorld/Release$ make Building file: ../main.cpp Invoking: GCC C++ Compiler g++ -O3 -Wall -c -fmessage-length=0 -MMD -MP -MF"main.d" -MT"main.d" -o"main.o" "../main.cpp" Finished building: ../main.cpp Building target: HelloWorld Invoking: GCC C++ Linker g++ -o"HelloWorld" ./main.o Finished building target: HelloWorld alex@alex-linux:~/workspace/HelloWorld/Release$ ./HelloWorld OK alex@alex-linux:~/workspace/HelloWorld/Release$ So far, so good. Now I copy the whole project tree to FreeBSD and trying to build it: $ cd /home/alex/project $ ls main.cpp release $ cd release $ ls makefile objects.mk sources.mk subdir.mk $ make "makefile", line 5: Need an operator "makefile", line 10: Need an operator "makefile", line 11: Need an operator "makefile", line 12: Need an operator CDT-generated makefile doesn't work. This is makefile beginning: $ Automatically-generated file. Do not edit! -include ../makefile.init RM := rm -rf $ All of the sources participating in the build are defined here -include sources.mk -include subdir.mk -include objects.mk ... Line 5 is -include ../makefile.init. Really, there is no such file. But it works by some way on Ubuntu computer. What is the trick, how can I build this? BTW, manually written makefile works: all: g++ -O0 -g3 -Wall -c -fmessage-length=0 -MMD -MP -MF"main.d" -MT"main.d" -o"main.o" "../main.cpp" g++ -o"HelloWorld" ./main.o Note: $ in makefile is actually #, I replaced it because # creates formatting problems inside of stackoverflow pre block.

  Read the article

• SharePoint: You cannot grant limited access permission level

  - by chiccodoro

  In my team, we implemented some UI to set user access rights (assign/revoke permission levels) on a certain SharePoint list. The UI supplies a "undo" feature: If you change the rights over the UI, you can restore the rights the user had before by clicking "undo". Now there is a problem if the user had the "Limited Access" permission level: This permission level is removed when you do a change over the UI. When trying to Undo, the permission level should be added again, which leads to a You cannot grant a user the limited access permission level. I've read that SharePoint grants that right automatically when a user gets access to some entity beneath the site. Still I can revoke the right manually, but then I cannot re-grant it. Is there a proper way I could work around that? My thoughts: Did I get it right that this "limited access" is granted by SharePoint on the site level only? So, do all the lists beneath the site only contain that permission level "accidentally" because they inherit it? Does that permission level have any effect at all on a list, or does it only apply to the site itself? So, would it be save to just remove it from a list and do not add it anymore when the user clicks "undo", since it has no effect anyway? (My UI always works on list / list item level, never on the whole site/web).

  Read the article

• Interpret Objective C scripts at runtime on iPhone?

  - by Brad Parks

  Is there anyway to load an objective c script at runtime, and run it against the classes/methods/objects/functions in the current iPhone app? The reason i ask is that I've been playing around with iPhone wax, a lua interpreter that can be embedded in an iPhone app, and it works very nicely, in the sense that any object/method/function that's publically available in your Objective C code is automatically bridged, and available in lua. This allows you to rapidly prototype applications by simply making the core of your app be lua files that are in the users documents directory. Just reload the app, and you can test out changes to your lua files without needing to rebuild the app in XCode - a big time saver! But, with Apples recent 3.1.3 SDK stuff, it got me thinking that the safest approach for doing this type of rapid prototypeing would be if you could use Objective C as the interpreted code... That way, worst case scenario, you could just compile it into your app before your release, instead. I have heard that the lua source can be compiled to byte code, and linked in at build time, but I think the ultimate safe thing would be if the scripted source was in objective c, not lua. This leads me to wondering (i've searched, but come up with nothing) if there are any examples on how to embed an Objective C Interpreter in an iPhone app? This would allow you to rapidly prototype your app against the current classes that are built into your binary, and, when your about to deploy your app, instead of running the classes through the in app interpreter, you compile them in instead.

