Search Results

Search found 1128 results on 46 pages for 'sees'.

Page 34/46 | < Previous Page | 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41  | Next Page >

  • What could be causing a "Cannot access a disposed object" error in WCF?

    - by Nima
    I am using the following code: private WSHttpBinding ws; private EndpointAddress Srv_Login_EndPoint; private ChannelFactory<Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin> Srv_LoginChannelFactory; private Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin LoginService; The Login is my constructor: public Login() { InitializeComponent(); ws = new WSHttpBinding(); Srv_Login_EndPoint = new EndpointAddress("http://localhost:2687/Srv_Login.svc"); Srv_LoginChannelFactory = new ChannelFactory<Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin>(ws, Srv_Login_EndPoint); } And I'm using service this way: private void btnEnter_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { LoginService = Srv_LoginChannelFactory.CreateChannel(); Srv_Login.LoginResult res = new Srv_Login.LoginResult(); res = LoginService.IsAuthenticated(txtUserName.Text.Trim(), txtPassword.Text.Trim()); if (res.Status == true) { int Id = int.Parse(res.Result.ToString()); } else { lblMessage.Text = "Not Enter"; } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { Srv_LoginChannelFactory.Close(); } } When the user enters a valid username and password, everything is fine. When the user enters a wrong username and password, the first try correctly displays a "Not Enter" message, but on the second try, the user sees this message: {System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1[Test_Poosesh.Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin]'. at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.ThrowIfDisposed() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory.EnsureOpened() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel() How can I fix my code to prevent this error from occurring?

    Read the article

  • Auto load a specific link at various time intervals

    - by user228837
    Here's what I need to do. I'm using Google Chrome. I have page that auto-reloads every 5 seconds using a script: javascript: timeout=prompt("Set timeout [s]"); current=location.href; if(timeout>0) setTimeout('reload()',1000*timeout); else location.replace(current); function reload() { setTimeout('reload()',1000*timeout); fr4me='<frameset cols=\'*\'>\n<frame src=\''+current+'\'/>'; fr4me+='</frameset>'; with(document){write(fr4me);void(close())}; } I found that script by Googling. The reason why the page auto-reloads every 5 seconds is I'm waiting for a specific link or url to appear in the page. It appears at random times. Once I see the link I'm waiting for, I immediately click the link. That's fine. But I want more. What I want is the page will auto-reload and I want it to auto-detect the the link I'm waiting for. Once the script finds the link I'm waiting for, it automatically loads that link on a new tab or page. For example, I'm auto-reloading www.example.com. I'm waiting for a specific url "BUY NOW". When the page auto-reloads, it checks if there's a url "BUY NOW". If it sees one, it should automatically open that link. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Calculating Nearest Match to Mean/Stddev Pair With LibSVM

    - by Chris S
    I'm new to SVMs, and I'm trying to use the Python interface to libsvm to classify a sample containing a mean and stddev. However, I'm getting nonsensical results. Is this task inappropriate for SVMs or is there an error in my use of libsvm? Below is the simple Python script I'm using to test: #!/usr/bin/env python # Simple classifier test. # Adapted from the svm_test.py file included in the standard libsvm distribution. from collections import defaultdict from svm import * # Define our sparse data formatted training and testing sets. labels = [1,2,3,4] train = [ # key: 0=mean, 1=stddev {0:2.5,1:3.5}, {0:5,1:1.2}, {0:7,1:3.3}, {0:10.3,1:0.3}, ] problem = svm_problem(labels, train) test = [ ({0:3, 1:3.11},1), ({0:7.3,1:3.1},3), ({0:7,1:3.3},3), ({0:9.8,1:0.5},4), ] # Test classifiers. kernels = [LINEAR, POLY, RBF] kname = ['linear','polynomial','rbf'] correct = defaultdict(int) for kn,kt in zip(kname,kernels): print kt param = svm_parameter(kernel_type = kt, C=10, probability = 1) model = svm_model(problem, param) for test_sample,correct_label in test: pred_label, pred_probability = model.predict_probability(test_sample) correct[kn] += pred_label == correct_label # Show results. print '-'*80 print 'Accuracy:' for kn,correct_count in correct.iteritems(): print '\t',kn, '%.6f (%i of %i)' % (correct_count/float(len(test)), correct_count, len(test)) The domain seems fairly simple. I'd expect that if it's trained to know a mean of 2.5 means label 1, then when it sees a mean of 2.4, it should return label 1 as the most likely classification. However, each kernel has an accuracy of 0%. Why is this? On a side note, is there a way to hide all the verbose training output dumped by libsvm in the terminal? I've searched libsvm's docs and code, but I can't find any way to turn this off.

