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  • Ajax problem not displaying data using multiple javascript calls...

    - by Ronedog
    I'm writing an app that uses ajax to retrieve data from a mysql db using php. Because of the nature of the app, the user clicks an href link that has an "onclick" event used to call the javascript/ajax. I'm retrieving the data from mysql, then calling a separate php function which creates a small html table with the necessary data in it. The new table gets passed back to the responseText and is displayed inside a div tag. The tables only have around 10-20 rows of data in them. This functionality is working fine and displays the data in html form exactly as it needs to be on the page. The problem is this. the HREF "onclick" event needs to run multiple scripts one right after the other. The first script updates the "existing" data and inside the "update_existing" function is a call to refresh a section of the page with the updated HTML from the responseText. Then when that is done a "display_html" function is called which also updates a different section of the page with it's newly created HTML table. The event looks like this: Update This string gets built dynamically using php with parameters supplied, but for this example I simply took the parameters out so it didn't get confusing. The "update_existion() function actually calls the display_html() function which updates a section of the page as needed. I need to update a different section of the page on the same click of the mouse right after the update, which is why I'm calling the display_html() again, right after it. The problem is only the last call is being updated on my screen. In other words, the 2nd function call "display_html()" executes and displays the refreshed data just fine, but the previous call to update_existing() runs and updates the database properly, but doesn't display on the screen unless I press the browsers "refresh" button, which of course displays the new data exactly how I want it to, but I don't want the users to have to press the "refresh" button. I tried adding multiple "display_html() calls one right after the other, separating all of them with the semicolon and learned that only the very last function call actually refreshed the div element on the html page with the table information, although all the previous display_html() calls worked, they couldn't be seen on the page without a refresh of the browser. Is this a problem with javascript, or the ajax call, or is this a limitation in the DOM that only allows one element to be updated at a time. The ajax call is asynchroneous, but I've tried both, only async works period. This is the same in both Firefox and Internet Explorer Any ideas what's going on and how to get around it so I can run these multiple scripts?

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  • How to merge a "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn copy)

    - by MatrixFrog
    I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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  • NHibernate - I have many, but I only want one!

    - by MartinF
    Hello, I have a User which can have many Emails. This is mapped through a List collection (exposed by IEnumerable Emails on the User). For each User one of the Emails will be the Primary one ("Boolean IsPrimary" property on Email). How can I get the primary Email from User without NHibernate loads every email for the User ? I have the following two entities, with a corresponding table for each public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IEnumerable<Email> Emails { get; set; } // public virtual Email PrimaryEmail { get; set; } - Possible somehow ? } public class Email { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Address { get; set; } public virtual Boolean IsPrimary { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } } Can I map a "Email PrimaryEmail" property etc. on the User to the Email which have "IsPrimary=1" set somehow ? Maybe using a Sql Formula ? a View ? a One-To-One relationship ? or another way ? It should be possible to change the primary email to be one of the other emails, so i would like to keep them all in 1 table and just change the IsPrimary property. Using a Sql Formula, is it be possible to keep the "PrimaryEmail" property on the User up-to-date, if I set the IsPrimary property on the current primary email to false, and then afterwards set the PrimaryEmail property to the email which should be the new primary email and set IsPrimary to true ? Will NHibernate track changes on the "old/current" primary Email loaded by the Sql Formula ? What about the 1 level cache and the 2 level cache when using SqlFormula ? I dont know if it could work by using a View ? Then i guess the Email could be mapped like a Component ? Will it work when updating the Email data when loaded from the View ? Is there a better way ? As I have a bi-directional relationship between User and Email I could in many cases of course query the primary Email and then use the "User" property on the Email to get the User (instead of the other way around - going from User to the primary Email) Hope someone can help ?

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  • How can I inject Javascript (including Prototype.js) in other sites without cluttering the global na

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm currently on a project that is a big site that uses the Prototype library, and there is already a humongous amount of Javascript code. We're now working on a piece of code that will get "injected" into other people's sites (picture people adding a <script> tag in their sites) which will then run our code and add a bunch of DOM elements and functionality to their site. This will have new pieces of code, and will also reuse a lot of the code that we use on our main site. The problem I have is that it's of course not cool to just add a <script> that will include Prototype in people's pages. If we do that in a page that's already using ANY framework, we're guaranteed to screw everything up. jQuery gives us the option to "rename" the $ object, so it could handle this situation decently, except obviously for the fact that we're not using jQuery, so we'd have to migrate everything. Right now i'm contemplating a number of ugly choices, and I'm not sure what's best... Rewrite everything to use jQuery, with a renamed $ object everywhere. Creating a "new" Prototype library with only the subset we'd be using in "injected" code, and renaming $ to something else. Then again I'd have to adapt the parts of my code that would be shared somehow. Not using a library at all in injected code, to keep it as clean as possible, and rewriting the shared code to use no library at all. This would obviously degenerate into us creating our own frankenstein of a library, which is probably the worst case scenario ever. I'm wondering what you guys think I could do, and also whether there's some magic option that would solve all my problems... For example, do you think I could use something like Caja / Cajita to sandbox my own code and isolate it from the rest of the site, and have Prototype inside of there? Or am I completely missing the point with that? I also read once about a technique for bookmarklets, were you add your code like this: (function() { /* your code */ })(); And then your code is all inside your anonymous function and you haven't touched the global namespace at all. Do you think I could make one file containing: (function() { /* Full Code of the Prototype file here */ /* All my code that will run in the "other" site */ InitializeStuff_CreateDOMElements_AttachEventHandlers(); })(); Would that work? Would it accomplish the objective of not cluttering the global namespace, and not killing the functionality on a site that uses jQuery, for example? Or is Prototype too complex somehow to isolate it like that? (NOTE: I think I know that that would create closures everywhere and that's slower, but I don't care too much about performance, my code is not doing anything that complex)

