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  • Using DefaultCredentials and DefaultNetworkCredentials

    - by Fred
    Hi, We're having a hard time figuring how these credentials objects work. In fact, they may not work how we expected them to work. Here's an explanation of the current issue. We got 2 servers that needs to talk with each other through webservices. The first one (let's call it Server01) has a Windows Service running as the NetworkService account. The other one (Server02) has ReportingServices running with IIS 6.0. The Windows Service on Server01 is trying to use the Server02's ReportingServices' WebService to generate reports and send them by email. So, here's what we tried so far. Setting the credentials at runtime (This works perfectly fine): rs.Credentials = new NetworkCredentials("user", "pass", "domain"); Now, if we could use a generic user all would be fine, however... we are not allowed to. So, we are trying to use the DefaultCredetials or DefaultNetworkCredentials and pass it to the RS Webservice: `rs.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultNetworkCredentials OR `rs.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials Either way won't work. We're always getting 401 Unauthrorized from IIS. Now, what we know is that if we want to give access to a resource logged as NetworkService, we need to grant it to "DOMAIN\MachineName$" (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms998320.aspx): Granting Access to a Remote SQL Server If you are accessing a database on another server in the same domain (or in a trusted domain), the Network Service account's network credentials are used to authenticate to the database. The Network Service account's credentials are of the form DomainName\AspNetServer$, where DomainName is the domain of the ASP.NET server and AspNetServer is your Web server name. For example, if your ASP.NET application runs on a server named SVR1 in the domain CONTOSO, the SQL Server sees a database access request from CONTOSO\SVR1$. We assumed that granting access the same way with IIS would work. However, it does not. Or at least, something is not set properly for it to authenticate correctly. So, here are some questions: We've read about "Impersonating Users" somewhere, do we need to set this somewhere in the Windows Service ? Is it possible to grant access to the NetworkService built-in account to a remote IIS server ? Thanks for reading!

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  • How to avoid open-redirect vulnerability and safely redirect on successful login (HINT: ASP.NET MVC

    - by Brad B.
    Normally, when a site requires that you are logged in before you can access a certain page, you are taken to the login screen and after successfully authenticating yourself, you are redirected back to the originally requested page. This is great for usability - but without careful scrutiny, this feature can easily become an open redirect vulnerability. Sadly, for an example of this vulnerability, look no further than the default LogOn action provided by ASP.NET MVC 2: [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOn(LogOnModel model, string returnUrl) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ValidateUser(model.UserName, model.Password)) { FormsService.SignIn(model.UserName, model.RememberMe); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(returnUrl)) { return Redirect(returnUrl); // open redirect vulnerability HERE } else { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "User name or password incorrect..."); } } return View(model); } If a user is successfully authenticated, they are redirected to "returnUrl" (if it was provided via the login form submission). Here is a simple example attack (one of many, actually) that exploits this vulnerability: Attacker, pretending to be victim's bank, sends an email to victim containing a link, like this: http://www.mybank.com/logon?returnUrl=http://www.badsite.com Having been taught to verify the ENTIRE domain name (e.g., google.com = GOOD, google.com.as31x.example.com = BAD), the victim knows the link is OK - there isn't any tricky sub-domain phishing going on. The victim clicks the link, sees their actual familiar banking website and is asked to logon Victim logs on and is subsequently redirected to http://www.badsite.com which is made to look exactly like victim's bank's website, so victim doesn't know he is now on a different site. http://www.badsite.com says something like "We need to update our records - please type in some extremely personal information below: [ssn], [address], [phone number], etc." Victim, still thinking he is on his banking website, falls for the ploy and provides attacker with the information Any ideas on how to maintain this redirect-on-successful-login functionality yet avoid the open-redirect vulnerability? I'm leaning toward the option of splitting the "returnUrl" parameter into controller/action parts and use "RedirectToRouteResult" instead of simply "Redirect". Does this approach open any new vulnerabilities? Side note: I know this open-redirect may not seem to be a big deal compared to the likes of XSS and CSRF, but us developers are the only thing protecting our customers from the bad guys - anything we can do to make the bad guys' job harder is a win in my book. Thanks, Brad

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 JQuery POST not displaying the model state errors

    - by Oshan
    Hello, I have been using asp.net mvc for a bit (but I'm still a beginer). I want to have the ability to update two views as a result of a jquery postback. Basically I have a list and a details view. The details view is presented using a jquery popup (using jquery-UI popup). I only want to update the list if the details save is successful (i.e. there are no validation errors on the details view). However, if there are any validation errros in the details view, I want to update the details view so that the user sees the validation errors. so I thought in my controller, I return a JsonResult instead of a View. [HttpPost] public ActionResult SavePersonInfo(Person p) { if(ModelState.Valid) { return View("PersonList"); } return Json({Error = true, View = PartialView("PersonDetails", p)}); } As you can see if there are no errors I return the person list view, but if there are any validation errors, I have return the details view. The reason that I'm returning a JsonResult is I need to tell my view there is an error so that the view (jquery) knows which section to update (as in whether to update the person list 'div' or the popup dialog 'div'). So, in my view, the jquery is as follows (please assume that there is a form for entering in the person details and "SubmitPersonForm();" function is called upon clicking on the "Save" button): <script type="text/javascript> $('#btnSave').click(function (event) { onBegin(); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "/Person/Save", data: $('form').serialize(), success: function (result) { if(result.Error) { $('#dvDetails').html($(result).View)); } else { $('#dvPersonList').html($result); } } }); }); </script> So the problem that I have now, is that when there is a validation error, I do see the correct, 'div' being updated, but I lose the asp.net mvc validation messages. I do not see any validation errors in red, as if ASP.NET MVC is completely ignored them. However, my ModelState does have those errros, just not displayed in the details view. I do have valication summary and Html.ValidationFor(m = ...) statements put in my details view. Could someone tell me why I'm not seeing the validation errors? although I'm using a JSonResult, I do use the right property which is a valid view when I render the 'dvDetails'. Am I doing something that I'm not suppose to in asp.net mvc? Btw I'm using asp.net mvc2 RC with Visual Studio 2010 RC. Thank you.

