Search Results

Search found 9889 results on 396 pages for 'behind the compiler'.

Page 337/396 | < Previous Page | 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344  | Next Page >

• What Test Environment Setup do Top Project Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

  - by viatropos

  Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

  Read the article

• submittingthe form even if the form is in invalid state

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

  Read the article

• VS ASP.NET 500 Server Error

  - by rlb.usa

  Hey guys, I'm having a super weird problem with my VS 2008 solution. We had this hand-coded ASP.NET compiled web app on our old IIS6/Win2003 server, working great, moved it to our new IIS7/Win2008 server, still working great, but when I try to compile the application and publish it again to our new Win2008 server, I get server 500 errors. It's ASP.NET 2.0 with AJAX extensions and AJAX control toolkit. I'm not too great with server issues, or even sure if it is a server issue but here are some more symptoms... ? I know the website works (it only differs by some minor code fixes) and can use it's code on a development machine, there are no errors, and it publishes fine. Publishing (using the DLL files), and even not publishing and trying to use the code-behind files on our new server, both no success. The old website does work on the new server just fine. If I put a simple hello world html page in the website's virtual directory, with the old code, it works fine, but with the new code, that html page gets the 500 error. And in fact, oddly, I can add all the files to the website, only when I add the web.config, do I get the 500 error. The web.config has not changed. Tried stopping and restarting IIS What's the problem, here? Any ideas, what else can I do to troubleshoot the problem?

  Read the article

• C++ ambiguous template instantiation

  - by aaa

  the following gives me ambiguous template instantiation with nvcc (combination of EDG front-end and g++). Is it really ambiguous, or is compiler wrong? I also post workaround à la boost::enable_if template<typename T> struct disable_if_serial { typedef void type; }; template<> struct disable_if_serial<serial_tag> { }; template<int M, int N, typename T> __device__ //static typename disable_if_serial<T>::type void add_evaluate_polynomial1(double *R, const double (&C)[M][N], double x, const T &thread) { // ... } template<size_t M, size_t N> __device__ static void add_evaluate_polynomial1(double *R, const double (&C)[M][N], double x, const serial_tag&) { for (size_t i = 0; i < M; ++i) add_evaluate_polynomial1(R, C, x, i); } // ambiguous template instantiation here. add_evaluate_polynomial1(R, C, x, serial_tag());

  Read the article

• how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

  - by eugeneK

  Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? Error compiler gives me is "Error 1 The type or namespace name 'MyMasterPage' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

  Read the article

• How to call implemented method of generic enum in Java?

  - by Justin Wiseman

  I am trying pass an enum into a method, iterate over that enums values, and call the method that that enum implements on all of those values. I am getting compiler errors on the part "value.getAlias()". It says "The method getAlias() is undefined for the type E" I have attempted to indicate that E implements the HasAlias interface, but it does not seem to work. Is this possible, and if so, how do I fix the code below to do what I want? The code below is only meant to show my process, it is not my intention to just print the names of the values in an enum, but to demonstate my problem. public interface HasAlias{ String getAlias(); }; public enum Letters implements HasAlias { A("The letter A"), B("The letter B"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public enum Numbers implements HasAlias { ONE("The number one"), TWO("The number two"); private final String alias; public String getAlias(){return alias;} public Letters(String alias) { this.alias = alias; } } public class Identifier { public <E extends Enum<? extends HasAlias>> void identify(Class<E> enumClass) { for(E value : enumClass.getEnumConstants()) { System.out.println(value.getAlias()); } } }