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  • Permutations of Varying Size

    - by waiwai933
    I'm trying to write a function in PHP that gets all permutations of all possible sizes. I think an example would be the best way to start off: $my_array = array(1,1,2,3); Possible permutations of varying size: 1 1 // * See Note 2 3 1,1 1,2 1,3 // And so forth, for all the sets of size 2 1,1,2 1,1,3 1,2,1 // And so forth, for all the sets of size 3 1,1,2,3 1,1,3,2 // And so forth, for all the sets of size 4 Note: I don't care if there's a duplicate or not. For the purposes of this example, all future duplicates have been omitted. What I have so far in PHP: function getPermutations($my_array){ $permutation_length = 1; $keep_going = true; while($keep_going){ while($there_are_still_permutations_with_this_length){ // Generate the next permutation and return it into an array // Of course, the actual important part of the code is what I'm having trouble with. } $permutation_length++; if($permutation_length>count($my_array)){ $keep_going = false; } else{ $keep_going = true; } } return $return_array; } The closest thing I can think of is shuffling the array, picking the first n elements, seeing if it's already in the results array, and if it's not, add it in, and then stop when there are mathematically no more possible permutations for that length. But it's ugly and resource-inefficient. Any pseudocode algorithms would be greatly appreciated. Also, for super-duper (worthless) bonus points, is there a way to get just 1 permutation with the function but make it so that it doesn't have to recalculate all previous permutations to get the next? For example, I pass it a parameter 3, which means it's already done 3 permutations, and it just generates number 4 without redoing the previous 3? (Passing it the parameter is not necessary, it could keep track in a global or static). The reason I ask this is because as the array grows, so does the number of possible combinations. Suffice it to say that one small data set with only a dozen elements grows quickly into the trillions of possible combinations and I don't want to task PHP with holding trillions of permutations in its memory at once.

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  • How do I get ELMAH to work with SQL Server (permission problems)

    - by Gary McGill
    I've got ELMAH working on my (Cassini) development server, and was quite happy with it, but now that I'm trying to move everything to my production server (IIS7), the honeymoon looks like being over. I've got past the "gotcha" with IIS7, which frankly could have been better highlighted in the documentation, and if I just use the in-memory log then it works. However, I'm trying to get it to use the SQL Server log (as I do on my development system), and I'm getting an error along the lines of: The EXECUTE permission was denied on the object ELMAH_GetErrorsXml Well, fine. I know how to grant database permissions, but I'm really struggling to understand which user and which stored procs/tables I need to grant access to. The thing that's really confusing me is that I didn't have to do anything like this to get it to work on my development server. The only difference I can see is that on my development server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\IUSR, whereas on my production server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE. (It's just using a trusted connection so I've not explicitly configured it to do that - I presume it's to do with the web server). UPDATE: I've since established that because I'm using Cassini, it was actually logging in as me (an admin) and not IUSR, which explains why I didn't get any permission problems. On my development server, the IUSR account is a member of the public database role, and has access to the required database (again as "public"). There's no explicit granting of object-level permissions. [See update above - this is irrelevant]. On my production server, I've added NETWORK SERVICE in exactly the same way (public database role, explicit access to the database as "public"). Yet, I get this permission error. Why?!! [See update above - the only reason I don't get a permission error is because I'm running as an admin]. And, of course, if the fact that it works locally is just "luck", I will need to know which SPs/tables to grant access to. My guess would be all 3 SPs and not the table, but it would be good (again) to see some documentation that makes this explicit.

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  • Can I append to a preprocessor macro?

    - by JCSalomon
    Is there any way in standard C—or with GNU extensions—to append stuff to a macro definition? E.g., given a macro defined as #define quux_list X(foo) X(bar) can I append X(bas) so that it now expands as if I’d defined it #define quux_list X(foo) X(bar) X(bas)? I’m playing with discriminated/tagged unions along these lines: struct quux_foo { int x; }; struct quux_bar { char *s; }; struct quux_bas { void *p; }; enum quux_type {quux_foo, quux_bar, quux_bas}; struct quux { enum quux_type type; union { struct quux_foo foo; struct quux_bar bar; struct quux_bas bas; } t; }; I figure this is a good place for the X-macro. If I define a macro #define quux_table X(foo) X(bar) X(bas) the enumeration & structure can be defined thus, and never get out of sync: #define X(t) quux_ ## t, enum quux_type {quux_table}; #undef X #define X(t) struct quux_ ## t t; struct quux { enum quux_type type; union {quux_table} t; }; #undef X Of course, the quux_* structures can get out of sync, so I’d like to do something like this, only legally: struct quux_foo { int x; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(foo) struct quux_bar { char *s; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(bar) struct quux_bas { void *p; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(bas) (Well, what I really want to be able to do is something like member_struct(quux, foo) { int x; }; but I’m well aware that macros cannot be (re)defined from within macros.) Anyhow, that’s my motivating example. Is there a way to accomplish this? Boost.Preprocessor examples are fine, if you can show me how to make the X-macro technique work with that library.

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  • What was "The Next Big Thing" when you were just starting out in programming?