    Read the article

  • Finding the last focused element with jQuery.

    - by Joshua Cody
    I'm looking to determine which element had the last focus in a series of inputs, that are added dynamically by the user. This code can only get the inputs that are available on page load: $('input.item').focus(function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); And this code sees all elements that have ever had focus: $('input.item').live('focus', function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); The HTML structure is this: <ul> <li><input class="item" name="goals[]"> <ul> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> </ul></li> </ul> <a href="#" id="add">Add another</a> On page load, a single input loads. Then with each add another, a new copy of the top unordered list's contents are made and appended. And when each gets focus, I'd like to show the list beneath it. But I don't seem to be able to "watch for the most recently focused element, which exists now or in the future." Do I have some sort of fundamental assumption wrong?

    Read the article

  • jQuery getJSON request returning empty on a valid request

    - by mikemike
    I'm trying to grab some JSON from Apple's iTunes JSON service. The request is simple: http://ax.phobos.apple.com.edgesuite.net/WebObjects/MZStoreServices.woa/wa/wsSearch?term=jac&limit=25 If you visit the URL in your browser you will see some well-formed (backed up by jsonlint.com) JSON. When I use the following jQuery to make the request, however, the request finds nothing: $("#soundtrack").keypress(function(){ $.getJSON("http://ax.phobos.apple.com.edgesuite.net/WebObjects/MZStoreServices.woa/wa/wsSearch",{'term':$(this).val(), 'limit':'25'}, function(j){ var options = ''; for (var i = 0; i < j.results.length; i++) { options += '<option value="' + j.results[i].trackId + '">' + j.results[i].artistName + ' - ' + j.results[i].trackName + '</option>'; } $("#track_id").html(options); }); }); Firebug sees the request, but only receives an empty response. Any help would be appreciated here, as I'm at my whits end trying to solve it. You can view the script here: http://rnmtest.co.uk/gd/drives_admin/add_drive (soundtrack input box is at the bottom of the page). Thanks

    Read the article

  • Strange rare out-of-order data received using Indy

    - by Jim
    We're having a bizarre problem with Indy10 where two large strings (a few hundred characters each) that we send out one after the other are appearing at the other end intertwined oddly. This happens extremely infrequently. Each string is a complete XML message terminated with a LF and in general the READ process reads an entire XML message, returning when it sees the LF. The call to actually send the message is protected by a critical section around the call to the IOHandler's writeln method and so it is not possible for two threads to send at the same time. (We're certain the critical section is implemented/working properly). This problem happens very rarely. The symptoms are odd...when we send string A followed by string B what we received at the other end (on the rare occasions where we have failure) is the trailing section of string A by itself (i.e., there's a LF at the end of it) followed by the leading section of string A and then the entire string B followed by a single LF. We've verified that the "timed out" property is not true after the partial read - we log that property after every read that returns content. Also, we know there are no embedded LF characters in the string, as we explicitly replace all non-alphanumeric characters in the string with spaces before appending the LF and sending it. We have log mechanisms inside the critical sections on both the transmission and receiving ends and so we can see this behavior at the "wire". We're completely baffled and wondering (although always the lowest possibility) whether there could be some low-level Indy issues that might cause this issue, e.g., buffers being sent in the wrong order....very hard to believe this could be the issue but we're grasping at straws. Does anyone have any bright ideas?

