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• Is it acceptable to wrap PHP library functions solely to change the names?

  - by Carson Myers

  I'm going to be starting a fairly large PHP application this summer, on which I'll be the sole developer (so I don't have any coding conventions to conform to aside from my own). PHP 5.3 is a decent language IMO, despite the stupid namespace token. But one thing that has always bothered me about it is the standard library and its lack of a naming convention. So I'm curious, would it be seriously bad practice to wrap some of the most common standard library functions in my own functions/classes to make the names a little better? I suppose it could also add or modify some functionality in some cases, although at the moment I don't have any examples (I figure I will find ways to make them OO or make them work a little differently while I am working). If you saw a PHP developer do this, would you think "Man, this is one shoddy developer?" Additionally, I don't know much (or anything) about if/how PHP is optimized, and I know that usually PHP performace doesn't matter. But would doing something like this have a noticeable impact on the performance of my application?

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• Serializing a class containing a custom class

  - by Netfangled

  I want to serialize an object as xml that contains other custom classes. From what I understand (I've been reading MSDN and SO mostly), the XmlSerializer doesn't take this into account. This is the line that's confusing me: XML serialization serializes only the public fields and property values of an object into an XML stream. XML serialization does not include type information. For example, if you have a Book object that exists in the Library namespace, there is no guarantee that it will be deserialized into an object of the same type. Taken from MSDN, here For example, I want to serialize an object of type Order, but it contains a list of Products, and each one contains an object of type Category: class Order { List<Product> products; } class Product { Category type; } class Category { string name; string description; } And I want my Order object to be serialized like so: <Order> <Product> <Category Name=""> <Description></Description> </Category> </Product> <Product> <Category Name=""> <Description></Description> </Category> </Product> <Order> Does the XmlSerializer already do this? If not, is there another class that does or do I have to define the serialization process myself?

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• How to test a C++ library usability in configure.in?

  - by jbatista

  Hi, I'm working on a C++ project and I'm looking for a way to test the existence and usability of IBM Informix's library with the Autotools - namely, editing a configure.in. I don't have experience with Autotools, so basically I'm picking up from the project's configure.in et al. scripts and copying&changing where I feel needs to be changed. IOW, I've been adapting from the existing text in configure.in. So far I've been using successfully the AC_ CHECK_ LIB in configure.in to test whether a certain library both exists and is usable. But this only seems to work with libraries with functions, not e.g. classes. Namely, this fails when testing Informix's libifc++.so: AC_CHECK_LIB(ifc++, ITString, INFORMIX_LIB="-L$INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION/c++ -lifc++ -L$INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION -L$INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION/dmi -L$INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION/esql -lifdmi -lifsql -lifasf -lifgen -lifos -lifgls -lifglx $INFORMIX_LIB_LOCATION/esql/checkapi.o -lm -ldl -lcrypt -lnsl", echo "* WARNING: libifc++.so not found!" INFORMIX_INC="" INFORMIX_LIB="" ) I've also tried using other combinations, like ITString::ITString, etc. I haven't found a "pure" function in Informix's API (i.e., one that isn't contexted in a C++ class). So I'm hoping that either there's a way to use AC_CHECK_LIB in this context, or there's another autoconf/configure.in "command" for this specific use. Thanks in advance for your feedback.

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• Spring annotation-based container configuration context:include & exclude filters

  - by lisak

  Hey, first off I point to the similar question. I spent more than an hour to set this up, but PathMatchingResourcePatternResolver still scans everything. I have one common.xml (that is imported from specific.xml) and a specific.xml bean definition file. The context is loaded from specific.xml. In common.xml there is this element: <context:component-scan base-package="cz.instance.transl"> <context:exclude-filter type="aspectj" expression="cz.instance.transl.model..* &amp;&amp; cz.instance.transl.service..* &amp;&amp; cz.instance.transl.hooks..*"/> </context:component-scan> Where classes in packages like cz.instance.transl.service.* should not be subject of scanning, but everything else in here cz.instance.transl.* should be scanned through. But PathMatchingResourcePatternResolver marks everything as matching resources. It is the same with regex. BTW: in xml style configuration, one can have many components that share a common.xml beans via "import resource" when loading context. How this is done when Annotation-based container configuration is used ?

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• Obfuscator for .NET assembly (Maybe just a C++ obfuscator?)