  Read the article

• Windows server 2003 default administrator password

  - by Jason Baker

  Sorry if this is an overly simplistic question, but I'm a bit stuck here. :) I need a windows machine for me to do some programming for class. Since I have my Macbook with me everywhere I go, I figured that it would be easiest to install a vm. And since I can get a copy of Windows server 2k3 for free via dreamspark, I thought I'd try to do that. Here's what happened though: I installed windows server (disk one). When the system booted up, vmware automatically installed VMWare tools and prompted me to restart. There was also a prompt to start the installation of disc 2, but I figured it would be better to restart before doing that. When the machine came back up, I was prompted to log in as the administrator. The problem is that I wasn't prompted to make an administrator account or password. Is there a default password I can use? I've tried all the obvious ones (blank, password, etc) and googling, but I didn't come up with anything.

  Read the article

• Getting rid of scroll bar for position: absolute inside of position:relative inside of overflow:auto

  - by Marcos

  Hey guys, my first question here on stack overflow. Trying to get something pretty simple to work, I'm sure I'm missing something quite obvious. Still getting used to the "standard" css, too many years working with non-functional ones! Heh. So, sample of what I'm doing: <div style="overflow: auto; border: 1px solid"> hello <div style="position: relative; z-index: 99999; top: 0px; left: 0px;"> <div style="z-index: 99999; overflow-y: hidden; position: absolute; overflow: hidden; height: 200px; left: 0; auto: 0"> <ul> <li >New</li> <li >Old</li> </ul> </div> </div> </div> In essence: The first div is a container, that I would like to automatically overflow as content is added. Inside of that container, I have a popup menu, which I have simplified here. The popup menu appears (as it should) directly under "hello". My problem, however, is that instead of the popup menu "coming out" of the parent, as would be expected by the absolute position, it is actually causing a scrollbar to appear on the parent. I know that if I take otu the "position: relative" it works, but then it no longer appars where I want it (directly under the previous element). What am I missing here? EDIT: Sample here: http://marcos.metx.net/OverflowTest.htm

  Read the article

• Tracking changes in Entity Framework 4.0 using POCO Dynamic Proxies across multiple data contexts.

  - by Rob Packwood

  I started messing with EF 4.0 because I am curious about the POCO possibilities... I wanted to simulate disconnected web environment and wrote the following code to simulate this: Save a test object in the database. Retrieve the test object Dispose of the DataContext associated with the test object I used to retrieve it Update the test object Create a new data context and persist the changes on the test object that are automatically tracked within the DynamicProxy generated against my POCO object. The problem is that when I call dataContext.SaveChanges in the Test method above, the updates are not applied. The testStore entity shows a status of "Modified" when I check its EntityStateTracker, but it is no longer modified when I view it within the new dataContext's Stores property. I would have thought that calling the Attach method on the new dataContext would also bring the object's "Modified" state over, but that appears to not be the case. Is there something I am missing? I am definitely working with self-tracking POCOs using DynamicProxies. private static void SaveTestStore(string storeName = "TestStore") { using (var context = new DataContext()) { Store newStore = context.Stores.CreateObject(); newStore.Name = storeName; context.Stores.AddObject(newStore); context.SaveChanges(); } } private static Store GetStore(string storeName = "TestStore") { using (var context = new DataContext()) { return (from store in context.Stores where store.Name == storeName select store).SingleOrDefault(); } } [Test] public void Test_Store_Update_Using_Different_DataContext() { SaveTestStore(); Store testStore = GetStore(); testStore.Name = "Updated"; using (var dataContext = new DataContext()) { dataContext.Stores.Attach(testStore); dataContext.SaveChanges(SaveOptions.DetectChangesBeforeSave); } Store updatedStore = GetStore("Updated"); Assert.IsNotNull(updatedStore); }