    Read the article

  • Jackson object mapping - map incoming JSON field to protected property in base class

    - by Pete
    We use Jersey/Jackson for our REST application. Incoming JSON strings get mapped to the @Entity objects in the backend by Jackson to be persisted. The problem arises from the base class that we use for all entities. It has a protected id property, which we want to exchange via REST as well so that when we send an object that has dependencies, hibernate will automatically fetch these dependencies by their ids. Howevery, Jackson does not access the setter, even if we override it in the subclass to be public. We also tried using @JsonSetter but to no avail. Probably Jackson just looks at the base class and sees ID is not accessible so it skips setting it... @MappedSuperclass public abstract class AbstractPersistable<PK extends Serializable> implements Persistable<PK> { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private PK id; public PK getId() { return id; } protected void setId(final PK id) { this.id = id; } Subclasses: public class A extends AbstractPersistable<Long> { private String name; } public class B extends AbstractPersistable<Long> { private A a; private int value; // getter, setter // make base class setter accessible @Override @JsonSetter("id") public void setId(Long id) { super.setId(id); } } Now if there are some As in our database and we want to create a new B via the REST resource: @POST @Consumes(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Produces(MediaType.APPLICATION_JSON) @Transactional public Response create(B b) { if (b.getA().getId() == null) cry(); } with a JSON String like this {"a":{"id":"1","name":"foo"},"value":"123"}. The incoming B will have the A reference but without an ID. Is there any way to tell Jackson to either ignore the base class setter or tell it to use the subclass setter instead? I've just found out about @JsonTypeInfo but I'm not sure this is what I need or how to use it. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Assert.AreEqual to not fail when comparing an enum and an int

    - by codingbear
    I'm not sure if this is doable, but I will just give a shot. I am calling Assert.AreEqual() method. For the parameters, I'm passing... an enum value which has Int32 as the underlying type because I didn't specify the base type an int (Int32) value Assert fails because it sees that the enum is not int (which is definitely correct). However, is there a way to make this Assert pass when the enum has the correct int value as the 2nd parameter? I can cast the enum to int and have it a quick fix, but it's really ugly. I was expecting some kind of overriding a method that Assert uses to compare 2 different objects and implicitly make that enum type look like an int. However, I wasn't successful at finding any hint/answer around that so far. Someone suggested to create a type converter and use the TypeConverterAttribute to get around. If this works for sure and is the only way to do it, I would; however, it does seem a lot of unnecessary work.

    Read the article

  • How to express inter project dependencies in Eclipse PDE

    - by Roland Tepp
    I am looking for the best practice of handling inter project dependencies between mixed project types where some of the projects are eclipse plug-in/OSGI bundle projects (an RCP application) and others are just plain old java projects (web services modules). Few of the eclipse plug-ins have dependencies on Java projects. My problem is that at least as far as I've looked, there is no way of cleanly expressing such a dependency in Eclipse PDE environment. I can have plug-in projects depend on other plug-in projects (via Import-Package or Require-Bundle manifest headers), but not of the plain java projects. I seem to be able to have project declare a dependency on a jar from another project in a workspace, but these jar files do not get picked up by neither export nor launch configuration (although, java code editing sees the libraries just fine). The "Java projects" are used for building services to be deployed on an J2EE container (JBoss 4.2.2 for the moment) and produce in some cases multiple jar's - one for deploying to the JBoss ear and another for use by client code (an RCP application). The way we've "solved" this problem for now is that we have 2 more external tools launcher configurations - one for building all the jar's and another for copying these jar's to the plug-in projects. This works (sort of), but the "whole build" and "copy jars" targets incur quite a large build step, bypassing the whole eclipse incremental build feature and by copying the jars instead of just referencing the projects I am decoupling the dependency information and requesting quite a massive workspace refresh that eats up the development time like it was candy. What I would like to have is a much more "natural" workspace setup that would manage dependencies between projects and request incremental rebuilds only as they are needed, be able to use client code from service libraries in an RCP application plug-ins and be able to launch the RCP application with all the necessary classes where they are needed. So can I have my cake and eat it too ;) NOTE To be clear, this is not so much about dependency management and module management at the moment as it is about Eclipse PDE configuration. I am well aware of products like [Maven], [Ivy] and [Buckminster] and they solve a quite different problem (once I've solved the workspace configuration issue, these products can actually come in handy for materializing the workspace and building the product)