  - by Pirate for Profit

  The software company I work for is using a ton of open source LGPL/BSD/MIT C++ code that we have written wrappers around to port "helper classes" into a .NET assembly, via C++/CLI. These libraries have wrapped old cryptic APIs into easy-to-use ones based on common sense, and will be very helpful for a lot of different tasks will be included in many future client's applications, and we might even license it to other software companies in the same field. So naturally we are tasked with looking into solutions for securing the code from prying eyes. What we're trying to do is stop the casual observer from seeing what's going on. Now I have hacked some crazy shit in EverQuest and other video games in my day so I know with enough tireless effort anything can be done. But we don't want to make it easy for whomever. To the point, besides the Visual Studio compiler's optimizations, is there's a C++ obfuscator or .NET assembly obfuscator (after it's been built o.O) or something that would scramble everything up, re-arrange data structures, string constants, etc. idk? And if such a thing exists, we'd be curious to know how that would impact performance, as some sections of code are time critical (funny saying that using a managed M$ framework).

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• Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

  - by Coding Gorilla

  I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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• JSP displaying source code instead of executing

  - by DJStroky

  I'm new to jsp and have ran into some trouble. Initially, the jsp file and associated java classes were built and tested fine on a test Tomcat server. Now, they've been transitioned to another server of what I believe is the same setup (except it's linux now instead of windows). But when the jsp page is accessed the source code is displayed instead of the jsp actually executing. I've googled for a while but received no success. I had thought that this page might solve the problem since there was no reference to the jsp file I was using or even the following snippets in my web.xml file in the WEB-INF folder: <servlet> <servlet-name>jsp</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>logVerbosityLevel</param-name> <param-value>WARNING</param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>3</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>jsp</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.jsp</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> I tried inserting these lines and restarting Tomcat, but no success. Any ideas?

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• C++ iterator and const_iterator problem for own container class

  - by BaCh

  Hi there, I'm writing an own container class and have run into a problem I can't get my head around. Here's the bare-bone sample that shows the problem. It consists of a container class and two test classes: one test class using a std:vector which compiles nicely and the second test class which tries to use my own container class in exact the same way but fails miserably to compile. #include <vector> #include <algorithm> #include <iterator> using namespace std; template <typename T> class MyContainer { public: class iterator { public: typedef iterator self_type; inline iterator() { } }; class const_iterator { public: typedef const_iterator self_type; inline const_iterator() { } }; iterator begin() { return iterator(); } const_iterator begin() const { return const_iterator(); } }; // This one compiles ok, using std::vector class TestClassVector { public: void test() { vector<int>::const_iterator I=myc.begin(); } private: vector<int> myc; }; // this one fails to compile. Why? class TestClassMyContainer { public: void test(){ MyContainer<int>::const_iterator I=myc.begin(); } private: MyContainer<int> myc; }; int main(int argc, char ** argv) { return 0; } gcc tells me: test2.C: In member function ‘void TestClassMyContainer::test()’: test2.C:51: error: conversion from ‘MyContainer::iterator’ to non-scalar type ‘MyContainer::const_iterator’ requested I'm not sure where and why the compiler wants to convert an iterator to a const_iterator for my own class but not for the STL vector class. What am I doing wrong?

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• what is the best practice approach for n-tier application development with entity framework?

  - by samsur

  I am building an application using entity framework. I am using the T4 template to generate self tracking entities. Currently, I am thinking of creating the entity framework code in a separate project. In this same project, I would have partial classes with additional methods for the entities. I am thinking of creating a separate project for a service layer (WCF) with methods for the upper/presentation tier. The WCF layer will reference the entity framework project. The methods in the WCF layer will return the entities or accept the entities as the parameters. I am thinkg of creating a third project for the presentation layer (ASP.net), this will make calls to the WCF service but will also need to reference the entities as the WCF methods take these types as the parameters/return types. In short, i want to use the STE entities generated by the T4 template as a DTO to be used in all layers. I was originally thinking of creating a business logic layer that maps to each entities. Example: If i have a customer class, the Business Layer would have a CustomerBLL class and then methods in the customerBLL will be used by the service layer. I was also trying to create a DTO in this business layer. I however found that this approach is very time consuming and i do not see a major benefit as it would create more maintenance work. What is the best practice for n-tier application development using entity framework 4?