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  • Delphi TBytesField - How to see the text properly - Source is HIT OLEDB AS400

    - by myitanalyst
    We are connecting to a multi-member AS400 iSeries table via HIT OLEDB and HIT ODBC. You connect to this table via an alias to access a specific multi-member. We create the alias on the AS400 this way: CREATE ALIAS aliasname FOR table(membername) We can then query each member of the table this way: SELECT * FROM aliasname We are testing this in Delphi6 first, but will move it to D2010 later We are using HIT OLEDB for the AS400. We are pulling down records from a table and the field is being seen as a tBytesField. I have also tried ODBC driver and it sees as tBytesField as well. Directly on the AS400 I can query the data and see readable text. I can use the iSeries Navigation tool and see readable text as well. However when I bring it down to the Delphi client via the HIT OLEDB or HIT ODBC and try to view via asString then I just see unreadable text.. something like this: ñðð@ðõñððððñ÷@õôððõñòøóóöøñðÂÁÕÒ@ÖÆ@ÁÔÅÙÉÃÁ@@@@@@@@ÂÈÙÉâãæÁðòñè@ÔK@k@ÉÕÃK@@@@@@@@@ç I jumbled up the text above, but that is the character types that show up. When I did a test in D2010 the text looks like japanse or chinese characters, but if I display as AnsiString then it looks like what it does in Delphi 6. I am thinking this may have something to do with code pages or character sets, but I have no experience in this are so it is new to me if it is related. When I look at the Coded Character Set on the AS400 it is set to 65535. What do I need to do to make this text readable? We do have a third party component (Delphi400) that makes things behave in a more native AS400 manner. When I use its AS400 connection and AS400 query components it shows the field as a tStringField and displays just fine. BUT we are phasing out this product (for a number of reasons) and would really like the OLEDB with the ADO components work. Just for clarification the HIT OLEDB with tADOQuery do have some fields showing as tStringFields for many of the other tables we use... not sure why it is showing as a tBytesField in this case. I am not an AS400 expert, but looking at the field definititions on the AS400 the ones showing up as tBytesField look the same as the ones showing up as tStringFields... but there must be a difference. Maybe due to being a multi-member? So... does anyone have any guidance on how to get the correct string data that is readable? If you need more info please ask. Greg

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  • TVirtualStringTree - resetting non-visual nodes and memory consumption

    - by Remy Lebeau - TeamB
    I have an app that loads records from a binary log file and displays them in a virtual TListView. There are potentially millions of records in a file, and the display can be filtered by the user, so I do not load all of the records in memory at one time, and the ListView item indexes are not a 1-to-1 relation with the file record offsets (List item 1 may be file record 100, for instance). I use the ListView's OnDataHint event to load records for just the items the ListView is actually interested in. As the user scrolls around, the range specified by OnDataHint changes, allowing me to free records that are not in the new range, and allocate new records as needed. This works fine, speed is tolerable, and the memory footprint is very low. I am currently evaluating TVirtualStringTree as a replacement for the TListView, mainly because I want to add the ability to expand/collapse records that span multiple lines (I can fudge it with the TListView by incrementing/decrementing the item count dynamically, but this is not as straight forward as using a real tree). For the most part, I have been able to port the TListView logic and have everything work as I need. I notice that TVirtualStringTree's virtual paradigm is vastly different, though. It does not have the same kind of OnDataHint functionality that TListView does (I can use the OnScroll event to fake it, which allows my memory buffer logic to continue working), and I can use the OnInitializeNode event to associate nodes with records that are allocated. However, once a tree node is initialized, it sees that it remains initialized for the lifetime of the tree. That is not good for me. As the user scrolls around and I remove records from memory, I need to reset those non-visual nodes without removing them from the tree completely, or losing their expand/collapse states. When the user scrolls them back into view, I can re-allocate the records and re-initialize the nodes. Basically, I want to make TVirtualStringTree act as much like TListView as possible, as far as its virtualization is concerned. I have seen that TVirtualStringTree has a ResetNode() method, but I encounter various errors whenever I try to use it. I must be using it wrong. I also thought of just storing a data pointer inside each node to my record buffers, and I allocate and free memory, update those pointers accordingly. The end effect does not work so well, either. Worse, my largest test log file has ~5 million records in it. If I initialize the TVirtualStringTree with that many nodes at one time (when the log display is unfiltered), the tree's internal overhead for its nodes takes up a whopping 260MB of memory (without any records being allocated yet). Whereas with the TListView, loading the same log file and all the memory logic behind it, I can get away with using just a few MBs. Any ideas?

