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  • Accessing array values in jQuery ajax callback function

    - by gibberish
    Values are received through a jQuery AJAX callback, but I've been unsuccessful getting at the values. Here's the ajax call: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ajax/ax_all_ajax_fns.php", data: 'request=edit_timecard_entry&staff_id='+staff_id+'&tid='+tid, success: function(data){ alert(data); } } Here's the code sent out by ax_all_ajax_fns.php: $staff_id = $_POST['staff_id']; $t_id = $_POST['tid']; $rCard = mysql_query("SELECT `staff_id`, `date`, `project_id`, `project_num`, `task_desc`, `hours` FROM `timecards` WHERE `t_id`='$t_id'"); $aCard = mysql_fetch_assoc($rCard); print_r($aCard); // echo $aCard; Of course, I don't want the information print_r'd, I want it echoed. The print_r was used to demonstrate that the correct data was sent out by the PHP script, and it is echoed successfully in the alert() box in the success function. So the correct data is being returned, and (if correctly formatted) it is viewable. The data returned in this way looks like this in the alert() popup: Array ( [staff_id] => 51 [date] => 2012-10-18 [project_id] => 0 [project_num => 49 [task_desk] => This is a task [hours] => 3.30 ) But when I use echo to output the $aCard array and then try to break it down inside the success function of the ajax call, I can't figure out how to get at the values. My attempts have consistently returned values of "undefined". In the success function, in place of alert(data);, I've tried this: var tce_staff_id = data['staff_id']; alert(tce_staff_id); and this: var tce_staff_id = data.staff_id; alert(tce_staff_id); What am I missing? UPDATE: Thanks to Martin S. for information re json_encode() PHP instruction. I've modified the ajax script as follows: echo json_encode($aCard); I now get THIS result from alert(data); in the success function: {"staff_id":"51","date":"2012-10-18","project_id":"0","project_num":"49","task_desc":"This is a task","hours":"3.30"} However, the following returns "undefined": alert(data.staff_id); alert(data[0].staff_id); var test = data.staff_id; alert(test); Can anyone see what I'm missing? All above code comes immediately after alert(data) inside the success callback of the ajax function. alert(data) DOES work and displays the desired data, as above.

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  • How can I inject Javascript (including Prototype.js) in other sites without cluttering the global na

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm currently on a project that is a big site that uses the Prototype library, and there is already a humongous amount of Javascript code. We're now working on a piece of code that will get "injected" into other people's sites (picture people adding a <script> tag in their sites) which will then run our code and add a bunch of DOM elements and functionality to their site. This will have new pieces of code, and will also reuse a lot of the code that we use on our main site. The problem I have is that it's of course not cool to just add a <script> that will include Prototype in people's pages. If we do that in a page that's already using ANY framework, we're guaranteed to screw everything up. jQuery gives us the option to "rename" the $ object, so it could handle this situation decently, except obviously for the fact that we're not using jQuery, so we'd have to migrate everything. Right now i'm contemplating a number of ugly choices, and I'm not sure what's best... Rewrite everything to use jQuery, with a renamed $ object everywhere. Creating a "new" Prototype library with only the subset we'd be using in "injected" code, and renaming $ to something else. Then again I'd have to adapt the parts of my code that would be shared somehow. Not using a library at all in injected code, to keep it as clean as possible, and rewriting the shared code to use no library at all. This would obviously degenerate into us creating our own frankenstein of a library, which is probably the worst case scenario ever. I'm wondering what you guys think I could do, and also whether there's some magic option that would solve all my problems... For example, do you think I could use something like Caja / Cajita to sandbox my own code and isolate it from the rest of the site, and have Prototype inside of there? Or am I completely missing the point with that? I also read once about a technique for bookmarklets, were you add your code like this: (function() { /* your code */ })(); And then your code is all inside your anonymous function and you haven't touched the global namespace at all. Do you think I could make one file containing: (function() { /* Full Code of the Prototype file here */ /* All my code that will run in the "other" site */ InitializeStuff_CreateDOMElements_AttachEventHandlers(); })(); Would that work? Would it accomplish the objective of not cluttering the global namespace, and not killing the functionality on a site that uses jQuery, for example? Or is Prototype too complex somehow to isolate it like that? (NOTE: I think I know that that would create closures everywhere and that's slower, but I don't care too much about performance, my code is not doing anything that complex)

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  • Inherited TShape.Paint does not work after overriding Shape property

    - by DarkWalker
    I'm to code a TExpandedShape class inherited from TShape. TExpandedShape must act like TShape and be able to draw extra shapes: Polygon and Star. Here is my code unit ExpandedShape; interface uses SysUtils, WinTypes, WinProcs, Messages, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, ExtCtrls, Windows; type TExpandedShapeType = ( stRectangle, stSquare, stRoundRect, stRoundSquare, stEllipse, stCircle, stPolygon, stStar ); TExpandedShape = class(TShape) private FShape: TExpandedShapeType; FEdgeCount: integer; procedure SetShape(const Value: TExpandedShapeType); procedure SetEdgeCount(const Value: integer); public procedure Paint; override; published property Shape : TExpandedShapeType read FShape write SetShape;// default stPolygon; property EdgeCount : integer read FEdgeCount write SetEdgeCount default 5; end; procedure Register; implementation procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Course', [TExpandedShape]); end; // TExpandedShape procedure TExpandedShape.Paint; begin case Shape of stStar : begin {Draw Star} end; stPolygon : begin {Draw Polygon} end; else begin {It is supposed to draw Circle, Rectangle etc, but it does not} inherited; end; end; end; procedure TExpandedShape.SetEdgeCount(const Value: integer); begin FEdgeCount := Value; Repaint; end; procedure TExpandedShape.SetShape(const Value: TExpandedShapeType); begin FShape := Value; Repaint; end; end. So, what is wrong? IMO TShape.Paint checks private value like FShape in case section and then decides what to draw. When inherited Paint method is called in my code it checks FShape value sees default 0 value [stRectangle] in there and draws it. PS: I did solve it with blackmagic way using Shape1 property instead of Shape one and if Shape1 value is not stPolygon or stStar i do like this: begin Shape := TShapeType(Shape1); inherited end; But this option is not really an option. I need a good short nice-looking one.