  Read the article

• wpf treeview does not show child objects

  - by gangt

  I have an object with child object(s) and I load it using linq. And I assign it to a treeView's itemssource. treeView.DisplayMemberPath = "Name"; treeView.ItemsSource = tasks; It shows only the parent nodes (task.name), I couldn't figure out how to add children (TaskItems.name). All the examples show HierarchicalData in xaml. I need to do it in code-behind, just like the above code. Is it possible? public class Task { public int Id; public string Name; public bool IsActive; public List<TaskItem> TaskItems = new List<TaskItem>(); } public class TaskItem { public int TaskId; public string Name; public string Value; } -------------- var tasks1 = from t in xd.Descendants("taskheader") select new Task { Id = (int)t.Element("id"), Name = t.Element("name").Value, IsActive = t.Element("isactive").Value == "1", TaskItems = t.Elements("taskdetail").Select(e => new TaskItem { TaskId = (int)e.Element("taskid"), Name = (string)e.Element("name"), Value = (string)e.Element("value"), }).ToList() }; -------------- List<Task> tasks = new List<Task>(); tasks = tasks1;

  Read the article

• What is wrong with this Fortran '77 snippet?

  - by notJim

  I've been tasked with maintaing some legacy fortran code, and I'm having trouble getting it to compile with gfortran. I've written a fair amount of Fortran 95, but this is my first experience with Fortran 77. This snippet of code is the problematic one: CHARACTER*22 IFILE, OFILE IFILE='TEST.IN' OFILE='TEST.OUT' OPEN(5,FILE=IFILE,STATUS='NEW') OPEN(6,FILE=OFILE,STATUS='NEW') common/pabcde/nfghi When I compile with gfortran file.FOR, all lines starting with the common statement are errors (e.g. Error: Unexpected COMMON statement at (1) for each following line until it hits the 25 error limit). I compiled with -Wall -pedantic, but fixing the warnings did not fix this problem. The crazy thing is that if I comment out all 4 lines starting with IF='TEST.IN', the program compiles and works as expected, but I must comment out all of them. Leaving any of them uncommented gives me the same errors starting with the common statement. If I comment out the common statement, I get the same errors, just starting on the following line. I am on OS X Leopard (not Snow Leopard) using gfortran. I've used this very system with gfortran extensively to write Fortran 95 programs, so in theory the compiler itself is sane. What the hell is going on with this code?

  Read the article

• Segmentation Fault when trying to push a string to the back of a list.

  - by user308012

  I am trying to write a logger class for my C++ calculator, but I'm experiencing a problem while trying to push a string into a list. I have tried researching this issue and have found some information on this, but nothing that seems to help with my problem. I am using a rather basic C++ compiler, with little debugging utilities and I've not used C++ in quite some time (even then it was only a small amount). My code: #ifndef _LOGGER_H_ #define _LOGGER_H_ #include <iostream> #include <list> #include <string> using std::cout; using std::cin; using std::endl; using std::list; using std::string; class Logger { private: list<string> *mEntries; public: Logger() { // Initialize the entries list mEntries = new list<string>(); } ~Logger() { // Release the list mEntries->clear(); delete mEntries; } // Public Methods void WriteEntry(string entry) { // *** BELOW LINE IS MARKED WITH THE ERROR *** mEntries->push_back(string(entryData)); } void DisplayEntries() { cout << endl << "**********************" << endl << "* Logger Entries *" << endl << "**********************" << endl << endl; for(list<string>::iterator it = mEntries->begin(); it != mEntries->end(); it++) { cout << *it << endl; } } }; #endif I am calling the WriteEntry method by simply passing in a string, like so: mLogger->WriteEntry("Testing"); Any advice on this would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• passing multidimensional arrays to function

  - by Pegah

  hi! I have a method in my class which uses a 3dimensional tfpairexp as input parameter. and I need to use the values in tfpairexp later. void calctfpairexp (int tf1, int tf2, double tfpairexp[][2][3]) { int ctr,c; for (int j = 0; j < cchips && (c = chips[j].crepls); j += c) { int ctrl_no=0; for (int *p = chips[j].ctrl ; p && (ctr=*p)>=0; ++p,ctrl_no++) { for (int k = 0; k < c; ++k) { tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); } } } } I call the method inside the class like this: calctfpairexp(tf1,tf2,tfpairexp); and I need to use values inside tfpairexp in next lines. but the compiler gives error in this line: tfpairexp[j][ctrl_no][k]=interactionFunc(2,3,1); and says that the tfpairexp variable is not defined in the calctfpairexp function. any idea?