    - by Andrew
    I'm at the beginning of my career and there are lots of things which are being touted as "The Next Big Thing". For example: Dependency Injection (Spring, etc) MVC (Struts, ASP.NET MVC) ORMs (Linq To SQL, Hibernate) Agile Software Development These things have probably been around for some time, but I've only just started out. And don't get me wrong, I think these things are great! So, what was "The Next Big Thing" when you were starting out? When was it? Were people sceptical of it at first? Why? Did you think it would catch on? Did it pan out and become widely accepted/used? If not, why not? EDIT It's been nearly a week since I first posted this question and I can safely say that I did not expect such explosive interest. I asked the question so that I could gain a perspective of what kinds of innovations in programming people thought were most important when they were starting out. At the time of writing this I have read ~95% of all answers. To answer a few questions, the "Next Big Things" I listed are ones that I am currently really excited about and that I had not really been exposed to until I started working. I'm hoping to implement some or all of these in the near future at my current workplace. To many people they are probably old news. In regards to the "is this a real question" debate, I can see that obviously hasn't been settled yet. I feel bad whenever I read a comment saying that these kinds of questions take away from the real meaning of SO. I'm not wholly convinced that it doesn't. On the other hand, I have seen a lot of comments saying what a great question it is. Anyway, I have chosen "The Internet!" as my answer to this question. I don't think (in my very humble opinion, and, it seems many SOers opinions) that many things related to programming can compare. Nowadays every business and their dog has a website which can do anything from simply supplying information to purchasing goods halfway around the world to updating your blog. And of course, all these businesses need people like us. Thanks to everyone for all the great answers!

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  • xslt help - my transform is not rendering correctly

    - by Hcabnettek
    Hi All, I'm trying to apply an xlst transformation using the following file. This is very basic, but I wanted to build off of this when I get it working correctly. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl"> <xsl:template match="/"> <div> <h2>Station Inventory</h2> <hr/> <xsl:apply-templates/> </div> </xsl:template> Here is some xml I'm using for the source. <StationInventoryList xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns="http://www.dummy-tmdd-address"> <StationInventory> <station-id>9940</station-id> <station-name>Zone 9940-SEB</station-name> <station-travel-direction>SEB</station-travel-direction> <detector-list> <detector> <detector-id>2910</detector-id> <detector-name>1999 West Smith Exit SEB</detector-name> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>9205</detector-id> <detector-name>CR-155 Exit SEB</detector-name> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>9710</detector-id> <detector-name>Pt of View SEB</detector-name> </detector> </detector-list> </StationInventory> </StationInventoryList> Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? The simple intent here is to make a list of station, then make a list of detectors at a station. This is a small piece of the XML. It would have multiple StationInventory elements. I'm using the data as the source for an asp:xml control and the xslt file as the transformsource. var service = new InternalService(); var result = service.StationInventory(); invXml.DocumentContent = result; invXml.TransformSource = "StationInventory.xslt"; invXml.DataBind(); Any tips are of course appreciated. Have a terrific weekend. Cheers, ~ck

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  • Error using `loess.smooth` but not `loess` or `lowess`

    - by Sandy
    I need to smooth some simulated data, but occasionally run into problems when the simulated ordinates to be smoothed are mostly the same value. Here is a small reproducible example of the simplest case. > x <- 0:50 > y <- rep(0,51) > loess.smooth(x,y) Error in simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, : NA/NaN/Inf in foreign function call (arg 1) loess(y~x), lowess(x,y), and their analogue in MATLAB produce the expected results without error on this example. I am using loess.smooth here because I need the estimates evaluated at a set number of points. According to the documentation, I believe loess.smooth and loess are using the same estimation functions, but the former is an "auxiliary function" to handle the evaluation points. The error seems to come from a C function: > traceback() 3: .C(R_loess_raw, as.double(pseudovalues), as.double(x), as.double(weights), as.double(weights), as.integer(D), as.integer(N), as.double(span), as.integer(degree), as.integer(nonparametric), as.integer(order.drop.sqr), as.integer(sum.drop.sqr), as.double(span * cell), as.character(surf.stat), temp = double(N), parameter = integer(7), a = integer(max.kd), xi = double(max.kd), vert = double(2 * D), vval = double((D + 1) * max.kd), diagonal = double(N), trL = double(1), delta1 = double(1), delta2 = double(1), as.integer(0L)) 2: simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, "none", "interpolate", control$cell, iterations, control$trace.hat) 1: loess.smooth(x, y) loess also calls simpleLoess, but with what appears to be different arguments. Of course, if you vary enough of the y values to be nonzero, loess.smooth runs without error, but I need the program to run in even the most extreme case. Hopefully, someone can help me with one and/or all of the following: Understand why only loess.smooth, and not the other functions, produces this error and find a solution for this problem. Find a work-around using loess but still evaluating the estimate at a specified number of points that can differ from the vector x. For example, I might want to use only x <- seq(0,50,10) in the smoothing, but evaluate the estimate at x <- 0:50. As far as I know, using predict with a new data frame will not properly handle this situation, but please let me know if I am missing something there. Handle the error in a way that doesn't stop the program from moving onto the next simulated data set. Thanks in advance for any help on this problem.

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  • Using VCL for the web (intraweb) as a trick for adding web interface to a legacy non-tiered (2 tiers