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  • Is it possible to use XStream with an abstract node?

    - by Dan Watling
    My client application is making calls to a service that returns a common "root" XML, but a different result node. The "root" XML contains possible error codes. Is it possible to use XStream in this scenario? Example: public class RootNode { ErrorInfo errorInfo; BaseResult result; ... } public class ErrorInfo { String message; ... } public abstract BaseResult { } public class SearchResult extends BaseResult { List<Object> searchResults; ... } public class AccountResult extends BaseResult { String name; ... } The XML coming back could be one of two formats: <root> <errorInfo><message>...</message></errorInfo> <result> <searchResults>...</searchResults> </result> </root> OR <root> <errorInfo><message>...</message></errorInfo> <result> <name>...</name> </result> </root> I have set up my XStream object as follows: XStream x = new XStream(); x.alias("root", Root.class); x.alias("errorInfo", ErrorInfo.class); x.alias("result", <SearchResult.class OR AccountResult.class depending on what I am expecting back>); Of course, when I run this I receive an error telling me XStream cannot instantiate the base class (BaseResult). For fun, I also converted the BaseResult into an interface but received a similar error. I've looked through XStream's documentation and it isn't clear to me how to handle a situation like the one I just described. Is it even possible to do using XStream? Thanks, -Dan

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  • xslt help - my transform is not rendering correctly

    - by Hcabnettek
    Hi All, I'm trying to apply an xlst transformation using the following file. This is very basic, but I wanted to build off of this when I get it working correctly. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl"> <xsl:template match="/"> <div> <h2>Station Inventory</h2> <hr/> <xsl:apply-templates/> </div> </xsl:template> Here is some xml I'm using for the source. <StationInventoryList xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns="http://www.dummy-tmdd-address"> <StationInventory> <station-id>9940</station-id> <station-name>Zone 9940-SEB</station-name> <station-travel-direction>SEB</station-travel-direction> <detector-list> <detector> <detector-id>2910</detector-id> <detector-name>1999 West Smith Exit SEB</detector-name> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>9205</detector-id> <detector-name>CR-155 Exit SEB</detector-name> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>9710</detector-id> <detector-name>Pt of View SEB</detector-name> </detector> </detector-list> </StationInventory> </StationInventoryList> Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? The simple intent here is to make a list of station, then make a list of detectors at a station. This is a small piece of the XML. It would have multiple StationInventory elements. I'm using the data as the source for an asp:xml control and the xslt file as the transformsource. var service = new InternalService(); var result = service.StationInventory(); invXml.DocumentContent = result; invXml.TransformSource = "StationInventory.xslt"; invXml.DataBind(); Any tips are of course appreciated. Have a terrific weekend. Cheers, ~ck

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  • Ajax problem not displaying data using multiple javascript calls...

    - by Ronedog
    I'm writing an app that uses ajax to retrieve data from a mysql db using php. Because of the nature of the app, the user clicks an href link that has an "onclick" event used to call the javascript/ajax. I'm retrieving the data from mysql, then calling a separate php function which creates a small html table with the necessary data in it. The new table gets passed back to the responseText and is displayed inside a div tag. The tables only have around 10-20 rows of data in them. This functionality is working fine and displays the data in html form exactly as it needs to be on the page. The problem is this. the HREF "onclick" event needs to run multiple scripts one right after the other. The first script updates the "existing" data and inside the "update_existing" function is a call to refresh a section of the page with the updated HTML from the responseText. Then when that is done a "display_html" function is called which also updates a different section of the page with it's newly created HTML table. The event looks like this: Update This string gets built dynamically using php with parameters supplied, but for this example I simply took the parameters out so it didn't get confusing. The "update_existion() function actually calls the display_html() function which updates a section of the page as needed. I need to update a different section of the page on the same click of the mouse right after the update, which is why I'm calling the display_html() again, right after it. The problem is only the last call is being updated on my screen. In other words, the 2nd function call "display_html()" executes and displays the refreshed data just fine, but the previous call to update_existing() runs and updates the database properly, but doesn't display on the screen unless I press the browsers "refresh" button, which of course displays the new data exactly how I want it to, but I don't want the users to have to press the "refresh" button. I tried adding multiple "display_html() calls one right after the other, separating all of them with the semicolon and learned that only the very last function call actually refreshed the div element on the html page with the table information, although all the previous display_html() calls worked, they couldn't be seen on the page without a refresh of the browser. Is this a problem with javascript, or the ajax call, or is this a limitation in the DOM that only allows one element to be updated at a time. The ajax call is asynchroneous, but I've tried both, only async works period. This is the same in both Firefox and Internet Explorer Any ideas what's going on and how to get around it so I can run these multiple scripts?

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  • Does this MSDN article violate MVVM?