  Read the article

• Unable to debug WCF service in VS2008 after UserNamePasswordValidator fault

  - by lsb

  Hi! I have a WCF service that I secure with a custom UserNamePasswordValidator and Message security running over wsHttpBinding. The release code works great. Unfortunately, when I try to run in debug mode after having previously used invalid credentials (the current credentials ARE valid!) VS2008 displays an annoying dialog box (more on this below). A simplified version of my Validate method from the validator might look like the following: public override void Validate(string userName, string password) { if (password != "ABC123") throw new FaultException("The password is invalid!"); } The client receives a MessageSecurityException with InnerException set to the FaultException I explictly threw. This is workable since my client can display the message text of the original FaultException I wanted the user to see. Unfortunately, in all subsequent service calls VS2008 displays an "Unable to automatically debug..." dialog. The only way I can stop this from happening is to exit VS2008, get back in and connect to my service using correct credentials. I should also add that this occurs even when I create a brand new proxy on each and every call. There's no chance MY channel is faulted when I make a call. Its likely, however, that VS2008 hangs on to the previously faulted channel and tries to use it for debugging purposes. Needless to say, this sucks! The entire reason I'm entering "bad" credentials is to test the "bad-credential" handling. Anyway, if anyone has any ideas as to how I can get around this bug (?!?) I'd be very very appreciative....

  Read the article

• Working with XML...

  - by gsvirdi

  I'm planning to create a news item which uses xml as it's backend and the Display should be like: Date: 08/Mar/2010 Title | News News 4 | Some news News 3 | Some news News 2 | Some news News 1 | Some news Date: 07/Mar/2010 Title | News News 5 | Some news News 4 | Some news News 3 | Some news News 2 | Some news News 1 | Some news Display should be sorted on Date (descending) Then news items should be sorted on time (descending) Today's news item should be on top, then titles should be sorted-decending (timewise), later will come previous day's news items. I'm not able to come up with the logic of xml which should be used in this case. moreover I'm not able to figure out how should I check "Today's date" in xml's "if" statement. ---- Previous Question ------------------------------------------------------------------ How can I export a data from textBox1, textBox2 & textBox3 on my winform (visual studio C#) so that it can automatically create an xml file with proper placing of these data???? Let's say: textBox1 = Name: textBox2 = Age: textBox3 = Roll No It would be great if the exported xml can be appended (add the new data in the EOF) if we export the data again. Any idea plz.....

  Read the article

• Biztalk Server 2009 - Failover Clustering and Network Load Balancing (NLB)

  - by FullOfQuestions

  Hi, We are planning a Biztalk 2009 set up in which we have 2 Biztalk Application Servers and 2 DB Servers (DB servers being in an Active/Passive Cluster). All servers are running Windows Server 2008 R2. As part of our application, we will have incoming traffic via the MSMQ, FILE and SOAP adapters. We also have a requirement for High-availability and Load-balancing. Let's say I create two different Biztalk Hosts and assign the FILE receive handler to the first one and the MSMQ receive handler to the second one. I now create two host instances for each of the two hosts (i.e. one for each of my two physical servers). After reviewing the Biztalk Documentation, this is what I know so far: For FILE (Receive), high-availablity and load-balancing will be achieved by Biztalk automatically because I set up a host instance on each of the two servers in the group. MSMQ (Receive) requires Biztalk Host Clustering to ensure high-availability (Host Clustering however requires Windows Failover Clustering to be set up as well). No loading-balancing option is clear here. SOAP (Receive) requires NLB to achieve Load-balancing and High-availability (if one server goes down, NLB will direct traffic to the other). This is where I'm completely puzzled and I desperately need your help: Is it possible to have a Windows Failover Cluster and NLB set up at the same time on the two application servers? If yes, then please tell me how. If no, then please explain to me how anyone is acheiving high-availability and load-balancing for MSMQ and SOAP when their underlying prerequisites are mutually exclusive! Your help is greatly appreciated, M

  Read the article

• What is the difference between System.Speech.Recognition and Microsoft.Speech.Recognition?