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  • TVirtualStringTree - resetting non-visual nodes and memory comsumption

    - by Remy Lebeau - TeamB
    I have an app that loads records from a binary log file and displays them in a virtual TListView. There are potentially millions of records in a file, and the display can be filtered by the user, so I do not load all of the records in memory at one time, and the ListView item indexes are not a 1-to-1 relation with the file record offsets (List item 1 may be file record 100, for instance). I use the ListView's OnDataHint event to load records for just the items the ListView is actually interested in. As the user scrolls around, the range specified by OnDataHint changes, allowing me to free records that are not in the new range, and allocate new records as needed. This works fine, speed is tolerable, and the memory footprint is very low. I am currently evaluating TVirtualStringTree as a replacement for the TListView, mainly because I want to add the ability to expand/collapse records that span multiple lines (I can fudge it with the TListView by incrementing/decrementing the item count dynamically, but this is not as straight forward as using a real tree). For the most part, I have been able to port the TListView logic and have everything work as I need. I notice that TVirtualStringTree's virtual paridigm is vastly different, though. It does not have the same kind of OnDataHint functionality that TListView does (I can use the OnScroll event to fake it, which allows my memory buffer logic to continue working), and I can use the OnInitializeNode event to associate nodes with records that are allocated. However, once a tree node is initialized, it sees that it remains initialized for the lifetime of the tree. That is not good for me. As the user scrolls around and I remove records from memory, I need to reset those non-visual nodes without removing them from the tree completely, or losing their expand/collapse states. When the user scrolls them back into view, I can re-allocate the records and re-initialize the nodes. Basically, I want to make TVirtualStringTree act as much like TListView as possible, as far as its virtualization is concerned. I have seen that TVirtualStringTree has a ResetNode() method, but I encounter various errors whenever I try to use it. I must be using it wrong. I also thought of just storing a data pointer inside each node to my record buffers, and I allocate and free memory, update those pointers accordingly. The end effect does not work so well, either. Worse, my largest test log file has ~5 million records in it. If I initialize the TVirtualStringTree with that many nodes at one time (when the log display is unfiltered), the tree's internal overhead for its nodes takes up a whopping 260MB of memory (without any records being allocated yet). Whereas with the TListView, loading the same log file and all the memory logic behind it, I can get away with using just a few MBs. Any ideas?

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  • Trying to output variables into repeater

    - by Phil
    I have a downloads box which attaches to the bottom of the page and gives the user file downloads (icon, filesize, description) like this; <asp:Repeater ID="DownloadsRepeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <table width="70%"> <tr> <td colspan="3"><h2>Files you can download:</h2></td> </tr> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <tr> <td width="10%"> <a href="/documents/<%=Session("folder")%>/<%=filename%>"> <img src="images/<%=filename%>" border="0" alt="<%=filename%>" /></a> </td> <td width="25%"><% =filesize%></td> <td><a href="/documents/<%=Session("folder")%>/<%=filename%>"><%=description%></a></td> </tr> </table> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Then I have code in my code behind to get the data etc like this; s = "select documents.filename, documents.description, documents.filesize from documents, contentdocuments, content where contentdocuments.contentid = content.id and content.id = @contentid and contentdocuments.documentsid = documents.id ORDER BY documents.description" x = New SqlCommand(s, c) x.Parameters.Add("@contentid", SqlDbType.Int) x.Parameters("@contentid").Value = contentid c.Open() r = x.ExecuteReader While r.Read If r.HasRows Then filename = getimage(r("filename")) If r("filesize") > String.Empty Then filesize = (r("filesize") / 1000) & "kb" End If description = r("description") End If DownloadsRepeater.DataSource = r DownloadsRepeater.DataBind() End While The desired result is that the user sees a file download icon, the filesize and the description. with the icon and the description being linked to the file. Can someone point out where I am going wrong and possibly post a sample of correct syntax for achieving this. Thanks!

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  • Why does PostgresQL query performance drop over time, but restored when rebuilding index