    - by rasx
    This may be old news but back in March 2009, this article, “Model-View-ViewModel In Silverlight 2 Apps,” has a code sample that includes DataServiceEntityBase: // COPIED FROM SILVERLIGHTCONTRIB Project for simplicity /// <summary> /// Base class for DataService Data Contract classes to implement /// base functionality that is needed like INotifyPropertyChanged. /// Add the base class in the partial class to add the implementation. /// </summary> public abstract class DataServiceEntityBase : INotifyPropertyChanged { /// <summary> /// The handler for the registrants of the interface's event /// </summary> PropertyChangedEventHandler _propertyChangedHandler; /// <summary> /// Allow inheritors to fire the event more simply. /// </summary> /// <param name="propertyName"></param> protected void FirePropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (_propertyChangedHandler != null) { _propertyChangedHandler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members /// <summary> /// The interface used to notify changes on the entity. /// </summary> event PropertyChangedEventHandler INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged { add { _propertyChangedHandler += value; } remove { _propertyChangedHandler -= value; } } #endregion What this class implies is that the developer intends to bind visuals directly to data (yes, a ViewModel is used but it defines an ObservableCollection of data objects). Is this design diverging too far from the guidance of MVVM? Now I can see some of the reasons Why would we go this way: what we can do with DataServiceEntityBase is this sort of thing (which is intimate with the Entity Framework): // Partial Method to support the INotifyPropertyChanged interface public partial class Game : DataServiceEntityBase { #region Partial Method INotifyPropertyChanged Implementation // Override the Changed partial methods to implement the // INotifyPropertyChanged interface // This helps with the Model implementation to be a mostly // DataBound implementation partial void OnDeveloperChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Developer"); } partial void OnGenreChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Genre"); } partial void OnListPriceChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ListPrice"); } partial void OnListPriceCurrencyChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ListPriceCurrency"); } partial void OnPlayerInfoChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("PlayerInfo"); } partial void OnProductDescriptionChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductDescription"); } partial void OnProductIDChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductID"); } partial void OnProductImageUrlChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductImageUrl"); } partial void OnProductNameChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductName"); } partial void OnProductTypeIDChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductTypeID"); } partial void OnPublisherChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Publisher"); } partial void OnRatingChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Rating"); } partial void OnRatingUrlChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("RatingUrl"); } partial void OnReleaseDateChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ReleaseDate"); } partial void OnSystemNameChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("SystemName"); } #endregion } Of course MSDN code can seen as “toy code” for educational purposes but is anyone doing anything like this in the real world of Silverlight development?

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  • NHibernate - I have many, but I only want one!

    - by MartinF
    Hello, I have a User which can have many Emails. This is mapped through a List collection (exposed by IEnumerable Emails on the User). For each User one of the Emails will be the Primary one ("Boolean IsPrimary" property on Email). How can I get the primary Email from User without NHibernate loads every email for the User ? I have the following two entities, with a corresponding table for each public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IEnumerable<Email> Emails { get; set; } // public virtual Email PrimaryEmail { get; set; } - Possible somehow ? } public class Email { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Address { get; set; } public virtual Boolean IsPrimary { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } } Can I map a "Email PrimaryEmail" property etc. on the User to the Email which have "IsPrimary=1" set somehow ? Maybe using a Sql Formula ? a View ? a One-To-One relationship ? or another way ? It should be possible to change the primary email to be one of the other emails, so i would like to keep them all in 1 table and just change the IsPrimary property. Using a Sql Formula, is it be possible to keep the "PrimaryEmail" property on the User up-to-date, if I set the IsPrimary property on the current primary email to false, and then afterwards set the PrimaryEmail property to the email which should be the new primary email and set IsPrimary to true ? Will NHibernate track changes on the "old/current" primary Email loaded by the Sql Formula ? What about the 1 level cache and the 2 level cache when using SqlFormula ? I dont know if it could work by using a View ? Then i guess the Email could be mapped like a Component ? Will it work when updating the Email data when loaded from the View ? Is there a better way ? As I have a bi-directional relationship between User and Email I could in many cases of course query the primary Email and then use the "User" property on the Email to get the User (instead of the other way around - going from User to the primary Email) Hope someone can help ?

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  • What is the best way to archive data in a relational database?

    - by GenericTypeTea
    I have a bit of an issue with a particular aspect of a program I'm working on. I need the ability to archive (fix) a table so that a change anywhere in the system will not affect the results it returns. This is the basic structure of what I need to fix: Recipe --> Recipe (as sub recipe) Recipe --> Ingredients So, if I fix a Recipe, I need to ensure all the sub recipes (including all the sub recipes sub recipes and so forth) are fixed and all its ingredients are fixed. The problem is that the sub recipe and ingredients still need to be modifiable as they are used by other recipes that are not fixed. I came up with a solution whereby I serialize (with protobuf-net) a master object that deals with the recipe and all the sub recipes and ingredients and save the archive data to a table like follows: Archive{ ReferenceId, (i.e. RecipeId) ReferenceTypeId, (i.e. Recipe) ArchiveData varbinary(max) } Now, this works great and is almost perfect... however I totally forgot (I'd love to blame the agile development mentally, however this was just short sighted) that this information needs to be reported on. As far as I'm aware I can't think how I could inflate the serialized data back into my Recipe Object and use it in a Report. I'm using the standard SQL 2005 report services at the moment. Alternatively, I guess I could do the following: Duplicate every table and tag the word "Archive" on the end of the table name. This would then give me an area of specific archive data... but ignoring my simplified example, there'd actually be about 15 tables duplicated. Add a nullable, non-foreign key property called "CopiedFromId" to every table that contains fixed data and duplicate every record that the recipe (and all it's sub recipes and all their sub recipes) touches. Create some sort of denormalised structure that could be restored from at a later date to the original, unfixed recipe. Although I think this would be like option 1 and involve a lot of extra tables. Anyway, I'm at a total loss and do not like any of the ideas particularly. Can anyone please advise the best course of action? EDIT: Or 4) Create tables specific to what the report requires and populate them with the data when the user clicks the report button? This would cause about 4 extra tables for the report in question.

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  • How to merge an improperly created "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn cop

    - by MatrixFrog
    I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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  • What was "The Next Big Thing" when you were just starting out in programming?