  - by Michael

  There are two similar namespaces and assemblies for speech recognition in .NET. I’m trying to understand the differences and when it is appropriate to use one or the other. There is System.Speech.Recognition from the assembly System.Speech (in System.Speech.dll). System.Speech.dll is a core DLL in the .NET Framework class library 3.0 and later There is also Microsoft.Speech.Recognition from the assembly Microsoft.Speech (in microsoft.speech.dll). Microsoft.Speech.dll is part of the UCMA 2.0 SDK I find the docs confusing and I have the following questions: System.Speech.Recognition says it is for "The Windows Desktop Speech Technology", does this mean it cannot be used on a server OS or cannot be used for high scale applications? The UCMA 2.0 Speech SDK ( http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd266409%28v=office.13%29.aspx ) says that it requires Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007 R2 as a prerequisite. However, I’ve been told at conferences and meetings that if I do not require OCS features like presence and workflow I can use the UCMA 2.0 Speech API without OCS. Is this true? If I’m building a simple recognition app for a server application (say I wanted to automatically transcribe voice mails) and I don’t need features of OCS, what are the differences between the two APIs?

  Read the article

• How to Link VS2010 Database Project and LINQ to SQL

  - by Jason

  As I am working with the new database projects in VS2010, and as I am learning LINQ to SQL, I am curious as to the best way to link the two groups of information so that when I update one, the other updates along with it. From my research here at SO, as well as in Google, it appears the general rule of thumb is: "Build the database, and then create your LINQ to SQL classes." Of course, if I make a change in my database, the LINQ to SQL doesn't update automatically and I have to do it by hand. This is fairly simple right now as my database is small, but I am curious if there is an easier way for this to happen. In addition, the LINQ to SQL tool is pretty nice. The ability to create tables, add associations, and even create inheritance is very simple. As my second question, I am curious as to whether or not VS2010 can work the other way - I design the database in the DBLM file and then link it back to my database project. I appreciate any help with either of these two questions. I'm really interested in making this as easy as possible to reduce errors during development and improve the speed at which changes can be made.

  Read the article

• SharePoint: Can't Connect to a Configuration Database When Using Configuration Wizard

  - by Denis

  Hello everyone. I wonder if you could help me with the following problem: We have a SharePoint farm consisted of two servers with an NLB (a load balancer), a database server and an index server (4 servers in total). The issues initially appeared when we were trying to change Search settings via Shared services provider and an error was appearing with the message I can’t even remember now. To fix that problem, we decided to restart Search services on the Index server via Central Administration… and the process had stuck with a status “stopping” for several days. We’ve found a few solutions on the forums, but nothing had helped. Then we’ve tried to exclude the Index server from the farm, but yet again, Search services would not stop. However, after a week we’ve noticed that the services finally stopped. That was a prologue. So, after the Search services have finally stopped, we decided to return the Index server back to the farm via the SharePoint Configuration wizard. When we click on a button “Search database instances” (don’t know the exact name in English, we have a Russian version), a correct database name and user are automatically appear in the relevant fields. Then we supply a password for the user and click “next” two times and the configuration begins. Unfortunately, at the second stage we receive the error “Could not connect to a configuration database” with the exception in the log file: “Exception: System.Reflection.TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.” Now we can’t figure out why the configuration wizard can’t connect to the configuration database. Any suggestions will be really appreciated.

  Read the article

• WPF DataGrid window resize does not resize DataGridColumns

  - by skylap

  I have a WPF DataGrid (from the WPFToolkit package) like the following in my application. <Controls:DataGrid> <Controls:DataGrid.Columns> <Controls:DataGridTextColumn Width="1*" Binding="{Binding Path=Column1}" Header="Column 1" /> <Controls:DataGridTextColumn Width="1*" Binding="{Binding Path=Column2}" Header="Column 2" /> <Controls:DataGridTextColumn Width="1*" Binding="{Binding Path=Column3}" Header="Column 3" /> </Controls:DataGrid.Columns> </Controls:DataGrid> The column width should be automatically adjusted such that all three columns fill the width of the grid, so I set Width="1*" on every column. I encountered two problems with this approach. When the ItemsSource of the DataGrid is null or an empty List, the columns won't size to fit the width of the grid but have a fixed width of about 20 pixel. Please see the following picture: http://img169.imageshack.us/img169/3139/initialcolumnwidth.png When I maximize the application window, the columns won't adapt their size but keep their initial size. See the following picture: http://img88.imageshack.us/img88/9362/columnwidthaftermaximiz.png When I resize the application window with the mouse, the columns won't resize. I was able to solve problem #3 by deriving a sub class from DataGrid and override the DataGrid's OnRenderSizeChanged method as follows. protected override void OnRenderSizeChanged(SizeChangedInfo sizeInfo) { base.OnRenderSizeChanged(sizeInfo); foreach (var column in Columns) { var tmp = column.GetValue(DataGridColumn.WidthProperty); column.ClearValue(DataGridColumn.WidthProperty); column.SetValue(DataGridColumn.WidthProperty, tmp); } } Unfortunately this does not solve problems #1 and #2. How can I get rid of them?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET / Active Directory - Supporting auto login for domain users