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• How to "wrap" implementation in C#

  - by igor

  Hello, I have these classes in C# (.NET Framework 3.5) described below: public class Base { public int State {get; set;} public virtual int Method1(){} public virtual string Method2(){} ... public virtual void Method10(){} } public class B: Base { // some implementation } public class Proxy: Base { private B _b; public class Proxy(B b) { _b = b; } public override int Method1() { if (State == Running) return _b.Method1(); else return base.Method1(); } public override string Method2() { if (State == Running) return _b.Method2(); else return base.Method2(); } public override void Method10() { if (State == Running) _b.Method10(); else base.Method10(); } } I want to get something this: public Base GetStateDependentImplementation() { if (State == Running) // may be some other rule return _b; else return base; // compile error } and my Proxy's implementation will be: public class Proxy: Base { ... public override int Method1() { return GetStateDependentImplementation().Method1(); } public override string Method2() { return GetStateDependentImplementation().Method2(); } ... } Of course, I can do this (aggregation of base implementation): public RepeaterOfBase: Base // no any overrides, just inheritance { } public class Proxy: Base { private B _b; private RepeaterOfBase _Base; public class Proxy(B b, RepeaterOfBase aBase) { _b = b; _base = aBase; } } ... public Base GetStateDependentImplementation() { if (State == Running) return _b; else return _Base; } ... But instance of Base class is very huge and I have to avoid to have other additional copy in memory. So I have to simplify my code have to "wrap" implementation have to avoid a code duplication have to avoid aggregation of any additional instance of Base class (duplication) Is it possible to reach these goals?

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• Proper structure for dependency injection (using Guice)

  - by David B.

  I would like some suggestions and feedback on the best way to structure dependency injection for a system with the structure described below. I'm using Guice and thus would prefer solutions centered around it's annotation-based declarations, not XML-heavy Spring-style configuration. Consider a set of similar objects, Ball, Box, and Tube, each dependent on a Logger, supplied via the constructor. (This might not be important, but all four classes happen to be singletons --- of the application, not Gang-of-Four, variety.) A ToyChest class is responsible for creating and managing the three shape objects. ToyChest itself is not dependent on Logger, aside from creating the shape objects which are. The ToyChest class is instantiated as an application singleton in a Main class. I'm confused about the best way to construct the shapes in ToyChest. I either (1) need access to a Guice Injector instance already attached to a Module binding Logger to an implementation or (2) need to create a new Injector attached to the right Module. (1) is accomplished by adding an @Inject Injector injectorfield to ToyChest, but this feels weird because ToyChest doesn't actually have any direct dependencies --- only those of the children it instantiates. For (2), I'm not sure how to pass in the appropriate Module. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to structure this? The answers to this question mention passing in a Provider instead of using the Injector directly, but I'm not sure how that is supposed to work. EDIT: Perhaps a more simple question is: when using Guice, where is the proper place to construct the shapes objects? ToyChest will do some configuration with them, but I suppose they could be constructed elsewhere. ToyChest (as the container managing them), and not Main, just seems to me like the appropriate place to construct them.

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• What is the correct approach to using GWT with persistent objects?

  - by dankilman

  Hi, I am currently working on a simple web application through Google App engine using GWT. It should be noted that this is my first attempt at such a task. I have run into to following problem/dilema: I have a simple Class (getters/setters and nothing more. For the sake of clarity I will refer to this Class as DataHolder) and I want to make it persistent. To do so I have used JDO which required me to add some annotations and more specifically add a Key field to be used as the primary key. The problem is that using the Key class requires me to import com.google.appengine.api.datastore.Key which is ok on the server side, but then I can't use DataHolder on the client side, because GWT doesn't allow it (as far as I know). So I have created a sister Class ClientDataHolder which is almost identical, though it doesn't have all the JDO annotations nor the Key field. Now this actually works but It feels like I'm doing something wrong. Using this approach would require maintaining to separate classes for each entity I wish to have. So my question is: Is there a better way of doing this? Thank you.

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• Visual Studio: Collapse Methods, but not Comments (Summary etc.)