  Read the article

• C: Fifo between threads, writing and reading strings

  - by Yonatan

  Hello once more dear internet, I writing a small program that among other things, writes a log file of commands received. to do that, I want to use a thread that all it should do is just attempt to read from a pipe, while the main thread will write into that pipe whenever it should. Since i don't know the length of each string command, i thought about writing and reading the pointer to the char buf[MAX_MESSAGE_LEN]. Since what i've tried so far doesn't work, i'll post my best effort :P char str[] = "hello log thread 123456789 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19\n"; if (pipe(pipe_fd) != 0) return -1; pthread_t log_thread; pthread_create(&log_thread,NULL, log_thread_start, argv[2]); success_write = 0; do { write(pipe_fd[1],(void*)&str,sizeof(char*)); } while (success_write < sizeof(char*)); and the thread does this: char buffer[MAX_MSGLEN]; int success_read; success_read = 0; //while(1) { do { success_read += read(pipe_fd[0],(void*)&buffer, sizeof(char*)); } while (success_read < sizeof(char*)); //} printf("%s",buffer); (Sorry if this doesn't indent, i can't seem to figure out this editor...) oh, and pipe_fd[2] is a global parameter. So, any help with this, either by the way i thought of, or another way i could read strings without knowing the length, would be much appreciated. On a side note, i'm working on Eclipse IDE C/C++, version 1.2.1 and i can't seem to set up the compiler so it will link the pthread library to my project. I've resorted to writing my own Makefile to make it (pun intended :P) work. Anyone knows what to do ? i've looked online, but all i find are solutions that are probably good on an older version because the tabs and option keys are different. Anyways, Thanks a bunch internet ! Yonatan

  Read the article

• Can tomcat perform ssl redirection by filtering host alias?

  - by Stephen

  Hi, We have a tomcat server (6.0.20) running one web application behind two urls, e.g. www.foo and secure.foo This is configured in the server.xml as one host with a single alias: <Host name="www.foo" appBase="webapps"> <Context docBase="foo" path=""></Context> <Alias>secure.foo</Alias> </Host> Ideally we'd like any requests to secure.foo on port 80 to be automatically redirected to use ssl. However, I can only find instructions for redirecting based on the path after the hostname, so I could add a /* security constraint but then this would apply to both urls. Does anyone know if it's possible to apply the redirection by filtering on hostname requested? (We've already got the ssl connector, certificate, etc. working ok). I know we could do it by sticking an apache server in front of tomcat and handling the redirection there, but I'm curious to know if tomcat can do this on its own. Thanks

  Read the article

• How to get drag working properly in silverlight when mouse is not pressed ?

  - by Mrt

  Hello, I have the following code xaml <Canvas x:Name="LayoutRoot" > <Rectangle Canvas.Left="40" Canvas.Top="40" Width="20" Height="20" Name="rec" Fill="Red" MouseLeftButtonDown="rec_MouseLeftButtonDown" MouseMove="rec_MouseMove" /> </Canvas> code behind public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); } public Point LastDragPosition { get; set; } private bool isDragging; private void rec_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if(!isDragging) { return; } var position = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); var newPosition = new Point( Canvas.GetLeft(rec) + position.X - LastDragPosition.X, Canvas.GetTop(rec) + position.Y - LastDragPosition.Y); Canvas.SetLeft(rec, newPosition.X); Canvas.SetTop(rec, newPosition.Y); LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); } private void rec_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { isDragging = true; LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(sender as UIElement); rec.CaptureMouse(); } } This issue is the rectangle follows the mouse if the mouse left button is down, but I would like the rectangle to move even when the mouse left button isn't down. It works, but if you move the mouse very slowly. If you move the mouse to quickly the rectangle stops moving (is the mouse capture lost ?) Cheers,

  Read the article

• How does asp.net MVC remember my false values on postback?