    Read the article

  • GPS on emulator doesn't get the geo fix - Android

    - by MaurizioPz
    Hi I'm developing an application for the android OS, I'm just starting, but I can't get the GPS on the emulator to work. I've read on the internet that you need to send a geo fix to the emulator in order to enable the gps locationProvider. I'm both using the DDMS and telnet to try to send it, but logcat never tells me the it recived a new fix, and my apolication still sees the gps as disabled here's my code package eu.mauriziopz.gps; import java.util.Iterator; import java.util.List; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.location.LocationManager; import android.os.Bundle; import android.util.Log; public class ggps extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); LocationManager l =(LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); List<String> li = l.getAllProviders(); for (Iterator<String> iterator = li.iterator(); iterator.hasNext();) { String string = iterator.next(); Log.d("gps", string); } if (l.getLastKnownLocation("gps")==null) Log.d("gps", "null"); } } I've read that the DDMS may not work properly on a non english OS, but telnet should work! update: the gps is enabled in the settings

    Read the article

  • Multiple Out-of-Browser Applications in One Application

    - by Otaku
    I'm looking at a scenario where I need to create a single "master" Silverlight application and then add "child" applications for an out-of-browser Silverlight application. The scenario is something like this. A user will visit a gameboard web site and choose a game to play. Let's call it Checkers. He likes it, so then he installs the out-of-browser app to his desktop. He then finds Chess, and installs that too. For both games, while played on the site, he has stats (games played, win/loss records, etc.). For each game on the site, he navigates to a different page. But now he wants to play offline and view his stats and other cross-games information. He wants to have a single app to launch to play either game. From his single out-of-browser app, he sees that Go is also available, and he places a checkmark against it to download on his next connection. Does anyone have any experience at developing multiple out-of-browser Silverlight apps that reside within a single master app? What considerations need to be had for this type of design? How would this work in terms of install experience from different web pages?

    Read the article

  • How does 'lazy' work?

    - by Matt Fenwick
    What is the difference between these two functions? I see that lazy is intended to be lazy, but I don't understand how that is accomplished. -- | Identity function. id :: a -> a id x = x -- | The call '(lazy e)' means the same as 'e', but 'lazy' has a -- magical strictness property: it is lazy in its first argument, -- even though its semantics is strict. lazy :: a -> a lazy x = x -- Implementation note: its strictness and unfolding are over-ridden -- by the definition in MkId.lhs; in both cases to nothing at all. -- That way, 'lazy' does not get inlined, and the strictness analyser -- sees it as lazy. Then the worker/wrapper phase inlines it. -- Result: happiness Tracking down the note in MkId.lhs (hopefully this is the right note and version, sorry if it's not): Note [lazyId magic] ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ lazy :: forall a?. a? -> a? (i.e. works for unboxed types too) Used to lazify pseq: pseq a b = a `seq` lazy b Also, no strictness: by being a built-in Id, all the info about lazyId comes from here, not from GHC.Base.hi. This is important, because the strictness analyser will spot it as strict! Also no unfolding in lazyId: it gets "inlined" by a HACK in CorePrep. It's very important to do this inlining after unfoldings are exposed in the interface file. Otherwise, the unfolding for (say) pseq in the interface file will not mention 'lazy', so if we inline 'pseq' we'll totally miss the very thing that 'lazy' was there for in the first place. See Trac #3259 for a real world example. lazyId is defined in GHC.Base, so we don't have to inline it. If it appears un-applied, we'll end up just calling it. I don't understand that because it refers to lazyId instead of lazy. How does lazy work?

    Read the article

  • Why user control with code behind file doesn't want to compile under MVC2?

    - by kyrisu
    I have user control in my MVC2 app placed in the Content folder (it's not supposed to be a view, just reusable part of the app). UserControl1.ascx looks like: <@ Control AutoEventWireup="true" Language="C#" CodeFile="~/Content/UserControl1.ascx.cs" Inherits="MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1" %> <div runat="server" id="mydiv"> <asp:LinkButton id="lb_text" runat="server"></asp:LinkButton> </div> UserControl1.ascx.cs looks like: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; namespace MVCDrill.Content { public class UserControl1 : UserControl { public string Text { get { return this.lb_text.Text; } set { this.lb_text.Text = value; } } } } I'm pretty sure this kind of stuff compiled under webforms but I'm getting compilation error: 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' does not contain a definition for 'lb_text' and no extension method 'lb_text' accepting a first argument of type 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Am I missing something? How to change it (what is the alternative) in MVC2 ? p.s. Intellisense sees lb_text with no problem. I've tried with different controls with the same outcome.