    - by Jim Rush
    According to this page in the manual, indexes don't need to be maintained. However, we are running with a PostgresQL table that has a continuous rate of updates, deletes and inserts that over time (a few days) sees a significant query degradation. If we delete and recreate the index, query performance is restored. We are using out of the box settings. The table in our test is currently starting out empty and grows to half a million rows. It has a fairly large row (lots of text fields). We are search is based of an index, not the primary key (I've confirmed the index is being used, at least under normal conditions) The table is being used as a persistent store for a single process. Using PostgresQL on Windows with a Java client I'm willing to give up insert and update performance to keep up the query performance. We are considering rearchitecting the application so that data is spread across various dynamic tables in a manner that allows us to drop and rebuild indexes periodically without impacting the application. However, as always, there is a time crunch to get this to work and I suspect we are missing something basic in our configuration or usage. We have considered forcing vacuuming and rebuild to run at certain times, but I suspect the locking period for such an action would cause our query to block. This may be an option, but there are some real-time (windows of 3-5 seconds) implications that require other changes in our code. Additional information: Table and index CREATE TABLE icl_contacts ( id bigint NOT NULL, campaignfqname character varying(255) NOT NULL, currentstate character(16) NOT NULL, xmlscheduledtime character(23) NOT NULL, ... 25 or so other fields. Most of them fixed or varying character fiel ... CONSTRAINT icl_contacts_pkey PRIMARY KEY (id) ) WITH (OIDS=FALSE); ALTER TABLE icl_contacts OWNER TO postgres; CREATE INDEX icl_contacts_idx ON icl_contacts USING btree (xmlscheduledtime, currentstate, campaignfqname); Analyze: Limit (cost=0.00..3792.10 rows=750 width=32) (actual time=48.922..59.601 rows=750 loops=1) - Index Scan using icl_contacts_idx on icl_contacts (cost=0.00..934580.47 rows=184841 width=32) (actual time=48.909..55.961 rows=750 loops=1) Index Cond: ((xmlscheduledtime < '2010-05-20T13:00:00.000'::bpchar) AND (currentstate = 'SCHEDULED'::bpchar) AND ((campaignfqname)::text = '.main.ee45692a-6113-43cb-9257-7b6bf65f0c3e'::text)) And, yes, I am aware there there are a variety of things we could do to normalize and improve the design of this table. Some of these options may be available to us. My focus in this question is about understanding how PostgresQL is managing the index and query over time (understand why, not just fix). If it were to be done over or significantly refactored, there would be a lot of changes.

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  • PHP - static DB class vs DB singleton object

    - by Marco Demaio
    I don't want to create a discussion about singleton better than static or better than global, etc. I read dozens of questions about it on SO, but I couldn't come up with an answer to this SPECIFIC question, so I hope someone could now illuminate me buy answering this question with one (or more) real simple EXAMPLES, and not theoretical discussions. In my app I have the typical DB class needed to perform tasks on DB without having to write everywhere in code mysql_connect/mysql_select_db/mysql... (moreover in future I might decide to use another type of DB engine in place of mySQL so obviously I need a class of abstration). I could write the class either as a static class: class DB { private static $connection = FALSE; //connection to be opened //DB connection values private static $server = NULL; private static $usr = NULL; private static $psw = NULL; private static $name = NULL; public static function init($db_server, $db_usr, $db_psw, $db_name) { //simply stores connections values, withour opening connection } public static function query($query_string) { //performs query over alerady opened connection, if not open, it opens connection 1st } ... } or as a Singletonm class: class DBSingleton { private $inst = NULL; private $connection = FALSE; //connection to be opened //DB connection values private $server = NULL; private $usr = NULL; private $psw = NULL; private $name = NULL; public static function getInstance($db_server, $db_usr, $db_psw, $db_name) { //simply stores connections values, withour opening connection if($inst === NULL) $this->inst = new DBSingleton(); return $this->inst; } private __construct()... public function query($query_string) { //performs query over already opened connection, if connection is not open, it opens connection 1st } ... } Then after in my app if I wanto to query the DB i could do //Performing query using static DB object DB:init(HOST, USR, PSW, DB_NAME); DB::query("SELECT..."); //Performing query using DB singleton $temp = DBSingleton::getInstance(HOST, USR, PSW, DB_NAME); $temp->query("SELECT..."); My simple brain sees Singleton has got the only advantage to avoid declaring as 'static' each method of the class. I'm sure some of you could give me an EXAMPLE of real advantage of singleton in this specific case. Thanks in advance.

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  • jQuery Validate() special function

    - by kevin
    I'm using the jQuery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that I have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The jQuery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an example for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how I call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file I call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course I call the Spry CSS and JavaScript files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When I just use the jQuery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesn't work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can I add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. I hope I was clear explaining my problem.

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  • AVFoundation buffer comparison to a saved image

    - by user577552
    Hi, I am a long time reader, first time poster on StackOverflow, and must say it has been a great source of knowledge for me. I am trying to get to know the AVFoundation framework. What I want to do is save what the camera sees and then detect when something changes. Here is the part where I save the image to a UIImage : if (shouldSetBackgroundImage) { CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); // Create a bitmap graphics context with the sample buffer data CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(rowBase, bufferWidth, bufferHeight, 8, bytesPerRow, colorSpace, kCGBitmapByteOrder32Little | kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedFirst); // Create a Quartz image from the pixel data in the bitmap graphics context CGImageRef quartzImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); // Free up the context and color space CGContextRelease(context); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); // Create an image object from the Quartz image UIImage * image = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:quartzImage]; [self setBackgroundImage:image]; NSLog(@"reference image actually set"); // Release the Quartz image CGImageRelease(quartzImage); //Signal that the image has been saved shouldSetBackgroundImage = NO; } and here is the part where I check if there is any change in the image seen by the camera : else { CGImageRef cgImage = [backgroundImage CGImage]; CGDataProviderRef provider = CGImageGetDataProvider(cgImage); CFDataRef bitmapData = CGDataProviderCopyData(provider); char* data = CFDataGetBytePtr(bitmapData); if (data != NULL) { int64_t numDiffer = 0, pixelCount = 0; NSMutableArray * pointsMutable = [NSMutableArray array]; for( int row = 0; row < bufferHeight; row += 8 ) { for( int column = 0; column < bufferWidth; column += 8 ) { //we get one pixel from each source (buffer and saved image) unsigned char *pixel = rowBase + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); unsigned char *referencePixel = data + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); pixelCount++; if ( !match(pixel, referencePixel, matchThreshold) ) { numDiffer++; [pointsMutable addObject:[NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(SCREEN_WIDTH - (column/ (float) bufferHeight)* SCREEN_WIDTH - 4.0, (row/ (float) bufferWidth)* SCREEN_HEIGHT- 4.0)]]; } } } numberOfPixelsThatDiffer = numDiffer; points = [pointsMutable copy]; } For some reason, this doesn't work, meaning that the iPhone detects almost everything as being different from the saved image, even though I set a very low threshold for detection in the match function... Do you have any idea of what I am doing wrong?