  - by Michel

  Hi, This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

  Read the article

• Using static variables for Strings

  - by Vivart

  below content is taken from Best practice: Writing efficient code but i didn't understand why private static String x = "example"; faster than private static final String x ="example"; Can anybody explain this. Using static variables for Strings When you define static fields (also called class fields) of type String, you can increase application speed by using static variables (not final) instead of constants (final). The opposite is true for primitive data types, such as int. For example, you might create a String object as follows: private static final String x = "example"; For this static constant (denoted by the final keyword), each time that you use the constant, a temporary String instance is created. The compiler eliminates "x" and replaces it with the string "example" in the bytecode, so that the BlackBerry® Java® Virtual Machine performs a hash table lookup each time that you reference "x". In contrast, for a static variable (no final keyword), the String is created once. The BlackBerry JVM performs the hash table lookup only when it initializes "x", so access is faster. private static String x = "example"; You can use public constants (that is, final fields), but you must mark variables as private.

  Read the article

• What are the general strategies for the server of an FPS multiplayer game to update its clients?

  - by Hooray Im Helping

  A friend and I were having a discussion about how a FPS server updates the clients connected to it. We watched a video of a guy cheating in Battlefield: Bad Company 2 and saw how it highlighted the position of enemies on the screen and it got us thinking. His contention was that the server only updates the client with information that is immediately relevant to the client. I.e. the server won't send information about enemy players if they are too far away from the client or out of the client's line of sight for reasons of efficiency. He was unsure though - he brought up the example of someone hiding behind a rock, not able to see anyone. If the player were suddenly to pop up where he had three players in his line of sight, there would be a 50ms delay before they were rendered on his screen while the server transmitted the necessary information. My contention was the opposite: that the server sends the client all the information about every player and lets the client sort out what is allowed and what isn't. I figured it would actually be less expensive computationally for the server to just send everything to the client and let the client do the heavy lifting, so to speak. I also figured this is how cheat programs work - they intercept the server packets, get the location of enemies, then show them on the client's view. So the question: What are some general policies or strategies a modern first person shooter server employs to keep its clients updated?

  Read the article

• Can knowing C actually hurt the code you write in higher level languages?

  - by Jurily

  The question seems settled, beaten to death even. Smart people have said smart things on the subject. To be a really good programmer, you need to know C. Or do you? I was enlightened twice this week. The first one made me realize that my assumptions don't go further than my knowledge behind them, and given the complexity of software running on my machine, that's almost non-existent. But what really drove it home was this Slashdot comment: The end result is that I notice the many naive ways in which traditional C "bare metal" programmers assume that higher level languages are implemented. They make bad "optimization" decisions in projects they influence, because they have no idea how a compiler works or how different a good runtime system may be from the naive macro-assembler model they understand. Then it hit me: C is just one more abstraction, like all others. Even the CPU itself is only an abstraction! I've just never seen it break, because I don't have the tools to measure it. I'm confused. Has my mind been mutilated beyond recovery, like Dijkstra said about BASIC? Am I living in a constant state of premature optimization? Is there hope for me, now that I realized I know nothing about anything? Is there anything to know, even? And why is it so fascinating, that everything I've written in the last five years might have been fundamentally wrong? To sum it up: is there any value in knowing more than the API docs tell me? EDIT: Made CW. Of course this also means now you must post examples of the interpreter/runtime optimizing better than we do :)

  Read the article

• My python program always brings down my internet connection after several hours running, how do I debug and fix this problem?