    Read the article

  • Codility-like sites for code golfs

    - by Adam Matan
    Hi, I've run into codility.com new cool service after listening to one of the recent stackoverflow.com podcasts. In short, it presents the user with a programming riddle to solve, within a given time frame. The user writes code in an online editor, and has the ability to run the program and view the standard output. After final submission, the user sees its final score and which tests failed him. Quoting Joel Spolsky: You are given a programming problem, you can do it in Java, C++, C#, C, Pascal, Python and PHP, which is pretty cool, and you have 30 minutes. And it gives you an editor in a webpage. And you've got to just start typing your code. And it's going to time you, basically you have to do it in a certain amount of time. And it actually runs your code and determines the performance characteristics of your code. It is intended for job interview screenings, but the idea seems very cool for code-golfs and for practicing new languages. Do you know if there's any proper open replacement? Adam

    Read the article

  • Ways std::stringstream can set fail/bad bit?

    - by Evan Teran
    A common piece of code I use for simple string splitting looks like this: inline std::vector<std::string> split(const std::string &s, char delim) { std::vector<std::string> elems; std::stringstream ss(s); std::string item; while(std::getline(ss, item, delim)) { elems.push_back(item); } return elems; } Someone mentioned that this will silently "swallow" errors occurring in std::getline. And of course I agree that's the case. But it occurred to me, what could possibly go wrong here in practice that I would need to worry about. basically it all boils down to this: inline std::vector<std::string> split(const std::string &s, char delim) { std::vector<std::string> elems; std::stringstream ss(s); std::string item; while(std::getline(ss, item, delim)) { elems.push_back(item); } if(ss.fail()) { // *** How did we get here!? *** } return elems; } A stringstream is backed by a string, so we don't have to worry about any of the issues associated with reading from a file. There is no type conversion going on here since getline simply reads until it sees a newline or EOF. So we can't get any of the errors that something like boost::lexical_cast has to worry about. I simply can't think of something besides failing to allocate enough memory that could go wrong, but that'll just throw a std::bad_alloc well before the std::getline even takes place. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Hiring a programmer: looking for the "right attitude"

    - by Totophil
    It's actually two questions in one: What is the right attitude for a programmer? How do you (or would you) look for one when interviewing or during hiring process? Please note this question is not about personality or traits of a candidate, it is about their attitude towards what they do for living. This is also not about reverse of programmers pet peeves. The question has been made community wiki, since I am interested in a good answer rather than reputation. I disagree that the question is purely subjective and just a matter of opinion: clearly some attitudes make a better programmer than others. Consecutively, there might quite possibly exist an attitude that is common to the most of the better programmers. Update: After some deliberation I came up with the following attitude measurement scales: identifies themselves with the job ? fully detached perceives code as a collection of concepts ? sees code as a sequence of steps thinks of creating software as an art ? takes 100% rational approach to design and development Answers that include some sort of a comment on the appropriateness of these scales are greatly appreciated. Definition of "attitude": a complex mental state involving beliefs and feelings and values and dispositions to act in certain ways; "he had the attitude that work was fun" The question came as a result of some reflection on the top voted answer to "How do you ensure code quality?" here on Stack Overflow.

    Read the article

  • How to Verify Signature, Loading PUBLIC KEY From PEM file?

    - by bbirtle
    I'm posting this in the hope it saves somebody else the hours I lost on this really stupid problem involving converting formats of public keys. If anybody sees a simpler solution or a problem, please let me know! The eCommerce system I'm using sends me some data along with a signature. They also give me their public key in .pem format. The .pem file looks like this: -----BEGIN PUBLIC KEY----- MIGfMA0GCSqGSIb3DQEBAQUAA4GNADCBiQKBgQDe+hkicNP7ROHUssGNtHwiT2Ew HFrSk/qwrcq8v5metRtTTFPE/nmzSkRnTs3GMpi57rBdxBBJW5W9cpNyGUh0jNXc VrOSClpD5Ri2hER/GcNrxVRP7RlWOqB1C03q4QYmwjHZ+zlM4OUhCCAtSWflB4wC Ka1g88CjFwRw/PB9kwIDAQAB -----END PUBLIC KEY----- Here's the magic code to turn the above into an "RSACryptoServiceProvider" which is capable of verifying the signature. Uses the BouncyCastle library, since .NET apparently (and appallingly cannot do it without some major headaches involving certificate files): RSACryptoServiceProvider thingee; using (var reader = File.OpenText(@"c:\pemfile.pem")) { var x = new PemReader(reader); var y = (RsaKeyParameters)x.ReadObject(); thingee = (RSACryptoServiceProvider)RSACryptoServiceProvider.Create(); var pa = new RSAParameters(); pa.Modulus = y.Modulus.ToByteArray(); pa.Exponent = y.Exponent.ToByteArray(); thingee.ImportParameters(pa); } And then the code to actually verify the signature: var signature = ... //reads from the packet sent by the eCommerce system var data = ... //reads from the packet sent by the eCommerce system var sha = new SHA1CryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] hash = sha.ComputeHash(Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(data)); byte[] bSignature = Convert.FromBase64String(signature); ///Verify signature, FINALLY: var hasValidSig = thingee.VerifyHash(hash, CryptoConfig.MapNameToOID("SHA1"), bSignature);