  - by Alex

  Hello, is there a way (settings? "macro"? extension?) that I can simply toggle outlining so that only the using section and my methods collapse to their signature line, but my comments (summary and double slash comments) and classes stay expanded? Examples: 1) Uncollapsed using System; using MachineGun; namespace Animals { /// <summary> /// Angry animal /// Pretty Fast, too /// </summary> public partial class Lion { // // Dead or Alive public Boolean Alive; /// <summary> /// Bad bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Bite(Animal animalToBite) { return animalToBite.Shoulder; } /// <summary> /// Fatal bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Kill(Animal animalToKill) { return animalToKill.Head; } } } 2) Collapsed (the following is my desired result): using[...] namespace Animals { /// <summary> /// Angry animal /// Pretty Fast, too /// </summary> public partial class Lion { // // Dead or Alive public Boolean Alive; /// <summary> /// Bad bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Bite(Animal animalToBite)[...] /// <summary> /// Fatal bite /// </summary> public PieceOfAnimal Kill(Animal animalToKill)[...] } } This is how I prefer seeing my class files (the collapsed form). I've been doing the collapsing by hand a million times by now and I think there should be a way to automate/customize/extend VS to do it the way I want? Every time I debug/hit a breakpoint, it uncollapses and messes up things. If I collapse via the context menu's collapse to outline etc. it also collapses my comments which isn't desired. Appreciate your help!

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• Speed comparison - Template specialization vs. Virtual Function vs. If-Statement

  - by Person

  Just to get it out of the way... Premature optimization is the root of all evil Make use of OOP etc. I understand. Just looking for some advice regarding the speed of certain operations that I can store in my grey matter for future reference. Say you have an Animation class. An animation can be looped (plays over and over) or not looped (plays once), it may have unique frame times or not, etc. Let's say there are 3 of these "either or" attributes. Note that any method of the Animation class will at most check for one of these (i.e. this isn't a case of a giant branch of if-elseif). Here are some options. 1) Give it boolean members for the attributes given above, and use an if statement to check against them when playing the animation to perform the appropriate action. Problem: Conditional checked every single time the animation is played. 2) Make a base animation class, and derive other animations classes such as LoopedAnimation and AnimationUniqueFrames, etc. Problem: Vtable check upon every call to play the animation given that you have something like a vector<Animation>. Also, making a separate class for all of the possible combinations seems code bloaty. 3) Use template specialization, and specialize those functions that depend on those attributes. Like template<bool looped, bool uniqueFrameTimes> class Animation. Problem: The problem with this is that you couldn't just have a vector<Animation> for something's animations. Could also be bloaty. I'm wondering what kind of speed each of these options offer? I'm particularly interested in the 1st and 2nd option because the 3rd doesn't allow one to iterate through a general container of Animations. In short, what is faster - a vtable fetch or a conditional?

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• How to embed revision information using mercurial and maven (and svn)

  - by Zwei Steinen

  Our project had a nice hack (although I'm guessing there are better ways to do it) to embed revision information into the artifacts (jar etc.) when we used svn. Now we have migrated to mercurial, and we want to have a similar thing, but before I start working on a similar hack with mercurial, I wanted to know if there are better ways to do this. Thanks for your answers! <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <executions> <execution> <phase>process-classes</phase> <id>svninfo</id> <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <configuration> <executable>svn</executable> <arguments> <argument>info</argument> <argument>../</argument> <argument>></argument> <argument>target/some-project/META-INF/svninfo.txt</argument> </arguments> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

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• Display latest date from a HTML attribute

  - by Tron

  I currently have several classes which contain a date inside an attribute. <div id="container"> <div class="date" date="19/11/2013"></div> <div class="date" date="06/11/2013"></div> </div> <div id="result"></div> What I would like to do, is find the latest date and display it on the page. So far, I've found the information in the attribute, checked that it doesn't exist in the array then and pushed it into an array. I'm not entirely sure of the best approach from here, but ideally i would like to find the latest date and then append it to the results container. $('.date').each(function () { var dateArray = []; var date = $(this).attr('date'); if ($.inArray(date, dateArray) == -1) { dateArray.push(date); } $('#result').append(dateArray); }); Any assistance on the above would be greatly appreciated. Thanks :)

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• Pass object or id

  - by Charles

  This is just a question about best practices. Imagine you have a method that takes one parameter. This parameter is the id of an object. Ideally, I would like to be able to pass either the object's id directly, or just the object itself. What is the most elegant way to do this? I came up with the following: def method_name object object_id = object.to_param.to_i ### do whatever needs to be done with that object_id end So, if the parameter already is an id, it just pretty much stays the same; if it's an object, it gets its id. This works, but I feel like this could be better. Also, to_param returns a string, which could in some cases return a "real" string (i.e. "string" instead of "2"), hence returning 0 upon calling to_i on it. This could happen, for example, when using the friendly id gem for classes. Active record offers the same functionality. It doesn't matter if you say: Table.where(user_id: User.first.id) # pass in id or Table.where(user_id: User.first) # pass in object and infer id How do they do it? What is the best approach to achieve this effect?