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  • Inherited TShape.Paint does not work after overriding Shape property

    - by DarkWalker
    I'm to code a TExpandedShape class inherited from TShape. TExpandedShape must act like TShape and be able to draw extra shapes: Polygon and Star. Here is my code unit ExpandedShape; interface uses SysUtils, WinTypes, WinProcs, Messages, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, ExtCtrls, Windows; type TExpandedShapeType = ( stRectangle, stSquare, stRoundRect, stRoundSquare, stEllipse, stCircle, stPolygon, stStar ); TExpandedShape = class(TShape) private FShape: TExpandedShapeType; FEdgeCount: integer; procedure SetShape(const Value: TExpandedShapeType); procedure SetEdgeCount(const Value: integer); public procedure Paint; override; published property Shape : TExpandedShapeType read FShape write SetShape;// default stPolygon; property EdgeCount : integer read FEdgeCount write SetEdgeCount default 5; end; procedure Register; implementation procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Course', [TExpandedShape]); end; // TExpandedShape procedure TExpandedShape.Paint; begin case Shape of stStar : begin {Draw Star} end; stPolygon : begin {Draw Polygon} end; else begin {It is supposed to draw Circle, Rectangle etc, but it does not} inherited; end; end; end; procedure TExpandedShape.SetEdgeCount(const Value: integer); begin FEdgeCount := Value; Repaint; end; procedure TExpandedShape.SetShape(const Value: TExpandedShapeType); begin FShape := Value; Repaint; end; end. So, what is wrong? IMO TShape.Paint checks private value like FShape in case section and then decides what to draw. When inherited Paint method is called in my code it checks FShape value sees default 0 value [stRectangle] in there and draws it. PS: I did solve it with blackmagic way using Shape1 property instead of Shape one and if Shape1 value is not stPolygon or stStar i do like this: begin Shape := TShapeType(Shape1); inherited end; But this option is not really an option. I need a good short nice-looking one.

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  • Using PHP's IMAP library triggers Kaspersky's Antivirus

    - by TMG
    Hello, I just started today working with PHP's IMAP library, and while imap_fetchbody or imap_body are called, it is triggering my Kaspersky antivirus. The viruses are Trojan.Win32.Agent.dmyq and Trojan.Win32.FraudPack.aoda. I am running this off a local development machine with XAMPP and Kaspersky AV. Now, I am sure there are viruses there since there is spam in the box (who doesn't need a some viagra or vicodin these days?). And I know that since the raw body includes attachments and different mime-types, bad stuff can be in the body. So my question is: are there any risks using these libraries? I am assuming that the IMAP functions are retrieving the body, caching it to disk/memory and the AV scanning it sees the data. Is that correct? Are there any known security concerns using this library (I couldn't find any)? Does it clean up cached message parts perfectly or might viral files be sitting somewhere? Is there a better way to get plain text out of the body than this? Right now I am using the following code (credit to Kevin Steffer): function get_mime_type(&$structure) { $primary_mime_type = array("TEXT", "MULTIPART","MESSAGE", "APPLICATION", "AUDIO","IMAGE", "VIDEO", "OTHER"); if($structure->subtype) { return $primary_mime_type[(int) $structure->type] . '/' .$structure->subtype; } return "TEXT/PLAIN"; } function get_part($stream, $msg_number, $mime_type, $structure = false, $part_number = false) { if(!$structure) { $structure = imap_fetchstructure($stream, $msg_number); } if($structure) { if($mime_type == get_mime_type($structure)) { if(!$part_number) { $part_number = "1"; } $text = imap_fetchbody($stream, $msg_number, $part_number); if($structure->encoding == 3) { return imap_base64($text); } else if($structure->encoding == 4) { return imap_qprint($text); } else { return $text; } } if($structure->type == 1) /* multipart */ { while(list($index, $sub_structure) = each($structure->parts)) { if($part_number) { $prefix = $part_number . '.'; } $data = get_part($stream, $msg_number, $mime_type, $sub_structure,$prefix . ($index + 1)); if($data) { return $data; } } // END OF WHILE } // END OF MULTIPART } // END OF STRUTURE return false; } // END OF FUNCTION $connection = imap_open($server, $login, $password); $count = imap_num_msg($connection); for($i = 1; $i <= $count; $i++) { $header = imap_headerinfo($connection, $i); $from = $header->fromaddress; $to = $header->toaddress; $subject = $header->subject; $date = $header->date; $body = get_part($connection, $i, "TEXT/PLAIN"); }