  - by Krisc

  I am developing a simple ASP.NET website that will run on the intranet on a WS2008(IIS7) box and respond to users running XP/IE8. Everything is domain connected and I am trying to automatically login the users much like SharePoint does. On my dev machine (XP), when running the site through VS, everything works. I can pickup on the user perfectly. I am using the following settings: <authentication mode="Windows"/> <identity impersonate="true"/> <anonymousIdentification enabled="false"/> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> However, when I publish to the WS2008 box, it doesn't work. Clearly I am missing a setting in IIS7 to support this. I have the following set for Authentication on the site: Anon Auth - Enabled ASP.NET Impersonation - Enabled Basic Auth - Disabled Forms Auth - Disabled Windows Auth - Disabled What am I missing? Thanks

  Read the article

• Partial template specialization of free functions - best practices

  - by Poita_

  As most C++ programmers should know, partial template specialization of free functions is disallowed. For example, the following is illegal C++: template <class T, int N> T mul(const T& x) { return x * N; } template <class T> T mul<T, 0>(const T& x) { return T(0); } // error: function template partial specialization ‘mul<T, 0>’ is not allowed However, partial template specialization of classes/structs is allowed, and can be exploited to mimic the functionality of partial template specialization of free functions. For example, the target objective in the last example can be achieved by using: template <class T, int N> struct mul_impl { static T fun(const T& x) { return x * N; } }; template <class T> struct mul_impl<T, 0> { static T fun(const T& x) { return T(0); } }; template <class T, int N> T mul(const T& x) { return mul_impl<T, N>::fun(x); } It's more bulky and less concise, but it gets the job done -- and as far as users of mul are concerned, they get the desired partial specialization. My questions is: when writing templated free functions (that are intended to be used by others), should you automatically delegate the implementation to a static method function of a class, so that users of your library may implement partial specializations at will, or do you just write the templated function the normal way, and live with the fact that people won't be able to specialize them?

  Read the article

• Google Map API v3 — set bounds and center

  - by Michael Bradley

  Hi, I've recently switched to Google Maps API V3. I'm working of a simple example which plots markers from an array, however I do not know how to center and zoom automatically with respect to the markers. I've searched the net high and low, including Google's own documentation, but have not found a clear answer. I know I could simply take an average of the co-ordinates, but how would I set the zoom accordingly? Could somebody please point me in the right direction? Perhaps you know of a good tutorial. Many thanks in advance, Michael function initialize() { var myOptions = { zoom: 10, center: new google.maps.LatLng(-33.9, 151.2), mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"),myOptions); setMarkers(map, beaches); } var beaches = [ ['Bondi Beach', -33.890542, 151.274856, 4], ['Coogee Beach', -33.423036, 151.259052, 5], ['Cronulla Beach', -34.028249, 121.157507, 3], ['Manly Beach', -33.80010128657071, 151.28747820854187, 2], ['Maroubra Beach', -33.450198, 151.259302, 1] ]; function setMarkers(map, locations) { var image = new google.maps.MarkerImage('images/beachflag.png', new google.maps.Size(20, 32), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(0, 32)); var shadow = new google.maps.MarkerImage('images/beachflag_shadow.png', new google.maps.Size(37, 32), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(0, 32)); var lat = map.getCenter().lat(); var lng = map.getCenter().lng(); var shape = { coord: [1, 1, 1, 20, 18, 20, 18 , 1], type: 'poly' }; for (var i = 0; i < locations.length; i++) { var beach = locations[i]; var myLatLng = new google.maps.LatLng(beach[1], beach[2]); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: myLatLng, map: map, shadow: shadow, icon: image, shape: shape, title: beach[0], zIndex: beach[3] }); } }