    - by Andrew
    I'm at the beginning of my career and there are lots of things which are being touted as "The Next Big Thing". For example: Dependency Injection (Spring, etc) MVC (Struts, ASP.NET MVC) ORMs (Linq To SQL, Hibernate) Agile Software Development These things have probably been around for some time, but I've only just started out. And don't get me wrong, I think these things are great! So, what was "The Next Big Thing" when you were starting out? When was it? Were people sceptical of it at first? Why? Did you think it would catch on? Did it pan out and become widely accepted/used? If not, why not? EDIT It's been nearly a week since I first posted this question and I can safely say that I did not expect such explosive interest. I asked the question so that I could gain a perspective of what kinds of innovations in programming people thought were most important when they were starting out. At the time of writing this I have read ~95% of all answers. To answer a few questions, the "Next Big Things" I listed are ones that I am currently really excited about and that I had not really been exposed to until I started working. I'm hoping to implement some or all of these in the near future at my current workplace. To many people they are probably old news. In regards to the "is this a real question" debate, I can see that obviously hasn't been settled yet. I feel bad whenever I read a comment saying that these kinds of questions take away from the real meaning of SO. I'm not wholly convinced that it doesn't. On the other hand, I have seen a lot of comments saying what a great question it is. Anyway, I have chosen "The Internet!" as my answer to this question. I don't think (in my very humble opinion, and, it seems many SOers opinions) that many things related to programming can compare. Nowadays every business and their dog has a website which can do anything from simply supplying information to purchasing goods halfway around the world to updating your blog. And of course, all these businesses need people like us. Thanks to everyone for all the great answers!

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  • Permutations of Varying Size

    - by waiwai933
    I'm trying to write a function in PHP that gets all permutations of all possible sizes. I think an example would be the best way to start off: $my_array = array(1,1,2,3); Possible permutations of varying size: 1 1 // * See Note 2 3 1,1 1,2 1,3 // And so forth, for all the sets of size 2 1,1,2 1,1,3 1,2,1 // And so forth, for all the sets of size 3 1,1,2,3 1,1,3,2 // And so forth, for all the sets of size 4 Note: I don't care if there's a duplicate or not. For the purposes of this example, all future duplicates have been omitted. What I have so far in PHP: function getPermutations($my_array){ $permutation_length = 1; $keep_going = true; while($keep_going){ while($there_are_still_permutations_with_this_length){ // Generate the next permutation and return it into an array // Of course, the actual important part of the code is what I'm having trouble with. } $permutation_length++; if($permutation_length>count($my_array)){ $keep_going = false; } else{ $keep_going = true; } } return $return_array; } The closest thing I can think of is shuffling the array, picking the first n elements, seeing if it's already in the results array, and if it's not, add it in, and then stop when there are mathematically no more possible permutations for that length. But it's ugly and resource-inefficient. Any pseudocode algorithms would be greatly appreciated. Also, for super-duper (worthless) bonus points, is there a way to get just 1 permutation with the function but make it so that it doesn't have to recalculate all previous permutations to get the next? For example, I pass it a parameter 3, which means it's already done 3 permutations, and it just generates number 4 without redoing the previous 3? (Passing it the parameter is not necessary, it could keep track in a global or static). The reason I ask this is because as the array grows, so does the number of possible combinations. Suffice it to say that one small data set with only a dozen elements grows quickly into the trillions of possible combinations and I don't want to task PHP with holding trillions of permutations in its memory at once.

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  • Error using `loess.smooth` but not `loess` or `lowess`

    - by Sandy
    I need to smooth some simulated data, but occasionally run into problems when the simulated ordinates to be smoothed are mostly the same value. Here is a small reproducible example of the simplest case. > x <- 0:50 > y <- rep(0,51) > loess.smooth(x,y) Error in simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, : NA/NaN/Inf in foreign function call (arg 1) loess(y~x), lowess(x,y), and their analogue in MATLAB produce the expected results without error on this example. I am using loess.smooth here because I need the estimates evaluated at a set number of points. According to the documentation, I believe loess.smooth and loess are using the same estimation functions, but the former is an "auxiliary function" to handle the evaluation points. The error seems to come from a C function: > traceback() 3: .C(R_loess_raw, as.double(pseudovalues), as.double(x), as.double(weights), as.double(weights), as.integer(D), as.integer(N), as.double(span), as.integer(degree), as.integer(nonparametric), as.integer(order.drop.sqr), as.integer(sum.drop.sqr), as.double(span * cell), as.character(surf.stat), temp = double(N), parameter = integer(7), a = integer(max.kd), xi = double(max.kd), vert = double(2 * D), vval = double((D + 1) * max.kd), diagonal = double(N), trL = double(1), delta1 = double(1), delta2 = double(1), as.integer(0L)) 2: simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, "none", "interpolate", control$cell, iterations, control$trace.hat) 1: loess.smooth(x, y) loess also calls simpleLoess, but with what appears to be different arguments. Of course, if you vary enough of the y values to be nonzero, loess.smooth runs without error, but I need the program to run in even the most extreme case. Hopefully, someone can help me with one and/or all of the following: Understand why only loess.smooth, and not the other functions, produces this error and find a solution for this problem. Find a work-around using loess but still evaluating the estimate at a specified number of points that can differ from the vector x. For example, I might want to use only x <- seq(0,50,10) in the smoothing, but evaluate the estimate at x <- 0:50. As far as I know, using predict with a new data frame will not properly handle this situation, but please let me know if I am missing something there. Handle the error in a way that doesn't stop the program from moving onto the next simulated data set. Thanks in advance for any help on this problem.