    - by user193655
    My team is maintaining a huge Client Server win32 Delphi application. It is a client/server application (Thick client) that uses DevArt (SDAC) components to connect to SQL Server. The business logic is often "trapped" in Component's event handlers, anyway with some degree of refactoring it is doable to move the business logic in common units (a big part of this work has already been done during refactoring... Maintaing legacy applications someone else wrote is very frustrating, but this is a very common job). Now there is the request of a web interface, I have several options of course, in this question i want to focus on the VCL for the web (intraweb) option. The idea is to use the common code (the same pas files) for both the client/server application and the web application. I heard of many people that moved legacy apps from delphi to intraweb, but here I am trying to keep the Thick client too. The idea is to use common code, may be with some compiler directives to write specific code: {$IFDEF CLIENTSERVER} {here goes the thick client specific code} {$ELSE} {here goes the Intraweb specific code} {$ENDIF} Then another problem is the "migration plan", let's say I have 300 features and on the first release I will have only 50 of them available in the web application. How to keep track of it? I was thinking of (ab)using Delphi interfaces to handle this. For example for the User Authentication I could move all the related code in a procedure and declare an interface like: type IUserAuthentication= interface['{0D57624C-CDDE-458B-A36C-436AE465B477}'] procedure UserAuthentication; end; In this way as I implement the IUserAuthentication interface in both the applications (Thick Client and Intraweb) I know that That feature has been "ported" to the web. Anyway I don't know if this approach makes sense. I made a prototype to simulate the whole process. It works for a "Hello world" application, but I wonder if it makes sense on a large application or this Interface idea is only counter-productive and can backfire. My question is: does this approach make sense? (the Interface idea is just an extra idea, it is not so important as the common code part described above) Is it a viable option? I understand it depends a lot of the kind of application, anyway to be generic my one is in the CRM/Accounting domain, and the number of concurrent users on a single installation is typically less than 20 with peaks of 50. EXTRA COMMENT (UPDATE): I ask this question because since I don't have a n-tier application I see Intraweb as the unique option for having a web application that has common code with the thick client. Developing webservices from the Delphi code makes no sense in my specific case, so the alternative I have is to write the web interface using ASP.NET (duplicating the business logic), but in this case I cannot take advantage of the common code in an easy way. Yes I could use dlls maybe, but my code is not suitable for that.

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  • How to merge an improperly created "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn cop

    - by MatrixFrog
    I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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  • How do I prevent programmatically the "Program Compatibility Assistant" in Vista (and Windows 7) fro

    - by Asaf
    I develop a C++ program which might use adobe flash, although it is not essential. I use CoCreateInstance to create the flash object, and if it fails, I know flash is not installed so I don't use it. However, in Vista (and I think Windows 7 as well), when flash is not installed, after leaving the application, the "Program Compatibility Assistant" pops up a message saying that "This program requires a missing Windows component" specifying the flash.ocx. Is there a way to prevent this message from appearing? I don't want to force any user to install flash (especially since it's the IE ActiveX, and FireFox users might not have it installed), and my application can operate well without the flash. Plus this message is really annoying when it appears after every run. I don't mean of course disabling the PCA on the user's machine, but programmatically disable this specific appearance on all machines. Any thoughts? Thanks [EDIT:] I followed Shay's lead (thanks), and did some more digging of my own. I added the following XML to the application's manifest: <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v2"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker" uiAccess="false"> </requestedExecutionLevel> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> (see also: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb756929.aspx) This solved the problem on Vista 64. To solve the same problem on Windows 7, I added the following: <compatibility xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:compatibility.v1"> <application> <!--The ID below indicates application support for Windows Vista --> <supportedOS Id="{e2011457-1546-43c5-a5fe-008deee3d3f0}"/> <!--The ID below indicates application support for Windows 7 --> <supportedOS Id="{35138b9a-5d96-4fbd-8e2d-a2440225f93a}"/> </application> </compatibility> (See also: blogs.msdn.com/yvesdolc/archive/2009/09/22/the-new-compatibility-section-in-the-application-manifest.aspx) Solved Windows 7. But for some reason, it still happens in Vista 32... I also tried editing the manifest of the specific DLL which causes the problem, but it had no effect. Only the executable's manifest itself affected the problem. So... Vista 32?

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  • Getting problem in Java OpenCV code.

    - by Chetan
    I had successfully compile my java code in Eclipse with name FaceDetection.java... I am getting an Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: main.... Please help me to remove this Exception.. Here is the code import java.awt.; import java.awt.event.; import java.awt.image.MemoryImageSource; import hypermedia.video.OpenCV; @SuppressWarnings("serial") public class FaceDetection extends Frame implements Runnable { /** * Main method. * @param String[] a list of user's arguments passed from the console to this program */ public static void main( String[] args ) { System.out.println( "\nOpenCV face detection sample\n" ); new FaceDetection(); } // program execution frame rate (millisecond) final int FRAME_RATE = 1000/30; OpenCV cv = null; // OpenCV Object Thread t = null; // the sample thread // the input video stream image Image frame = null; // list of all face detected area Rectangle[] squares = new Rectangle[0]; /** * Setup Frame and Object(s). */ FaceDetection() { super( "Face Detection Sample" ); // OpenCV setup cv = new OpenCV(); cv.capture( 320, 240 ); cv.cascade( OpenCV.CASCADE_FRONTALFACE_ALT ); // frame setup this.setBounds( 100, 100, cv.width, cv.height ); this.setBackground( Color.BLACK ); this.setVisible( true ); this.addKeyListener( new KeyAdapter() { public void keyReleased( KeyEvent e ) { if ( e.getKeyCode()==KeyEvent.VK_ESCAPE ) { // ESC : release OpenCV resources cv.dispose(); System.exit(0); } } } ); // start running program t = new Thread( this ); t.start(); } /** * Draw video frame and each detected faces area. */ public void paint( Graphics g ) { // draw image g.drawImage( frame, 0, 0, null ); // draw squares g.setColor( Color.RED ); for( Rectangle rect : squares ) g.drawRect( rect.x, rect.y, rect.width, rect.height ); } /** * Execute this sample. */ @SuppressWarnings("static-access") public void run() { while( t!=null && cv!=null ) { try { t.sleep( FRAME_RATE ); // grab image from video stream cv.read(); // create a new image from cv pixels data MemoryImageSource mis = new MemoryImageSource( cv.width, cv.height, cv.pixels(), 0, cv.width ); frame = createImage( mis ); // detect faces squares = cv.detect( 1.2f, 2, OpenCV.HAAR_DO_CANNY_PRUNING, 20, 20 ); // of course, repaint repaint(); } catch( InterruptedException e ) {;} } } }

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  • What are the basics of dealing with user input events in Android?