    Read the article

  • mysql database normalization question

    - by Chocho
    here is my 3 tables: table 1 -- stores user information and it has unique data table 2 -- stores place category such as, toronto, ny, london, etc hence this is is also unique table 3 -- has duplicate information. it stores all the places a user have been. the 3 tables are linked or joined by these ids: table 1 has an "table1_id" table 2 has an "table2_id" and "place_name" table 3 has an "table3_id", "table1_id", "place_name" i have an interface where an admin sees all users. beside a user is "edit" button. clicking on that edit button allows you to edit a specific user in a form fields which has a multiple drop down box for "places". if an admin edits a user and add 1 "places" for the user, i insert that information using php. if the admin decides to deselect that 1 "places" do i delete it or mark it as on and off? how about if the admin decides to select 2 "places" for the user; change the first "places" and add an additional "places". will my table just keep growing and will i have just redundant information? thanks.

    Read the article

  • XML parsing design using xmlpp and C++

    - by shagv
    I would like to use an xml format similar to the following: <CONFIG> <PROFILE NAME="foobar"> <PARAM ID="0" NAME="Foo" CLASS="BaseParam"/> <PARAM ID="2" NAME="Bar" CLASS="StrIntParam"> <VALUE TYPE="STRING">some String</VALUE> <VALUE TYPE="INT">1234</VALUE> </PARAM> </PROFILE> </CONFIG> CONFIG contains a list of PROFILEs which contain a list of PARAMs which themselves can be any structure (to be defined in the future). The idea was to define classes that parsed each PARAM type and to keep track of which class to use in the PARAM's CLASS attribute. In code I have a config class that manages the list of profiles and a profile class that manages the list of params. I would like the profile class to handle additional param types (that inherit BaseParam) without modification to the profile class (or at the very least with minimal modification). First of all, is this design viable? If so, what are some ways I could use different param classes and have their creation at run-time be automatic (the profile class sees the CLASS attribute and knows which type to create)?

    Read the article

  • Cooperative/Non-preemptive threading avoiding threadlooks?

    - by Wayne
    Any creative ideas to avoid deadlocks on a yield or sleep with cooperative/non-preemptive multitasking without doing an O/S Thread.Sleep(10)? Typically the yield or sleep call will call back into the scheduler to run other tasks. But this can sometime produce deadlocks. Some background: This application has enormous need for speed and, so far, it's extremely fast as compared to other systems in the same industry. One of the speed techniques is cooperative/non-preemptive threading rather then the cost of a context switch from O/S threads. The high level design a priority manager which calls out to tasks depending on priority and processing time. Each task does one "iteration" of work and returns to wait its turn again in the priority queue. The tricky thing with non-preemptive threading is what to do when you want to a particular task to stop in the middle of work and wait for some other event from a different task before continuing. In this case, we have 3 tasks, A B and C where A is a controller that must synchronize the activity of B and C. First, A starts both B and C. Then B yields so C gets invoked. When C yields, A sees they are both inactive, decides it's time for B to run but not time for C yet. Well B is now stuck in a yield that has called C, so it can never run. Sincerely, Wayne

    Read the article

  • SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication.