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  • Jqeury Validate() special function

    - by kevin
    Hi there, i'm using the Jquery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that i have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The Jquery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an exemple for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how i call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inv&aacute;lido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file i call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- var sprytextfield1 = new Spry.Widget.ValidationTextField("sprytextfield1","cpf"); //--> </script> Of course i call the Spry css and js files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When i just use the Jquery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesnt work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can i add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process ? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. Hope i was clear explaining my problem. Thanks in advance. kevin

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  • Rendering javascript at the server side level. A good or bad idea?

    - by davidhong
    I want to make it clear first: This isn't a question in relation to server-side Javascript or running Javascript server side. This is a question regarding rendering of Javascript code (which will be executed on the client-side) from server-side code. Having said that, take a look at below ASP.net code for example: hlRemoveCategory.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?');") This is prescribing the client-side onclick event on the server-side. As oppose to: $('a[rel=remove]').bind('click', function(event) { return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?'); } Now the question I want to ask is: What is the benefit of rendering javascript from the server-side code? Or the vice-versa? I personally prefer the second way of hooking up client-side UI/behaviour to HTML elements for the following reasons: Server-side does what ever it needs to already, including data-validation, event delegation and etc; and What server-side sees as an event is not necessarily the same process on the client-side. i.e., there are plenty more events on client-side (just look at custom events); and What happens on client-side and on server-side, during an event, could be completely irrelevant and decoupled; and What ever happens on client-side happens on client-side, there is no need for the server to know. Server should process and run what is given to them, how the process comes to life is not really up to them to decide in the event of the client-side events; and so and so forth. These are my thoughts obviously. I want to know what others think and if there has been any discussions on this topic. Topics branching from this argument can reach: Code management: is it easier to render everything from server-side? Separation of concern: is it easier if client-side logic is separated to server-side logic? Efficiency: which is more efficient both in terms of coding and running? At the end of the day, I am trying to move my team to go towards the second approach. There are lot of old guys in this team who are afraid of this change. I just wish to convince them with the right facts and stats. Let me know your thoughts.

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  • How can I test caching and cache busting?

    - by Nathan Long
    In PHP, I'm trying to steal a page from the Rails playbook (see 'Using Asset Timestamps' here): By default, Rails appends assets' timestamps to all asset paths. This allows you to set a cache-expiration date for the asset far into the future, but still be able to instantly invalidate it by simply updating the file (and hence updating the timestamp, which then updates the URL as the timestamp is part of that, which in turn busts the cache). It‘s the responsibility of the web server you use to set the far-future expiration date on cache assets that you need to take advantage of this feature. Here‘s an example for Apache: # Asset Expiration ExpiresActive On <FilesMatch "\.(ico|gif|jpe?g|png|js|css)$"> ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 year" </FilesMatch> If you look at a the source for a Rails page, you'll see what they mean: the path to a stylesheet might be "/stylesheets/scaffold.css?1268228124", where the numbers at the end are the timestamp when the file was last updated. So it should work like this: The browser says 'give me this page' The server says 'here, and by the way, this stylesheet called scaffold.css?1268228124 can be cached for a year - it's not gonna change.' On reloads, the browser says 'I'm not asking for that css file, because my local copy is still good.' A month later, you edit and save the file, which changes the timestamp, which means that the file is no longer called scaffold.css?1268228124 because the numbers change. When the browser sees that, it says 'I've never seen that file! Give me a copy, please.' The cache is 'busted.' I think that's brilliant. So I wrote a function that spits out stylesheet and javascript tags with timestamps appended to the file names, and I configured Apache with the statement above. Now: how do I tell if the caching and cache busting are working? I'm checking my pages with two plugins for Firebug: Yslow and Google Page Speed. Both seem to say that my files are caching: "Add expires headers" in Yslow and "leverage browser caching" in Page Speed are both checked. But when I look at the Page Speed Activity, I see a lot of requests and waiting and no 'cache hits'. If I change my stylesheet and reload, I do see the change immediately. But I don't know if that's because the browser never cached in the first place or because the cache is busted. How can I tell?

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  • Understanding CLR 2.0 Memory Model