  - by Shane

  I'm writing a python script checking/monitoring several server/websites status(response time and similar stuff), it's a GUI program and I use separate thread to check different server/website, and the basic structure of each thread is using an infinite while loop to request that site every random time period(15 to 30 seconds), once there's changes in website/server each thread will start a new thread to do a thorough check(requesting more pages and similar stuff). The problem is, my internet connection always got blocked/jammed/messed up after several hours running of this script, the situation is, from my script side I got urlopen error timed out each time it's requesting a page, and from my FireFox browser side I cannot open any site. But the weird thing is, the moment I close my script my Internet connection got back on immediately which means now I can surf any site through my browser, so it must be the script causing all the problem. I've checked the program carefully and even use del to delete any connection once it's used, still get the same problem. I only use urllib2, urllib, mechanize to do network requests. Anybody knows why such thing happens? How do I debug this problem? Is there a tool or something to check my network status once such situation occurs? It's really bugging me for a while... By the way I'm behind a VPN, does it have something to do with this problem? Although I don't think so because my network always get back on once the script closed, and the VPN connection never drops(as it appears) during the whole process.

  Read the article

• How to configure Server Topology for exposing an internal application for external access?

  - by ronaldwidha

  Hi All, I guess this question is bordering to a Server Fault question. I'd like to know the best configuration for exposing an internal application (in this case a load balanced Asp.Net MVC application) for external access. More details about the situation: The Asp.Net MVC Application is currently running on 2 servers The 2 servers are behind a Windows Network Load Balancer All the servers are on premise/internal network I'm thinking of introducing an F5 Load balancer on off premise DMZ to replace the Windows Network Load Balancer. F5 will act as the public traffic gateway and load balancers to the 2 servers. However, I'd like the internal users to not have go through the Internet to access the app. The idea that I have so far is to keep both Windows Network Load Balancer and the F5. Each appliance will have its own IP and will have its own domain name. External users can use the public domain name which will hit F5, whereas internal users can use the internal domain name which will hit the Windows Network Load Balancer. Is this a good idea? Or is there a better way of doing this?

  Read the article

• Am I fundamentally misunderstanding how Silverlight runs? (debugging issues)

  - by SP

  I've got a vs2010 solution containing an ASP.Net 4 website, and a Silverlight 4 project. The website is linked to the Silverlight project ('Map') and the ClientBin folder contains a Map.xap file. The Map project is very simple. It contains the default App.xaml and App.xaml.cs files. The MainPage.xaml file looks like this <UserControl x:Class="Map.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="380" d:DesignWidth="800"> <Canvas x:Name="MainCanvas" Width="800" Height="380"> <Canvas.Background> <ImageBrush ImageSource="map.png" Stretch="None"/> </Canvas.Background> </Canvas> The code behind for that looks like this: public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); throw new Exception(); } } Inside one of the website pages I have the default object pointing to my Silverlight xap When I run the website, I see my background image on the Canvas in the Silverlight window, so I know it's working in that sense. However, I cannot break on any breakpoints set in the MainPage.xaml.cs file (in IE). I have checked the correct settings for Silverlight debugging. And see that Exception I'm throwing in the MainPage constructor? I'm not seeing that either. In fact, nothing I put in there seems to be run at all, but I know the xaml is rendering because I can see my canvas background. What am I not getting here?

  Read the article

• Determining selected state of jQuery Buttons

  - by lloydphillips

  I've got two radio buttons in a .net page which are being transformed to jQuery buttons a la http://jqueryui.com/demos/button/#radio When the page is loaded I have button 2 as checked. When clicking the buttons I'm firing the postback event. Problem is you can click on that button that is selected by default on the initial load i.e. Button 2, the postback is fired but the event handler isn't called in the .net code behind because the radio button is already classed as selected (and in normal circumstances wouldn't allow the postback to fire). To get around this I've added the e.PreventDefault() method BUT this is causing issues when Button 1 is clicked because before the click handler is called the button is set to selected. Therefore, in every case in the following code e.PreventDefault() is called: $(document).ready(function(){ $("[id*='rbPayable']").click(function(e){ if ($("[id*='rbPayable']").attr("checked")) e.preventDefault(); else setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'this.id\',\'\')', 0) }) $("[id*='rbReceivable']").click(function(e){ if ($("[id*='rbReceivable']").attr("checked")) e.preventDefault(); else setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'this.id\',\'\')', 0) }) }); What is the best way for me to load the page and effectively be able to do the following: 'If rbReceivable is checked then don't do anything otherwise do a postback.'