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  • How do I prevent programmatically the "Program Compatibility Assistant" in Vista (and Windows 7) fro

    - by Asaf
    I develop a C++ program which might use adobe flash, although it is not essential. I use CoCreateInstance to create the flash object, and if it fails, I know flash is not installed so I don't use it. However, in Vista (and I think Windows 7 as well), when flash is not installed, after leaving the application, the "Program Compatibility Assistant" pops up a message saying that "This program requires a missing Windows component" specifying the flash.ocx. Is there a way to prevent this message from appearing? I don't want to force any user to install flash (especially since it's the IE ActiveX, and FireFox users might not have it installed), and my application can operate well without the flash. Plus this message is really annoying when it appears after every run. I don't mean of course disabling the PCA on the user's machine, but programmatically disable this specific appearance on all machines. Any thoughts? Thanks [EDIT:] I followed Shay's lead (thanks), and did some more digging of my own. I added the following XML to the application's manifest: <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v2"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker" uiAccess="false"> </requestedExecutionLevel> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> (see also: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb756929.aspx) This solved the problem on Vista 64. To solve the same problem on Windows 7, I added the following: <compatibility xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:compatibility.v1"> <application> <!--The ID below indicates application support for Windows Vista --> <supportedOS Id="{e2011457-1546-43c5-a5fe-008deee3d3f0}"/> <!--The ID below indicates application support for Windows 7 --> <supportedOS Id="{35138b9a-5d96-4fbd-8e2d-a2440225f93a}"/> </application> </compatibility> (See also: blogs.msdn.com/yvesdolc/archive/2009/09/22/the-new-compatibility-section-in-the-application-manifest.aspx) Solved Windows 7. But for some reason, it still happens in Vista 32... I also tried editing the manifest of the specific DLL which causes the problem, but it had no effect. Only the executable's manifest itself affected the problem. So... Vista 32?

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  • What are the basics of dealing with user input events in Android?

    - by user279112
    Hello. I thought I had understood this question, but something is quite wrong here. When the user (me, so far) tries to press keys, nothing really happens, and I am having a lot of trouble understanding what it is that I've missed. Consider this before I present some code to help clarify my problem: I am using Android's Lunar Lander example to make my first "real" Android program. In that example, of course, there exist a class LunarView, and class nested therein LunarThread. In my code the equivalents of these classes are Graphics and GraphicsThread, respectively. Also I can make sprite animations in 2D just fine on Android. I have a Player class, and let's say GraphicsThread has a Player member referred to as "player". This class has four coordinates - x1, y1, x2, and y2 - and they define a rectangle in which the sprite is to be drawn. I've worked it out so that I can handle that perfectly. Whenever the doDraw(Canvas canvas) method is invoked, it'll just look at the values of those coordinates and draw the sprite accordingly. Now let's say - and this isn't really what I'm trying to do with the program - I'm trying to make the program where all it does is display the Player sprite at one location of the screen UNTIL the FIRST time the user presses the Dpad's left button. Then the location will be changed to another set position on the screen, and the sprite will be drawn at that position for the rest of the program invariably. Also note that the GraphicsThread member in Graphics is called "thread", and that the SurfaceHolder member in GraphicsThread is called "mSurfaceHolder". So consider this method in class Graphics: @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent msg) { return thread.keyDownHandler(keyCode, msg); } Also please consider this method in class GraphicsThread: boolean keyDownHandler(int keyCode, KeyEvent msg) { synchronized (mSurfaceHolder) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_DPAD_LEFT) { player.x1 = 100; player.y1 = 100; player.x2 = 120; player.y2 = 150; } } return true; } Now then assuming that player's coordinates start off as (200, 200, 220, 250), why won't he do anything different when I press Dpad: Left? Thanks!

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  • Getting problem in Java OpenCV code.

    - by Chetan
    I had successfully compile my java code in Eclipse with name FaceDetection.java... I am getting an Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: main.... Please help me to remove this Exception.. Here is the code import java.awt.; import java.awt.event.; import java.awt.image.MemoryImageSource; import hypermedia.video.OpenCV; @SuppressWarnings("serial") public class FaceDetection extends Frame implements Runnable { /** * Main method. * @param String[] a list of user's arguments passed from the console to this program */ public static void main( String[] args ) { System.out.println( "\nOpenCV face detection sample\n" ); new FaceDetection(); } // program execution frame rate (millisecond) final int FRAME_RATE = 1000/30; OpenCV cv = null; // OpenCV Object Thread t = null; // the sample thread // the input video stream image Image frame = null; // list of all face detected area Rectangle[] squares = new Rectangle[0]; /** * Setup Frame and Object(s). */ FaceDetection() { super( "Face Detection Sample" ); // OpenCV setup cv = new OpenCV(); cv.capture( 320, 240 ); cv.cascade( OpenCV.CASCADE_FRONTALFACE_ALT ); // frame setup this.setBounds( 100, 100, cv.width, cv.height ); this.setBackground( Color.BLACK ); this.setVisible( true ); this.addKeyListener( new KeyAdapter() { public void keyReleased( KeyEvent e ) { if ( e.getKeyCode()==KeyEvent.VK_ESCAPE ) { // ESC : release OpenCV resources cv.dispose(); System.exit(0); } } } ); // start running program t = new Thread( this ); t.start(); } /** * Draw video frame and each detected faces area. */ public void paint( Graphics g ) { // draw image g.drawImage( frame, 0, 0, null ); // draw squares g.setColor( Color.RED ); for( Rectangle rect : squares ) g.drawRect( rect.x, rect.y, rect.width, rect.height ); } /** * Execute this sample. */ @SuppressWarnings("static-access") public void run() { while( t!=null && cv!=null ) { try { t.sleep( FRAME_RATE ); // grab image from video stream cv.read(); // create a new image from cv pixels data MemoryImageSource mis = new MemoryImageSource( cv.width, cv.height, cv.pixels(), 0, cv.width ); frame = createImage( mis ); // detect faces squares = cv.detect( 1.2f, 2, OpenCV.HAAR_DO_CANNY_PRUNING, 20, 20 ); // of course, repaint repaint(); } catch( InterruptedException e ) {;} } } }

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  • Default Database Collations PenTesting Env