    - by Eloff
    Joe Duffy, gives 6 rules that describe the CLR 2.0+ memory model (it's actual implementation, not any ECMA standard) I'm writing down my attempt at figuring this out, mostly as a way of rubber ducking, but if I make a mistake in my logic, at least someone here will be able to catch it before it causes me grief. Rule 1: Data dependence among loads and stores is never violated. Rule 2: All stores have release semantics, i.e. no load or store may move after one. Rule 3: All volatile loads are acquire, i.e. no load or store may move before one. Rule 4: No loads and stores may ever cross a full-barrier (e.g. Thread.MemoryBarrier, lock acquire, Interlocked.Exchange, Interlocked.CompareExchange, etc.). Rule 5: Loads and stores to the heap may never be introduced. Rule 6: Loads and stores may only be deleted when coalescing adjacent loads and stores from/to the same location. I'm attempting to understand these rules. x = y y = 0 // Cannot move before the previous line according to Rule 1. x = y z = 0 // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load 0 store z Looking at this, it appears that the load 0 can be moved up to before load y, but the stores may not be re-ordered at all. Therefore, if a thread sees z == 0, then it also will see x == y. If y was volatile, then load 0 could not move before load y, otherwise it may. Volatile stores don't seem to have any special properties, no stores can be re-ordered with respect to each other (which is a very strong guarantee!) Full barriers are like a line in the sand which loads and stores can not be moved over. No idea what rule 5 means. I guess rule 6 means if you do: x = y x = z Then it is possible for the CLR to delete both the load to y and the first store to x. x = y z = y // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load y store z // could be re-ordered like this load y load y store x store z // rule 6 applied means this is possible? load y store x // but don't pop y from stack (or first duplicate item on top of stack) store z What if y was volatile? I don't see anything in the rules that prohibits the above optimization from being carried out. This does not violate double-checked locking, because the lock() between the two identical conditions prevents the loads from being moved into adjacent positions, and according to rule 6, that's the only time they can be eliminated. So I think I understand all but rule 5, here. Anyone want to enlighten me (or correct me or add something to any of the above?)

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  • Workflow for statistical analysis and report writing

    - by ws
    Does anyone have any wisdom on workflows for data analysis related to custom report writing? The use-case is basically this: Client commissions a report that uses data analysis, e.g. a population estimate and related maps for a water district. The analyst downloads some data, munges the data and saves the result (e.g. adding a column for population per unit, or subsetting the data based on district boundaries). The analyst analyzes the data created in (2), gets close to her goal, but sees that needs more data and so goes back to (1). Rinse repeat until the tables and graphics meet QA/QC and satisfy the client. Write report incorporating tables and graphics. Next year, the happy client comes back and wants an update. This should be as simple as updating the upstream data by a new download (e.g. get the building permits from the last year), and pressing a "RECALCULATE" button, unless specifications change. At the moment, I just start a directory and ad-hoc it the best I can. I would like a more systematic approach, so I am hoping someone has figured this out... I use a mix of spreadsheets, SQL, ARCGIS, R, and Unix tools. Thanks! PS: Below is a basic Makefile that checks for dependencies on various intermediate datasets (w/ ".RData" suffix) and scripts (".R" suffix). Make uses timestamps to check dependencies, so if you 'touch ss07por.csv', it will see that this file is newer than all the files / targets that depend on it, and execute the given scripts in order to update them accordingly. This is still a work in progress, including a step for putting into SQL database, and a step for a templating language like sweave. Note that Make relies on tabs in its syntax, so read the manual before cutting and pasting. Enjoy and give feedback! http://www.gnu.org/software/make/manual/html%5Fnode/index.html#Top R=/home/wsprague/R-2.9.2/bin/R persondata.RData : ImportData.R ../../DATA/ss07por.csv Functions.R $R --slave -f ImportData.R persondata.Munged.RData : MungeData.R persondata.RData Functions.R $R --slave -f MungeData.R report.txt: TabulateAndGraph.R persondata.Munged.RData Functions.R $R --slave -f TabulateAndGraph.R report.txt

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  • Zend_Auth / Zend_Session error and storing objects in Auth Storage

    - by Martin
    Hi All, I have been having a bit of a problem with Zend_Auth and keep getting an error within my Acl. Within my Login Controller I setup my Zend_Auth storage as follows $auth = Zend_Auth::getInstance(); $result = $auth->authenticate($adapter); if ($result->isValid()) { $userId = $adapter->getResultRowObject(array('user_id'), null)->user_id; $user = new User_Model_User; $users = new User_Model_UserMapper; $users->find($userId, $user); $auth->getStorage()->write( $user ); } This seems to work well and I am able to use the object stored in the Zend_Auth storage within View Helpers without any problems. The problem that I seem to be having is when I try to use this within my Acl, below is a snippet from my Acl, as soon as it gets to the if($auth->hasIdentity()) { line I get the exception detailed further down. The $user->getUserLevel() is a methord within the User Model that allows me to convert the user_level_id that is stored in the database to a meaning full name. I am assuming that the auto loader sees these kind of methords and tries to load all the classes that would be required. When looking at the exception it appears to be struggling to find the class as it is stored in a module, I have the Auto Loader Name Space setup in my application.ini. Could anyone help with resolving this? class App_Controller_Plugin_Acl extends Zend_Controller_Plugin_Abstract { protected $_roleName; public function __construct() { $auth = Zend_Auth::getInstance(); if($auth->hasIdentity()) { $user = $auth->getIdentity(); $this->_roleName = strtolower($user->getUserLevel()); } else { $this->_roleName = 'guest'; } } } Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Zend_Session_Exception' with message 'Zend_Session::start() - \Web\library\Zend\Loader.php(Line:146): Error #2 include_once() [&lt;a href='function.include'&gt;function.include&lt;/a&gt;]: Failed opening 'Menu\Model\UserLevel.php' for inclusion (include_path='\Web\application/../library;\Web\library;.;C:\php5\pear') Array' in \Web\library\Zend\Session.php:493 Stack trace: #0 \Web\library\Zend\Session\Namespace.php(143): Zend_Session::start(true) #1 \Web\library\Zend\Auth\Storage\Session.php(87): Zend_Session_Namespace-&gt;__construct('Zend_Auth') #2 \Web\library\Zend\Auth.php(91): Zend_Auth_Storage_Session-&gt;__construct() #3 \Web\library\Zend\A in \Web\library\Zend\Session.php on line 493 Thanks, Martin