  Read the article

• Questions regarding detouring by modifying the virtual table

  - by Elliott Darfink

  I've been practicing detours using the same approach as Microsoft Detours (replace the first five bytes with a jmp and an address). More recently I've been reading about detouring by modifying the virtual table. I would appreciate if someone could shed some light on the subject by mentioning a few pros and cons with this method compared to the one previously mentioned! I'd also like to ask about patched vtables and objects on the stack. Consider the following situation: // Class definition struct Foo { virtual void Call(void) { std::cout << "FooCall\n"; } }; // If it's GCC, 'this' is passed as the first parameter void MyCall(Foo * object) { std::cout << "MyCall\n"; } // In some function Foo * foo = new Foo; // Allocated on the heap Foo foo2; // Created on the stack // Arguments: void ** vtable, uint offset, void * replacement PatchVTable(*reinterpret_cast<void***>(foo), 0, MyCall); // Call the methods foo->Call(); // Outputs: 'MyCall' foo2.Call(); // Outputs: 'FooCall' In this case foo->Call() would end up calling MyCall(Foo * object) whilst foo2.Call() call the original function (i.e Foo::Call(void) method). This is because the compiler will try to decide any virtual calls during compile time if possible (correct me if I'm wrong). Does that mean it does not matter if you patch the virtual table or not, as long as you use objects on the stack (not heap allocated)?

  Read the article

• Pointers and Addresses in C

  - by Mohit

  #include "stdio.h" main() { int i=3,*x; float j=1.5,*y; char k='c',*z; x=&i; y=&j; z=&k; printf("\nAddress of x= %u",x); printf("\nAddress of y= %u",y); printf("\nAddress of z= %u",z); x++; y++;y++;y++;y++; z++; printf("\nNew Address of x= %u",x); printf("\nNew Address of y= %u",y); printf("\nNew Address of z= %u",z); printf("\nNew Value of i= %d",i); printf("\nNew Value of j= %f",j); printf("\nNew Value of k= %c\n",k); } Output: Address of x= 3219901868 Address of y= 3219901860 Address of z= 3219901875 New Address of x= 3219901872 New Address of y= 3219901876 New Address of z= 3219901876 New Value of i= 3 New Value of j= 1.500000 New Value of k= c The new address of variable y and z are same. How can two variables have same address and et have different values? Note: I used gcc compiler on Ubuntu 9.04

  Read the article

• Class<T> and static method Class.forName() drive me crazy.

  - by matt

  Hi, this code doesn't compile. I'm wondering what I am doing wrong: private static Importable getRightInstance(String s) throws Exception { Class<Importable> c = Class.forName(s); Importable i = c.newInstance(); return i; } where Importable is an interface and the string s is the name of an implementing class. The compiler says: ./Importer.java:33: incompatible types found : java.lang.Class<capture#964 of ?> required: java.lang.Class<Importable> Class<Importable> c = Class.forName(format(s)); thanks for any help! All the solutions Class<? extends Importable> c = Class.forName(s).asSubclass(Importable.class); and Class<? extends Importable> c = (Class<? extends Importable>) Class.forName(s); and Class<?> c = Class.forName(format(s)); Importable i = (Importable)c.newInstance(); give this error: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.IncompatibleClassChangeError: class C1 has interface Importable as super class where C1 is effectively a class implementing Importable, one of those i want to cast to Importable.

  Read the article

• problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

  - by Ted

  I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344  | Next Page >