    - by user279112
    Hello. I thought I had understood this question, but something is quite wrong here. When the user (me, so far) tries to press keys, nothing really happens, and I am having a lot of trouble understanding what it is that I've missed. Consider this before I present some code to help clarify my problem: I am using Android's Lunar Lander example to make my first "real" Android program. In that example, of course, there exist a class LunarView, and class nested therein LunarThread. In my code the equivalents of these classes are Graphics and GraphicsThread, respectively. Also I can make sprite animations in 2D just fine on Android. I have a Player class, and let's say GraphicsThread has a Player member referred to as "player". This class has four coordinates - x1, y1, x2, and y2 - and they define a rectangle in which the sprite is to be drawn. I've worked it out so that I can handle that perfectly. Whenever the doDraw(Canvas canvas) method is invoked, it'll just look at the values of those coordinates and draw the sprite accordingly. Now let's say - and this isn't really what I'm trying to do with the program - I'm trying to make the program where all it does is display the Player sprite at one location of the screen UNTIL the FIRST time the user presses the Dpad's left button. Then the location will be changed to another set position on the screen, and the sprite will be drawn at that position for the rest of the program invariably. Also note that the GraphicsThread member in Graphics is called "thread", and that the SurfaceHolder member in GraphicsThread is called "mSurfaceHolder". So consider this method in class Graphics: @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent msg) { return thread.keyDownHandler(keyCode, msg); } Also please consider this method in class GraphicsThread: boolean keyDownHandler(int keyCode, KeyEvent msg) { synchronized (mSurfaceHolder) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_DPAD_LEFT) { player.x1 = 100; player.y1 = 100; player.x2 = 120; player.y2 = 150; } } return true; } Now then assuming that player's coordinates start off as (200, 200, 220, 250), why won't he do anything different when I press Dpad: Left? Thanks!

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  • "Emulating" Application.Run using Application.DoEvents

    - by Luca
    I'm getting in trouble. I'm trying to emulate the call Application.Run using Application.DoEvents... this sounds bad, and then I accept also alternative solutions to my question... I have to handle a message pump like Application.Run does, but I need to execute code before and after the message handling. Here is the main significant snippet of code. // Create barrier (multiple kernels synchronization) sKernelBarrier = new KernelBarrier(sKernels.Count); foreach (RenderKernel k in sKernels) { // Create rendering contexts (one for each kernel) k.CreateRenderContext(); // Start render kernel kernels k.mThread = new Thread(RenderKernelMain); k.mThread.Start(k); } while (sKernelBarrier.KernelCount > 0) { // Wait untill all kernel loops has finished sKernelBarrier.WaitKernelBarrier(); // Do application events Application.DoEvents(); // Execute shared context services foreach (RenderKernelContextService s in sContextServices) s.Execute(sSharedContext); // Next kernel render loop sKernelBarrier.ReleaseKernelBarrier(); } This snippet of code is execute by the Main routine. Pratically I have a list of Kernel classes, which runs in separate threads, these threads handle a Form for rendering in OpenGL. I need to synchronize all the Kernel threads using a barrier, and this work perfectly. Of course, I need to handle Form messages in the main thread (Main routine), for every Form created, and indeed I call Application.DoEvents() to do the job. Now I have to modify the snippet above to have a common Form (simple dialog box) without consuming the 100% of CPU calling Application.DoEvents(), as Application.Run does. The goal should be to have the snippet above handle messages when arrives, and issue a rendering (releasing the barrier) only when necessary, without trying to get the maximum FPS; there should be the possibility to switch to a strict loop to render as much as possible. How could it be possible? Note: the snippet above must be executed in the Main routine, since the OpenGL context is created on the main thread. Moving the snippet in a separated thread and calling Application.Run is quite unstable and buggy...

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  • Default Database Collations PenTesting Env

    - by dominicdinada
    I am using Ubuntu 9.10 with XAMPP ( Lampp "MYSQL 5.1.45 PHPMYADMIN 3.3.1 PHP 5.3.2 ) What my problem is, is that I set up my testing env to debug my scripts locally and when I did so there arose a problem. This problem is that I used firefox's addon SQLinject ME to test for weakness' and upon doing so it caused mysql to change the default local collations; character sets dir /opt/lampp/share/mysql/charsets/ collation connection latin1_general_ci (Global value) latin1_swedish_ci collation database latin1_swedish_ci collation server latin1_swedish_ci I have searched for quite sometime in regards to a solution to this problem and have come up with searching for the db.opt file which stores this information without success. Upon not finding a solution I removed lampp with the "sudo rm -fR /opt" command and reinstall and the problem still persists. I have tried to change the collations manually and still come up with the database displaying latin1_swedish_ci as the default language. Why is this a problem?? Why is it a problem with mysql? Because the application I am testing and debugging locally is built on the CodeIgnitor with Smarty framework and since this combination of framework is built to detect the LOCALES, Rather what the database defaults are I keep getting errors saying no language file for swedish...... Of course I could get the swedish language file to work around this problem but I do not feel the need to make this work around a perminant solution as with time when I move on to projects I will run into simular problems every time that A; When importing database files, backups etc it will default to import such databases as the locale swedish. B; As time passes on I might completly forget of this error and will be back to square one. I have found this code in searches for a fix,which seems to alter the tables to a desired Collaion; $value) { mysql_query("ALTER TABLE $value COLLATE latin1_general_ci"); }} echo "The collation of your database has been successfully changed!"; ? Which is handy to switch collations in One Schema at a time however this is not a fix when a framework doesnt care that the said database is in one langugae. It tests for the Default of the entire server. Someone with any knowledge of a purge or fix to this I would greatly appricate the help. One more final note is that when I was testing I only figured to back up the applications DataBase and not the entire Schema of the install. No matter if I uninstall or reinstall the database still seems to carry these problems.