    - by dominicdinada
    I am using Ubuntu 9.10 with XAMPP ( Lampp "MYSQL 5.1.45 PHPMYADMIN 3.3.1 PHP 5.3.2 ) What my problem is, is that I set up my testing env to debug my scripts locally and when I did so there arose a problem. This problem is that I used firefox's addon SQLinject ME to test for weakness' and upon doing so it caused mysql to change the default local collations; character sets dir /opt/lampp/share/mysql/charsets/ collation connection latin1_general_ci (Global value) latin1_swedish_ci collation database latin1_swedish_ci collation server latin1_swedish_ci I have searched for quite sometime in regards to a solution to this problem and have come up with searching for the db.opt file which stores this information without success. Upon not finding a solution I removed lampp with the "sudo rm -fR /opt" command and reinstall and the problem still persists. I have tried to change the collations manually and still come up with the database displaying latin1_swedish_ci as the default language. Why is this a problem?? Why is it a problem with mysql? Because the application I am testing and debugging locally is built on the CodeIgnitor with Smarty framework and since this combination of framework is built to detect the LOCALES, Rather what the database defaults are I keep getting errors saying no language file for swedish...... Of course I could get the swedish language file to work around this problem but I do not feel the need to make this work around a perminant solution as with time when I move on to projects I will run into simular problems every time that A; When importing database files, backups etc it will default to import such databases as the locale swedish. B; As time passes on I might completly forget of this error and will be back to square one. I have found this code in searches for a fix,which seems to alter the tables to a desired Collaion; $value) { mysql_query("ALTER TABLE $value COLLATE latin1_general_ci"); }} echo "The collation of your database has been successfully changed!"; ? Which is handy to switch collations in One Schema at a time however this is not a fix when a framework doesnt care that the said database is in one langugae. It tests for the Default of the entire server. Someone with any knowledge of a purge or fix to this I would greatly appricate the help. One more final note is that when I was testing I only figured to back up the applications DataBase and not the entire Schema of the install. No matter if I uninstall or reinstall the database still seems to carry these problems.

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  • Best Practices / Patterns for Enterprise Protection/Remediation of SSNs (Social Security Numbers)

    - by Erik Neu
    I am interested in hearing about enterprise solutions for SSN handling. (I looked pretty hard for any pre-existing post on SO, including reviewing the terriffic SO automated "Related Questions" list, and did not find anything, so hopefully this is not a repeat.) First, I think it is important to enumerate the reasons systems/databases use SSNs: (note—these are reasons for de facto current state—I understand that many of them are not good reasons) Required for Interaction with External Entities. This is the most valid case—where external entities your system interfaces with require an SSN. This would typically be government, tax and financial. SSN is used to ensure system-wide uniqueness. SSN has become the default foreign key used internally within the enterprise, to perform cross-system joins. SSN is used for user authentication (e.g., log-on) The enterprise solution that seems optimum to me is to create a single SSN repository that is accessed by all applications needing to look up SSN info. This repository substitutes a globally unique, random 9-digit number (ASN) for the true SSN. I see many benefits to this approach. First of all, it is obviously highly backwards-compatible—all your systems "just" have to go through a major, synchronized, one-time data-cleansing exercise, where they replace the real SSN with the alternate ASN. Also, it is centralized, so it minimizes the scope for inspection and compliance. (Obviously, as a negative, it also creates a single point of failure.) This approach would solve issues 2 and 3, without ever requiring lookups to get the real SSN. For issue #1, authorized systems could provide an ASN, and be returned the real SSN. This would of course be done over secure connections, and the requesting systems would never persist the full SSN. Also, if the requesting system only needs the last 4 digits of the SSN, then that is all that would ever be passed. Issue #4 could be handled the same way as issue #1, though obviously the best thing would be to move away from having users supply an SSN for log-on. There are a couple of papers on this: UC Berkely: http://bit.ly/bdZPjQ Oracle Vault: bit.ly/cikbi1

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  • compiler warning at C++ template base class

    - by eike
    I get a compiler warning, that I don't understand in that context, when I compile the "Child.cpp" from the following code. (Don't wonder: I stripped off my class declarations to the bare minuum, so the content will not make much sense, but you will see the problem quicker). I get the warning with VS2003 and VS2008 on the highest warning level. The code AbstractClass.h : #include <iostream> template<typename T> class AbstractClass { public: virtual void Cancel(); // { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; }; virtual void Process() = 0; }; //outside definition. if I comment out this and take the inline //definition like above (currently commented out), I don't get //a compiler warning template<typename T> void AbstractClass<T>::Cancel() { std::cout << "Abstract Cancel" << std::endl; } Child.h : #include "AbstractClass.h" class Child : public AbstractClass<int> { public: virtual void Process(); }; Child.cpp : #include "Child.h" #include <iostream> void Child::Process() { std::cout << "Process" << std::endl; } The warning The class "Child" is derived from "AbstractClass". In "AbstractClass" there's the public method "AbstractClass::Cancel()". If I define the method outside of the class body (like in the code you see), I get the compiler warning... AbstractClass.h(7) : warning C4505: 'AbstractClass::Cancel' : unreferenced local function has been removed with [T=int] ...when I compile "Child.cpp". I do not understand this, because this is a public function and the compiler can't know if I later reference this method or not. And, in the end, I reference this method, because I call it in main.cpp and despite this compiler warning, this method works if I compile and link all files and execute the program: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Child.h" int main() { Child child; child.Cancel(); //works, despite the warning } If I do define the Cancel() function as inline (you see it as out commented code in AbstractClass.h), then I don't get the compiler warning. Of course my program works, but I want to understand this warning or is this just a compiler mistake? Furthermore, if do not implement AbsctractClass as a template class (just for a test purpose in this case) I also don't get the compiler warning...?