  Read the article

• Help with CSS - getting an element to fill 100% of the remaining vertical space

  - by Jack W-H

  Hi folks I'd consider myself a reasonable standard CSS/XHTML chap but I'm pretty baffled by this. The problem is available here: http://furnace.howcode.com - (note that the site is still in development, most stuff doesn't work, and it's likely to change fairly quickly as it is updated often). Basically I've got a fluid layout that needs to work in the same proportions on any resolution. Here's a screenshot of how the designer invisioned it (I apologise for my Paint-tool anotations): I want the tabs and the search box to STAY at the top of Col2, whilst there should be a scrollable area beneath it where the results are returned. I want NO vertical viewport scrolling, only within the 100%-height area thingy. My problem is this. If you take a look at http://furnace.howcode.com, you'll see that I've got a bit of a problem. I've made a placeholder black-background div which I will turn into the Tabs shortly. However I want the Col2 div to float BENEATH this and fill 100% of the remaining vertical height (i.e. go to the bottom of the screen, nomatter what the resolution is) and Col3 to be in the place where Col2 currently has been put (it normally is there automatically, when Col2 is in the right place!). I hope that makes sense. If you need to me to clarify please just ask. Cheers! Jack

  Read the article

• Understanding ServiceKnownType in WCF

  - by SLC

  I am having a little trouble understanding ServiceKnownType in WCF. Taken from this blog, the following code does not work: [DataContract(Namespace = “http://mycompany.com/”)] public class Shape{…} [DataContract(Namespace = “http://mycompany.com/”)] public class Circle : Shape {…} [ServiceContract] public interface IMyServer { [OperationContract] bool AddShape(Shape shape); } . IMyServer client = new ChannelFactory<IMyServer>(binding, endPoint).CreateChannel(); client.AddShape(new Circle()); The reason it doesn't work is because you are trying to add a circle, but the servicecontract only allows a Shape. You are supposed to do something with knowntypes, but I am a bit confused about how that works. Since that code is in the service, why doesn't it know automatically that a Circle is derived from Shape? Additionally, what does ServiceKnownType actually do? When ServiceKnownType is put below the DataContract, apparently that makes it work. I am guessing it says hey, this particular object type called Shape can also be a Circle. I am having trouble understanding why it would do it this way around, because if you add a new type like Square you are going to have to add that too, wouldn't it make sense if it cannot infer it, to put the KnownType onto the Square rather than the Shape? So the Square says hey, I am a Shape, and you don't have to fiddle with the Shape class?

  Read the article

• Using SharePoint label to display document version in Word 2007 doesn't work when moved to another l

  - by ITManagerWhoCodes

  I am surfacing the Document Library version of a Word 2007 document by creating a Label ({version}) within the content type of the Document Library and adding it as a Quick-part Label in the Word 2007 document. This works great. The latest version always shows up when I open the Word document. I also added this Version quick-part field to the footer of the Word document and then added this document as a document template to my content type, "ContentTypeMain". Now, I can go to my Document Library and I can create a New instance of "ContentTypeMain" with the Version field automatically there. This works great as well. However, if I create another Document Library and add the same Content Type, "ContentTypeMain" to it, the value of the Version quick-part doesn't update or refresh. The only way is to add another copy of the Label quick-part. It seems like the Quick-Part Label that maps to the Document Library Version is unique to the Document Library. My application dynamically creates subsites using site definitions and list templates. Thus the document library in each of the subsites are all being created from the same List Template. I inspected the XML files under the hood of the Word Document and it does look like there is a GUID attached to the Quick-Part Version field.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 324 325 326 327 328 329 330 331 332 333 334 335  | Next Page >