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• Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

  - by davetron5000

  Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

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• jtable update data not visible

  - by Thomas n

  I am running into a problem similar to what I have read here about inserted data and added data not showing up on jtable. I have tried repaint() and revalidate(), but to no avail. Basically, I have two classes say A and B. A calls a function in class B to add a row of data to the table. Here is the code.(By the way I am using Netbeans 7.1.2 to add a table and then add some code to handle the update.) public void callUpdateTable(){ DefaultTableModel myModel = (DefaultTableModel)jTable1.getModel(); DateFormat dateFormate = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss"); Object[] str = new Object[3]; Date date = new Date(); str[0] = dateFormate.format(date); str[1] = "Robot"; str[2] = "hello"; // myModel.addRow(str); myModel.insertRow(1, str); myModel.setValueAt("Hello", 1, 2); System.out.println("count = " + myModel.getValueAt(1, 2)); jTable1.repaint(); } The funny thing is on system print it prints out the value at the cell(1,2) I set the value, but doesn't show up on the table. Thank you for your help.

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• Best way to design a class in python

  - by Fraz

  So, this is more like a philosophical question for someone who is trying to understand classes. Most of time, how i use class is actually a very bad way to use it. I think of a lot of functions and after a time just indent the code and makes it a class and replacing few stuff with self.variable if a variable is repeated a lot. (I know its bad practise) But anyways... What i am asking is: class FooBar: def __init__(self,foo,bar): self._foo = foo self._bar = bar self.ans = self.__execute() def __execute(self): return something(self._foo, self._bar) Now there are many ways to do this: class FooBar: def __init__(self,foo): self._foo = foo def execute(self,bar): return something(self._foo, bar) Can you suggest which one is bad and which one is worse? or any other way to do this. This is just a toy example (offcourse). I mean, there is no need to have a class here if there is one function.. but lets say in __execute something() calls a whole set of other methods.. ?? Thanks

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• Why can't we just use a hash of passphrase as the encryption key (and IV) with symmetric encryption algorithms?

  - by TX_

  Inspired by my previous question, now I have a very interesting idea: Do you really ever need to use Rfc2898DeriveBytes or similar classes to "securely derive" the encryption key and initialization vector from the passphrase string, or will just a simple hash of that string work equally well as a key/IV, when encrypting the data with symmetric algorithm (e.g. AES, DES, etc.)? I see tons of AES encryption code snippets, where Rfc2898DeriveBytes class is used to derive the encryption key and initialization vector (IV) from the password string. It is assumed that one should use a random salt and a shitload of iterations to derive secure enough key/IV for the encryption. While deriving bytes from password string using this method is quite useful in some scenarios, I think that's not applicable when encrypting data with symmetric algorithms! Here is why: using salt makes sense when there is a possibility to build precalculated rainbow tables, and when attacker gets his hands on hash he looks up the original password as a result. But... with symmetric data encryption, I think this is not required, as the hash of password string, or the encryption key, is never stored anywhere. So, if we just get the SHA1 hash of password, and use it as the encryption key/IV, isn't that going to be equally secure? What is the purpose of using Rfc2898DeriveBytes class to generate key/IV from password string (which is a very very performance-intensive operation), when we could just use a SHA1 (or any other) hash of that password? Hash would result in random bit distribution in a key (as opposed to using string bytes directly). And attacker would have to brute-force the whole range of key (e.g. if key length is 256bit he would have to try 2^256 combinations) anyway. So either I'm wrong in a dangerous way, or all those samples of AES encryption (including many upvoted answers here at SO), etc. that use Rfc2898DeriveBytes method to generate encryption key and IV are just wrong.

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• How do I put all the types matching a particular C# interface in an IDictionary?