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  • Cross field validation in jsf h:datatable using p:calendar

    - by Matt Broekhuis
    I noticed this question was asked, but it has not been answered correctly. I have a datatable that has two columns start date and end date. Both contain primefaces p:calendar controls in them. I need to ensure that for each row that the date in column1 is not after the date in column2. I would like to tie this into the JSF validation framework, but I'm having trouble. i've tried marking the datatable rowStatePreserved="true" , this allows me to get the values, but something is still wrong as when it fails, all the values in the first row overwrite all the other values. What am I doing wrong, or should I be using a completely different strategy? xhtml code <h:form> <f:event type="postValidate" listener="#{bean.doCrossFieldValidation}"/> <p:dataTable id="eventDaysTable" value="#{course.courseSchedules}" var="_eventDay" styleClass="compactDataTable" > <p:column id="eventDayStartColumn"> <f:facet name="header"> Start </f:facet> <p:calendar id="startDate" required="true" value="#{_eventDay.startTime}" pattern="MM/dd/yyyy hh:mm a"/> </p:column> <p:column id="eventDayEndColumn"> <f:facet name="header"> End </f:facet> <p:calendar id="endDate" required="true" value="#{_eventDay.endTime}" pattern="MM/dd/yyyy hh:mm a"/> </p:column> </p:dataTable> </h:form> validationCode public void doCrossFieldValidation(ComponentSystemEvent cse) { UIData eventsDaysStable = (UIData) cse.getComponent().findComponent("eventDaysTable"); if (null != eventsDaysStable && eventsDaysStable.isRendered()) { Iterator<UIComponent> startDateCalendarIterator = eventsDaysStable.findComponent("eventDayStartColumn").getChildren().iterator(); Iterator<UIComponent> endDateCalendarIterator = eventsDaysStable.findComponent("eventDayEndColumn").getChildren().iterator(); while (startDateCalendarIterator.hasNext() && endDateCalendarIterator.hasNext()) { org.primefaces.component.calendar.Calendar startDateComponent = (org.primefaces.component.calendar.Calendar) startDateCalendarIterator.next(); org.primefaces.component.calendar.Calendar endDateComponent = (org.primefaces.component.calendar.Calendar) endDateCalendarIterator.next(); Date startDate = (Date) startDateComponent.getValue(); Date endDate = (Date) endDateComponent.getValue(); if (null != startDate && null != endDate && startDate.after(endDate)) { eventScheduleChronologyOk = false; startDateComponent.setValid(false); endDateComponent.setValid(false); } } if (!eventScheduleChronologyOk) { showErrorMessage(ProductManagementMessage.PRODUCT_SCHEDULE_OUT_OF_ORDER); } } }

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  • "Emulating" Application.Run using Application.DoEvents

    - by Luca
    I'm getting in trouble. I'm trying to emulate the call Application.Run using Application.DoEvents... this sounds bad, and then I accept also alternative solutions to my question... I have to handle a message pump like Application.Run does, but I need to execute code before and after the message handling. Here is the main significant snippet of code. // Create barrier (multiple kernels synchronization) sKernelBarrier = new KernelBarrier(sKernels.Count); foreach (RenderKernel k in sKernels) { // Create rendering contexts (one for each kernel) k.CreateRenderContext(); // Start render kernel kernels k.mThread = new Thread(RenderKernelMain); k.mThread.Start(k); } while (sKernelBarrier.KernelCount > 0) { // Wait untill all kernel loops has finished sKernelBarrier.WaitKernelBarrier(); // Do application events Application.DoEvents(); // Execute shared context services foreach (RenderKernelContextService s in sContextServices) s.Execute(sSharedContext); // Next kernel render loop sKernelBarrier.ReleaseKernelBarrier(); } This snippet of code is execute by the Main routine. Pratically I have a list of Kernel classes, which runs in separate threads, these threads handle a Form for rendering in OpenGL. I need to synchronize all the Kernel threads using a barrier, and this work perfectly. Of course, I need to handle Form messages in the main thread (Main routine), for every Form created, and indeed I call Application.DoEvents() to do the job. Now I have to modify the snippet above to have a common Form (simple dialog box) without consuming the 100% of CPU calling Application.DoEvents(), as Application.Run does. The goal should be to have the snippet above handle messages when arrives, and issue a rendering (releasing the barrier) only when necessary, without trying to get the maximum FPS; there should be the possibility to switch to a strict loop to render as much as possible. How could it be possible? Note: the snippet above must be executed in the Main routine, since the OpenGL context is created on the main thread. Moving the snippet in a separated thread and calling Application.Run is quite unstable and buggy...

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  • "Simple" sort a nested array using array_multisort or native PHP functions instead of my own foreach loop

    - by Ana Ban
    I have the following array of days of the week, with each day having hours of the day (the whole array represents the schedule of a part-time employee): Array ( [7] => Array ( [0] => 15 [1] => 14 [2] => 13 [3] => 11 [4] => 12 [5] => 10 ) [1] => Array ( [0] => 10 [1] => 13 [2] => 12 ) [6] => Array ( [0] => 14 ) [3] => Array ( [0] => 4 [1] => 5 [2] => 6 ) ) and I simply need to: sort asc each sub-array (2nd dimension) - no need to maintain the numeric keys, values are integers sort asc the 1st dimension and maintain the numeric, integer keys ie: Array ( [1] => Array ( [0] => 10 [1] => 12 [2] => 13 ) [3] => Array ( [0] => 4 [1] => 5 [2] => 6 ) [6] => Array ( [0] => 14 ) [7] => Array ( [0] => 10 [1] => 11 [2] => 12 [3] => 13 [4] => 14 [5] => 15 ) ) Additional info: only the keys of the 1st dimension and the values of the 2nd dimension (and of course their association) are meaningful to my use-case the 1st dimension can have at most 7 values, ranging from 1-7 (days of the week), and will have at least 1 value (1 day) the 2nd dimension can have at most 24 values, ranging from 0-23 (hours of each day), and will have at least 1 value (1 hour per day) I know I can do this with a foreach on the whole ksorted array and sort each 2nd dimension array: ksort($sched); foreach ($sched as &$array) sort($array); unset($array); but I was hoping I could achieve this with native php array function(s) instead. My search led me to try array_multisort(array_values($array), array_keys($array), $array) but I just can't make it work.