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  • "Simple" sort a nested array using array_multisort or native PHP functions instead of my own foreach loop

    - by Ana Ban
    I have the following array of days of the week, with each day having hours of the day (the whole array represents the schedule of a part-time employee): Array ( [7] => Array ( [0] => 15 [1] => 14 [2] => 13 [3] => 11 [4] => 12 [5] => 10 ) [1] => Array ( [0] => 10 [1] => 13 [2] => 12 ) [6] => Array ( [0] => 14 ) [3] => Array ( [0] => 4 [1] => 5 [2] => 6 ) ) and I simply need to: sort asc each sub-array (2nd dimension) - no need to maintain the numeric keys, values are integers sort asc the 1st dimension and maintain the numeric, integer keys ie: Array ( [1] => Array ( [0] => 10 [1] => 12 [2] => 13 ) [3] => Array ( [0] => 4 [1] => 5 [2] => 6 ) [6] => Array ( [0] => 14 ) [7] => Array ( [0] => 10 [1] => 11 [2] => 12 [3] => 13 [4] => 14 [5] => 15 ) ) Additional info: only the keys of the 1st dimension and the values of the 2nd dimension (and of course their association) are meaningful to my use-case the 1st dimension can have at most 7 values, ranging from 1-7 (days of the week), and will have at least 1 value (1 day) the 2nd dimension can have at most 24 values, ranging from 0-23 (hours of each day), and will have at least 1 value (1 hour per day) I know I can do this with a foreach on the whole ksorted array and sort each 2nd dimension array: ksort($sched); foreach ($sched as &$array) sort($array); unset($array); but I was hoping I could achieve this with native php array function(s) instead. My search led me to try array_multisort(array_values($array), array_keys($array), $array) but I just can't make it work.

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  • compiler warning at C++ template base class

    - by eike
    I get a compiler warning, that I don't understand in that context, when I compile the "Child.cpp" from the following code. (Don't wonder: I stripped off my class declarations to the bare minuum, so the content will not make much sense, but you will see the problem quicker). I get the warning with VS2003 and VS2008 on the highest warning level. The code AbstractClass.h : #include <iostream> template<typename T> class AbstractClass { public: virtual void Cancel(); // { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; }; virtual void Process() = 0; }; //outside definition. if I comment out this and take the inline //definition like above (currently commented out), I don't get //a compiler warning template<typename T> void AbstractClass<T>::Cancel() { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; } Child.h : #include "AbstractClass.h" class Child : public AbstractClass<int> { public: virtual void Process(); }; Child.cpp : #include "Child.h" #include <iostream> void Child::Process() { std::cout << "Process" << std::endl; } The warning The class "Child" is derived from "AbstractClass". In "AbstractClass" there's the public method "AbstractClass::Cancel()". If I define the method outside of the class body (like in the code you see), I get the compiler warning... AbstractClass.h(7) : warning C4505: 'AbstractClass::Cancel' : unreferenced local function has been removed with [T=int] ...when I compile "Child.cpp". I do not understand this, because this is a public function and the compiler can't know if I later reference this method or not. And, in the end, I reference this method, because I call it in main.cpp and despite this compiler warning, this method works if I compile and link all files and execute the program: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Child.h" int main() { Child child; child.Cancel(); //works, despite the warning } If I do define the Cancel() function as inline (you see it as out commented code in AbstractClass.h), then I don't get the compiler warning. Of course my program works, but I want to understand this warning or is this just a compiler mistake? Furthermore, if do not implement AbsctractClass as a template class (just for a test purpose in this case) I also don't get the compiler warning...?

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  • Optimizing spacing of mesh containing a given set of points

    - by Feynman
    I tried to summarize the this as best as possible in the title. I am writing an initial value problem solver in the most general way possible. I start with an arbitrary number of initial values at arbitrary locations (inside a boundary.) The first part of my program creates a mesh/grid (I am not sure which is the correct nuance), with N points total, that contains all the initial values. My goal is to optimize the mesh such that the spacing is as uniform as possible. My solver seems to work half decently (it needs some more obscure debugging that is not relevant here.) I am starting with one dimension. I intend to generalize the algorithm to an arbitrary number of dimensions once I get it working consistently. I am writing my code in fortran, but feel free to reply with pseudocode or the language of your choice. Allow me to elaborate with an example: Say I am working on a closed interval [1,10] xmin=1 xmax=10 Say I have 3 initial points: xmin, 5 and xmax num_ivc=3 known(num_ivc)=[xmin,5,xmax] //my arrays start at 1. Assume "known" starts sorted I store my mesh/grid points in an array called coord. Say I want 10 points total in my mesh/grid. N=10 coord(10) Remember, all this is arbitrary--except the variable names of course. The algorithm should set coord to {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} Now for a less trivial example: num_ivc=3 known(num_ivc)=[xmin,5.5,xmax or just num_ivc=1 known(num_ivc)=[5.5] Now, would you have 5 evenly spaced points on the interval [1, 5.5] and 5 evenly spaced points on the interval (5.5, 10]? But there is more space between 1 and 5.5 than between 5.5 and 10. So would you have 6 points on [1, 5.5] followed by 4 on (5.5 to 10]. The key is to minimize the difference in spacing. I have been working on this for 2 days straight and I can assure you it is a lot trickier than it sounds. I have written code that only works if N is large only works if N is small only works if it the known points are close together only works if it the known points are far apart only works if at least one of the known points is near a boundary only works if none of the known points are near a boundary So as you can see, I have coded the gamut of almost-solutions. I cannot figure out a way to get it to perform equally well in all possible scenarios (that is, create the optimum spacing.)