  - by Kevin Brassen

  I have a number of classes all in the same interface, all in the same assembly, all conforming to the same generic interface: public class AppleFactory : IFactory<Apple> { ... } public class BananaFactory : IFactory<Banana> { ... } // ... It's safe to assume that if we have an IFactory<T> for a particular T that it's the only one of that kind. (That is, there aren't two things that implement IFactory<Apple>.) I'd like to use reflection to get all these types, and then store them all in an IDictionary, where the key is typeof(T) and the value is the corresponding IFactory<T>. I imagine eventually we would wind up with something like this: _map = new Dictionary<Type, object>(); foreach(Type t in [...]) { object factoryForType = System.Reflection.[???](t); _map[t] = factoryForType; } What's the best way to do that? I'm having trouble seeing how I'd do that with the System.Reflection interfaces.

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• C++ Dynamic object construction

  - by Rajesh Subramanian

  I have a base class, class Msg { ParseMsg() { ParseMsgData(); ParseTrailer(); } virtual void ParseMsgData() = 0; ParseTrailer(); }; and derived classes, class InitiateMsg { void ParseMsgData() { ... } }; class ReadOperationMsg { void ParseMsgData() { ... } }; class WriteOperationMsg { void ParseMsgData() { ... } }; and the scenario is below, void UsageFunction(string data) { Msg* msg = ParseHeader(data); ParseMsg } Msg* ParseHeader(string data) { Msg *msg = NULL; .... switch() { case 1: msg = new InitiateMsg(); break; case 2: msg = new ReadOperationMsg{(); break; case 3: msg = new WriteOperationMsg{(); break; .... } return msg; } based on the data ParseHeader method will decide which object has to be created, So I have implemented ParseHeader function outside the class where I am using. How can I make the ParseHeader function inside the Msg class and then use it? In C# the same is achieved by defining ParseHeader method as static with in class and use it from outside,

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• Spring MessageSource not being used during validation

  - by Jeremy

  I can't get my messages in messages.properties to be used during Spring validation of my form backing objects. app-config.xml: <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="messages" /> </bean> WEB-INF/classes/messages.properties: NotEmpty=This field should not be empty. Form Backing Object: ... @NotEmpty @Size(min=6, max=25) private String password; ... When I loop through all errors in the BindingResult and output the ObjectError's toString I get this: Field error in object 'settingsForm' on field 'password': rejected value []; codes [NotEmpty.settingsForm.password,NotEmpty.password,NotEmpty.java.lang.String,NotEmpty]; arguments [org.springframework.context.support.DefaultMessageSourceResolvable: codes [settingsForm.password,password]; arguments []; default message [password]]; default message [may not be empty] As you can see the default message is "may not be empty" instead of my message "This field should not be empty". I do get my correct message if I inject the messageSource into a controller and output this: messageSource.getMessage("NotEmpty", new Object [] {"password"}, "default empty message", null); So why isn't the validation using my messages.properties? I'm running Spring 3.1.1. Thanks!

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• Improve a regex statement in order to be as efficient as it can be

  - by user551625

  I have a PHP program that, at some point, needs to analyze a big amount of HTML+javascript text to parse info. All I want to parse needs to be in two parts. Seperate all "HTML goups" to parse Parse each HTML group to get the needed information. In the 1st parse it needs to find: <div id="myHome" And start capturing after that tag. Then stop capturing before <span id="nReaders" And capture the number that comes after this tag and stop. In the 2nd parse use the capture nº 1 (0 has the whole thing and 2 has the number) from the parse made before and then find . I already have code to do that and it works. Is there a way to improve this, make it easier for the machine to parse? preg_match_all('%<div id="myHome"[^>]>(.*?)<span id="nReaders[^>]>([0-9]+)<"%msi', $data, $results, PREG_SET_ORDER); foreach($results AS $result){ preg_match_all('%<div class="myplacement".*?[.]php[?]((?:next|before))=([0-9]+).*?<tbody.*?<td[^>]>.*?[0-9]+"%msi', $result[1], $mydata, PREG_SET_ORDER); //takes care of the data and finish the program Note: I need this for a freeware program so it must be as general as possible and, if possible, not use php extensions ADD: I ommitted some parts here because I didn't expect for answers like those. There is also a need to parse text inside one of the tags that is in the document. It may be the 6th 7th or 8th tag but I know it is after a certain tag. The parser I've checked (thx profitphp) does work to find the script tag. What now? There are more than 1 tag with the same class. I want them all. But I want only with also one of a list of classes..... Where can I find instructions and demos and limitations of DOM parsers (like the one in http://simplehtmldom.sourceforge.net/)? I need something that will work on, at least, a big amount of free servers.

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