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  • Optimizing spacing of mesh containing a given set of points

    - by Feynman
    I tried to summarize the this as best as possible in the title. I am writing an initial value problem solver in the most general way possible. I start with an arbitrary number of initial values at arbitrary locations (inside a boundary.) The first part of my program creates a mesh/grid (I am not sure which is the correct nuance), with N points total, that contains all the initial values. My goal is to optimize the mesh such that the spacing is as uniform as possible. My solver seems to work half decently (it needs some more obscure debugging that is not relevant here.) I am starting with one dimension. I intend to generalize the algorithm to an arbitrary number of dimensions once I get it working consistently. I am writing my code in fortran, but feel free to reply with pseudocode or the language of your choice. Allow me to elaborate with an example: Say I am working on a closed interval [1,10] xmin=1 xmax=10 Say I have 3 initial points: xmin, 5 and xmax num_ivc=3 known(num_ivc)=[xmin,5,xmax] //my arrays start at 1. Assume "known" starts sorted I store my mesh/grid points in an array called coord. Say I want 10 points total in my mesh/grid. N=10 coord(10) Remember, all this is arbitrary--except the variable names of course. The algorithm should set coord to {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} Now for a less trivial example: num_ivc=3 known(num_ivc)=[xmin,5.5,xmax or just num_ivc=1 known(num_ivc)=[5.5] Now, would you have 5 evenly spaced points on the interval [1, 5.5] and 5 evenly spaced points on the interval (5.5, 10]? But there is more space between 1 and 5.5 than between 5.5 and 10. So would you have 6 points on [1, 5.5] followed by 4 on (5.5 to 10]. The key is to minimize the difference in spacing. I have been working on this for 2 days straight and I can assure you it is a lot trickier than it sounds. I have written code that only works if N is large only works if N is small only works if it the known points are close together only works if it the known points are far apart only works if at least one of the known points is near a boundary only works if none of the known points are near a boundary So as you can see, I have coded the gamut of almost-solutions. I cannot figure out a way to get it to perform equally well in all possible scenarios (that is, create the optimum spacing.)

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  • C++ type-checking at compile-time

    - by Masterofpsi
    Hi, all. I'm pretty new to C++, and I'm writing a small library (mostly for my own projects) in C++. In the process of designing a type hierarchy, I've run into the problem of defining the assignment operator. I've taken the basic approach that was eventually reached in this article, which is that for every class MyClass in a hierarchy derived from a class Base you define two assignment operators like so: class MyClass: public Base { public: MyClass& operator =(MyClass const& rhs); virtual MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs); }; // automatically gets defined, so we make it call the virtual function below MyClass& MyClass::operator =(MyClass const& rhs); { return (*this = static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } MyClass& MyClass::operator =(Base const& rhs); { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); // assigning to different types is a logical error MyClass const& casted_rhs = dynamic_cast<MyClass const&>(rhs); try { // allocate new variables Base::operator =(rhs); } catch(...) { // delete the allocated variables throw; } // assign to member variables } The part I'm concerned with is the assertion for type equality. Since I'm writing a library, where assertions will presumably be compiled out of the final result, this has led me to go with a scheme that looks more like this: class MyClass: public Base { public: operator =(MyClass const& rhs); // etc virtual inline MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs) { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); return this->set(static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } private: MyClass& set(Base const& rhs); // same basic thing }; But I've been wondering if I could check the types at compile-time. I looked into Boost.TypeTraits, and I came close by doing BOOST_MPL_ASSERT((boost::is_same<BOOST_TYPEOF(*this), BOOST_TYPEOF(rhs)>));, but since rhs is declared as a reference to the parent class and not the derived class, it choked. Now that I think about it, my reasoning seems silly -- I was hoping that since the function was inline, it would be able to check the actual parameters themselves, but of course the preprocessor always gets run before the compiler. But I was wondering if anyone knew of any other way I could enforce this kind of check at compile-time.

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  • Read and write struct in C

    - by Sergey
    I have a struct: typedef struct student { char fname[30]; char sname[30]; char tname[30]; Faculty fac; int course; char group[10]; int room; int bad; } Student; I read it from the file: Database * dbOpen(char *fname) { FILE *fp = fopen(fname, "rb"); List *lst, *temp; Student *std; Database *db = malloc(sizeof(*db)); if (!fp) return NULL; FileNameS = fname; std = malloc(sizeof(*std)); if (!fread(std, sizeof(*std), 1, fp)) { db->head = db->tail = NULL; return db; } lst = malloc(sizeof(*lst)); lst->s = std; lst->prev = NULL; db->head = lst; while (!feof(fp)) { fread(std, sizeof(*std), 1, fp); temp = malloc(sizeof(*temp)); temp->s = std; temp->prev = lst; lst->next = temp; lst = temp; } lst->next = NULL; db->tail = lst; fclose(fp); return db; } And I have a problem... At the last record i have a such file pointer: `fp 0x10311448 {_ptr=0x00344b90 "???????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????? _ _iobuf * ` And i read last record 2 times... Save file code: void * dbClose(Database *db) { FILE *fp = fopen(FileNameS, "w+b"); List *lst, *temp; lst = db->head; while(lst != NULL) { fwrite(lst->s, sizeof(*(lst->s)), 1, fp); temp = lst; lst = lst->next; free(temp); } free(db); fclose(fp); }

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