    - by Shao
    SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication. From: http://wiki.pylonshq.com/display/pylonscookbook/Simple+Homegrown+Authentication Note: a. Project follows the MVC pattern. b. Only a user with a valid username and password is allowed submit something. Design: a. Have a base controller from which all controllers are derived from. b. Before any of the actions in the derived controllers are called the system calls a before action in the base controller. c. In each controller user hardcodes the actions that need to be verified in an array. d. The before action first looks in the array that has the actions that are protected and sees if a user is logged in or not by peaking into the session. If a user is present then user is allowed to submit otherwise user is redirected to login page. What do you think?

    Read the article

  • Django 404 page not showing up

    - by Matthew Doyle
    Hey all, I'm in the middle of putting up my first django application on shared hosting. This should be an easy thing, but I am just not seeing it. I tried to follow the directions of the django documentation, and created a 404.html page within my template folder. I just wrote "This is a 404 page." in the .html file. I also did the same thing for a 500.html page and wrote in it "This is a 500 page." However when I hit a 'bad page' I get a standard 404 page from the browser (Oops! This link appears to be broken. in Chrome) when I would expect "This is a 404 page." What's even more interesting is out of frustration I wrote {% asdfjasdf %} in the 404.html, and instead of getting the "Oops!..." error I get "This is a 500 page," so it definitely sees the 404.html template. Here's what I can confirm: Debug = False I am running apache on a shared hosting I have not done anything special with .htaccess and 404 errors. If I run with Debug = True, it says it's a 404 error. I am using FastCGI Anything else anyone think I could try? Thank you very much!

    Read the article

  • Where does Tomcat append / to directory paths?

    - by Anonymouse
    Suppose my Tomcat webapps directory looks like this: webapps/ webapps/fooapp/ webapps/fooapp/WEB-INF/ webapps/fooapp/WEB-INF/web.xml webapps/fooapp/bardir/ When I make a GET request for /fooapp/bardir, Tomcat sees that webapps/fooapp/bardir is a directory and sends back a 302 to /fooapp/bardir/ (with a slash at the end). Here is my question: Where in the Tomcat source code does this take place? (I'm looking at 6.0.x but a correct answer for any version would be a great starting point.) The only reference material I can find on this subject is in the Catalina Functional Specifications which states, regarding the Default Servlet: On each HTTP GET request processed by this servlet, the following processing shall be performed: [...] If the requested resource is a directory: If the request path does not end with "/", redirect to a corresponding path with "/" appended so that relative references in welcome files are resolved correctly. However, this functionality does not appear to be in org.apache.catalina.servlets.DefaultServlet; or at least, it's not there exclusively: if I replace the default servlet in web.xml with a servlet whose servlet-class does not exist, directory paths still come back 302 to add the slash, while every other request comes back with an error as expected.

    Read the article

  • Modify Executing Jar file

    - by pinkynobrain
    Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What would be the equivalent VB.NET code for this C# FluentNHibernate component mapping?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I'm a C# programmer constrained to write VB.NET code. While exploring NHibernate further for my current client, I encountered FluentNHibernate, which I find real attractive. But now, I wonder how to "translate" this C# code for component mapping into VB.NET code: Component(x => x.Address, m => { m.Map(x => x.Number); m.Map(x => x.Street); m.Map(x => x.PostCode); }); I know from here: Component(Of Client)(Function(c) c.Address, ...) what I miss is how to continue with the brackets in VB.NET, since there's no Begin End keywords or so. EDIT 1: Following Mr. JaredPar instructions, I figured that his solution might work. If we take the time to read his answer, we may notice that we both don't know what the MType is within his solution. I might have found out that the MType is: FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of TComponent) Thus, TComponent is, from my understanding, an anonymous type that I shall parameter to use. From this point of view, since I wish to map the properties of my Address object, replacing TComponent in my help method signature seems not to work. Private Sub MapAdresseHelper(Of Adresse)(ByVal a As FluentNHibernate.Mapping.ComponentPart(Of Adresse)) a.Map(Function(m) m.Number) a.Map(Function(m) m.Street).Length(50) a.Map(Function(m) m.PostCode).Length(10) End Sub The error I get is that my Address class doesn't have a property member named Street, for instance. It sees my Address type, it recognizes it, but it seems buggy somehow. I guess VBNET is poorly designed for lambda expressions and is less evolved than C# (Sorry, a bit of frustration due to the constraint of working with it and not being capable of doing things VERY easily done in C#.) Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41  | Next Page >