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  • Cross field validation in jsf h:datatable using p:calendar

    - by Matt Broekhuis
    I noticed this question was asked, but it has not been answered correctly. I have a datatable that has two columns start date and end date. Both contain primefaces p:calendar controls in them. I need to ensure that for each row that the date in column1 is not after the date in column2. I would like to tie this into the JSF validation framework, but I'm having trouble. i've tried marking the datatable rowStatePreserved="true" , this allows me to get the values, but something is still wrong as when it fails, all the values in the first row overwrite all the other values. What am I doing wrong, or should I be using a completely different strategy? xhtml code <h:form> <f:event type="postValidate" listener="#{bean.doCrossFieldValidation}"/> <p:dataTable id="eventDaysTable" value="#{course.courseSchedules}" var="_eventDay" styleClass="compactDataTable" > <p:column id="eventDayStartColumn"> <f:facet name="header"> Start </f:facet> <p:calendar id="startDate" required="true" value="#{_eventDay.startTime}" pattern="MM/dd/yyyy hh:mm a"/> </p:column> <p:column id="eventDayEndColumn"> <f:facet name="header"> End </f:facet> <p:calendar id="endDate" required="true" value="#{_eventDay.endTime}" pattern="MM/dd/yyyy hh:mm a"/> </p:column> </p:dataTable> </h:form> validationCode public void doCrossFieldValidation(ComponentSystemEvent cse) { UIData eventsDaysStable = (UIData) cse.getComponent().findComponent("eventDaysTable"); if (null != eventsDaysStable && eventsDaysStable.isRendered()) { Iterator<UIComponent> startDateCalendarIterator = eventsDaysStable.findComponent("eventDayStartColumn").getChildren().iterator(); Iterator<UIComponent> endDateCalendarIterator = eventsDaysStable.findComponent("eventDayEndColumn").getChildren().iterator(); while (startDateCalendarIterator.hasNext() && endDateCalendarIterator.hasNext()) { org.primefaces.component.calendar.Calendar startDateComponent = (org.primefaces.component.calendar.Calendar) startDateCalendarIterator.next(); org.primefaces.component.calendar.Calendar endDateComponent = (org.primefaces.component.calendar.Calendar) endDateCalendarIterator.next(); Date startDate = (Date) startDateComponent.getValue(); Date endDate = (Date) endDateComponent.getValue(); if (null != startDate && null != endDate && startDate.after(endDate)) { eventScheduleChronologyOk = false; startDateComponent.setValid(false); endDateComponent.setValid(false); } } if (!eventScheduleChronologyOk) { showErrorMessage(ProductManagementMessage.PRODUCT_SCHEDULE_OUT_OF_ORDER); } } }

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  • What happens when several Java servlet apps running on the same port ?

    - by Frank
    Something strange happened to my servlets and I think I've figured out why, yet I'm more confused. I used Netbean6.7 to develop a Paypal IPN (Instant Payment Notification) message servlet, it listens on port 8080 by default for Paypal IPN messages. I used some sample Java code from it's web site, but when it ran, only about 1 in 10 messages came through, and they looked correct, but why 1 in 10 ? Not 100% or none ? So I asked some questions here and got some advices, one in particular points me to Google's App Engine, so I downloaded it and ran the demo guestbook while my IPN servlet is still running on Netbeans, the strange thing happened, after I entered "appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\bin\dev_appserver.cmd appengine-java-sdk-1.3.2\demos\guestbook\war" from the command prompt, I went to the following url on my browser "http://localhost:8080/", I thought I would see the Google demo guestbook page, NO, what I saw was another servlet I developed 2 years ago : "Web Academy", online course registration app. How can that happen ? I never started it, and I haven't touch that project for years. I guess because it's also listening on port 8080, so now I understand why the IPN messages only came through 1 in 10 times, because another servlet was also listening on that port and could have got the messages intended for IPN, or some how those two servlets' processes mixed up and therefore couldn't respond to Paypal properly, and failed. In order to verify some of my guesses, I turn off Netbeans, and ran the Google guestbook again at the prompt, this time on my browser http://localhost:8080/ points to the demo guestbook page. My Urls look like this : [A] Paypal IPN : http://localhost:8080/PayPal_App/PayPal_Servlet [B] Web Academy : http://localhost:8080/ So now, my questions are : <1> Why the "Web Academy" servlet was auto started when I ran the Paypal servlet ? <2> If I change the IPN listening port to 8083, would that mean I can run both of them on my PC at the same time without affecting each other ? <3> But I still don't understand, [A] and [B] look different, if a page for [A] is refreshed, it should show the Paypal content, and another page looking at [B] should show the Web Academy content, and that's exactly what happens when I started Netbeans to run the Paypal servlet, both pages show their respective content correctly side by side without interfering with each other, how come the IPN messages couldn't get through 100% of the time ? <4> In Netbeans how to assign 8080 to servlet [A] and assign port 8083 to servlet [B] ? <5> How to turn off auto start of Web Academy by Netbeans ?

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  • Best Practices / Patterns for Enterprise Protection/Remediation of SSNs (Social Security Numbers)

    - by Erik Neu
    I am interested in hearing about enterprise solutions for SSN handling. (I looked pretty hard for any pre-existing post on SO, including reviewing the terriffic SO automated "Related Questions" list, and did not find anything, so hopefully this is not a repeat.) First, I think it is important to enumerate the reasons systems/databases use SSNs: (note—these are reasons for de facto current state—I understand that many of them are not good reasons) Required for Interaction with External Entities. This is the most valid case—where external entities your system interfaces with require an SSN. This would typically be government, tax and financial. SSN is used to ensure system-wide uniqueness. SSN has become the default foreign key used internally within the enterprise, to perform cross-system joins. SSN is used for user authentication (e.g., log-on) The enterprise solution that seems optimum to me is to create a single SSN repository that is accessed by all applications needing to look up SSN info. This repository substitutes a globally unique, random 9-digit number (ASN) for the true SSN. I see many benefits to this approach. First of all, it is obviously highly backwards-compatible—all your systems "just" have to go through a major, synchronized, one-time data-cleansing exercise, where they replace the real SSN with the alternate ASN. Also, it is centralized, so it minimizes the scope for inspection and compliance. (Obviously, as a negative, it also creates a single point of failure.) This approach would solve issues 2 and 3, without ever requiring lookups to get the real SSN. For issue #1, authorized systems could provide an ASN, and be returned the real SSN. This would of course be done over secure connections, and the requesting systems would never persist the full SSN. Also, if the requesting system only needs the last 4 digits of the SSN, then that is all that would ever be passed. Issue #4 could be handled the same way as issue #1, though obviously the best thing would be to move away from having users supply an SSN for log-on. There are a couple of papers on this: UC Berkely: http://bit.ly/bdZPjQ Oracle Vault: bit.ly/cikbi1

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  • Read and write struct in C

    - by Sergey
    I have a struct: typedef struct student { char fname[30]; char sname[30]; char tname[30]; Faculty fac; int course; char group[10]; int room; int bad; } Student; I read it from the file: Database * dbOpen(char *fname) { FILE *fp = fopen(fname, "rb"); List *lst, *temp; Student *std; Database *db = malloc(sizeof(*db)); if (!fp) return NULL; FileNameS = fname; std = malloc(sizeof(*std)); if (!fread(std, sizeof(*std), 1, fp)) { db->head = db->tail = NULL; return db; } lst = malloc(sizeof(*lst)); lst->s = std; lst->prev = NULL; db->head = lst; while (!feof(fp)) { fread(std, sizeof(*std), 1, fp); temp = malloc(sizeof(*temp)); temp->s = std; temp->prev = lst; lst->next = temp; lst = temp; } lst->next = NULL; db->tail = lst; fclose(fp); return db; } And I have a problem... At the last record i have a such file pointer: `fp 0x10311448 {_ptr=0x00344b90 "???????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????? _ _iobuf * ` And i read last record 2 times... Save file code: void * dbClose(Database *db) { FILE *fp = fopen(FileNameS, "w+b"); List *lst, *temp; lst = db->head; while(lst != NULL) { fwrite(lst->s, sizeof(*(lst->s)), 1, fp); temp = lst; lst = lst->next; free(temp); } free(db); fclose(fp); }

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  • Avoiding circular project/assembly references in Visual Studio with statically typed dependency conf

    - by svnpttrssn
    First, I want to say that I am not interested in debating about any non-helpful "answers" to my question, with suggestions to putting everything in one assembly, i.e. there is no need for anyone to provide webpages such as the page titled with "Separate Assemblies != Loose Coupling". Now, my question is if it somehow (maybe with some Visual Studio configuration to allow for circular project dependencies?) is possible to use one project/assembly (I am here calling it the "ServiceLocator" assembly) for retrieving concrete implementation classes, (e.g. with StructureMap) which can be referred to from other projects, while it of course is also necessary for the the ServiceLocator itself to refer to other projects with the interfaces and the implementations ? Visual Studio project example, illustrating the kind of dependency structure I am talking about: http://img10.imageshack.us/img10/8838/testingdependencyinject.png Please note in the above picture, the problem is how to let the classes in "ApplicationLayerServiceImplementations" retrieve and instantiate classes that implement the interfaces in "DomainLayerServiceInterfaces". The goal is here to not refer directly to the classes in "DomainLayerServiceImplementations", but rather to try using the project "ServiceLocator" to retrieve such classes, but then the circular dependency problem occurrs... For example, a "UserInterfaceLayer" project/assembly might contain this kind of code: ContainerBootstrapper.BootstrapStructureMap(); // located in "ServiceLocator" project/assembly MyDomainLayerInterface myDomainLayerInterface = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<MyDomainLayerInterface>(); // refering to project/assembly "DomainLayerServiceInterfaces" myDomainLayerInterface.MyDomainLayerMethod(); MyApplicationLayerInterface myApplicationLayerInterface = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<MyApplicationLayerInterface>(); // refering to project/assembly "ApplicationLayerServiceInterfaces" myApplicationLayerInterface.MyApplicationLayerMethod(); The above code do not refer to the implementation projects/assemblies ApplicationLayerServiceImplementations and DomainLayerServiceImplementations, which contain this kind of code: public class MyApplicationLayerImplementation : MyApplicationLayerInterface and public class MyDomainLayerImplementation : MyDomainLayerInterface The "ServiceLocator" project/assembly might contain this code: using ApplicationLayerServiceImplementations; using ApplicationLayerServiceInterfaces; using DomainLayerServiceImplementations; using DomainLayerServiceInterfaces; using StructureMap; namespace ServiceLocator { public static class ContainerBootstrapper { public static void BootstrapStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => { // The two interfaces and the two implementations below are located in four different Visual Studio projects x.ForRequestedType<MyDomainLayerInterface>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<MyDomainLayerImplementation>(); x.ForRequestedType<MyApplicationLayerInterface>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<MyApplicationLayerImplementation>(); }); } } } So far, no problem, but the problem occurs when I want to let the class "MyApplicationLayerImplementation" in the project/assembly "ApplicationLayerServiceImplementations" use the "ServiceLocator" project/assembly for retrieving an implementation of "MyDomainLayerInterface". When I try to do that, i.e. add a reference from "MyApplicationLayerImplementation" to "ServiceLocator", then Visual Studio complains about circular dependencies between projects. Is there any nice solution to this problem, which does not imply using refactoring-unfriendly string based xml-configuration which breaks whenever an interface or class or its namespace is renamed ? / Sven

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