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  • sendmail and MX records when mail server is not on web host

    - by Jim Nelson
    This is a problem I'm sure is easy to fix, but I've been banging my head on it all day. I'm developing a new web site for a client. The web site resides at (this is an example) website.com. I have a PHP form script to email visitors' requests to [email protected]. When I coded this on a staging server on a different domain, all worked fine. When I moved it to website.com, the mail messages never arrived. The web server is on a virtual host with a major ISP. Here's what I've learned since then: My client's mail server is Microsoft Exchange on a box physically in their office. Whenever someone on the outside world emails [email protected], the mail arrives. But if the web server sends to the same email address, it fails every time. This is not a PHP problem. I secure shell in to the web server and have tested this both with sendmail and the UNIX mail application. I've also tested it by emailing various email accounts from the shell. I can email myself, for example, just nobody at the website.com domain. In short, when I'm logged in to website.com, mail to [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] all fail. All other addresses work fine. What I've discovered is those dropped emails are routed to the web server's "catchall" account where they sit in its inbox. I've done an MX lookup on website.com. The MX record points to mailsec.website.com. I can telnet to mailsec.website.com port 25 and see the SMTP server. It appears to me that website.com isn't doing an MX lookup when it's sending mail to [email protected]. My theory is that it recognizes the domain as local, sees that there's no "requests" user account to deliver it to, and drops the mail into the catchall account. What I want is to force sendmail to do the MX lookup and send the message on to the Exchange server. I'm at wit's end here. I can't figure out how to do this. For that matter, I may be way off base here and have misdiagnosed this entirely. Internet mail and MX has always seemed a black art to me, and my ignorance is certainly showing in this question.

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  • Using IOperationBehavior to supply a WCF parameter

    - by Chris Kemp
    This is my first step into the world of stackoverflow, so apologies if I cock anything up. I'm trying to create a WCF Operation which has a parameter that is not exposed to the outside world, but is instead automatically passed into the function. So the world sees this: int Add(int a, int b) But it is implemented as: int Add(object context, int a, int b) Then, the context gets supplied by the system at run-time. The example I'm working with is completely artificial, but mimics something that I'm looking into in a real-world scenario. I'm able to get close, but not quite the whole way there. First off, I created a simple method and wrote an application to confirm it works. It does. It returns a + b and writes the context as a string to my debug. Yay. [OperationContract] int Add(object context, int a, int b); I then wrote the following code: public class SupplyContextAttribute : Attribute, IOperationBehavior { public void Validate(OperationDescription operationDescription) { if (!operationDescription.Messages.Any(m => m.Body.Parts.First().Name == "context")) throw new FaultException("Parameter 'context' is missing."); } public void ApplyDispatchBehavior(OperationDescription operationDescription, DispatchOperation dispatchOperation) { dispatchOperation.Invoker = new SupplyContextInvoker(dispatchOperation.Invoker); } public void ApplyClientBehavior(OperationDescription operationDescription, ClientOperation clientOperation) { } public void AddBindingParameters(OperationDescription operationDescription, BindingParameterCollection bindingParameters) { // Remove the 'context' parameter from the inbound message operationDescription.Messages[0].Body.Parts.RemoveAt(0); } } public class SupplyContextInvoker : IOperationInvoker { readonly IOperationInvoker _invoker; public SupplyContextInvoker(IOperationInvoker invoker) { _invoker = invoker; } public object[] AllocateInputs() { return _invoker.AllocateInputs().Skip(1).ToArray(); } private object[] IntroduceContext(object[] inputs) { return new[] { "MyContext" }.Concat(inputs).ToArray(); } public object Invoke(object instance, object[] inputs, out object[] outputs) { return _invoker.Invoke(instance, IntroduceContext(inputs), out outputs); } public IAsyncResult InvokeBegin(object instance, object[] inputs, AsyncCallback callback, object state) { return _invoker.InvokeBegin(instance, IntroduceContext(inputs), callback, state); } public object InvokeEnd(object instance, out object[] outputs, IAsyncResult result) { return _invoker.InvokeEnd(instance, out outputs, result); } public bool IsSynchronous { get { return _invoker.IsSynchronous; } } } And my WCF operation now looks like this: [OperationContract, SupplyContext] int Amend(object context, int a, int b); My updated references no longer show the 'context' parameter, which is exactly what I want. The trouble is that whenver I run the code, it gets past the AllocateInputs and then throws an Index was outside the bounds of the Array. error somewhere in the WCF guts. I've tried other things, and I find that I can successfully change the type of the parameter and rename it and have my code work. But the moment I remove the parameter it falls over. Can anyone give me some idea of how to get this to work (or if it can be done at all).

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  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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  • WPF DataGrid, Help with Binding to a List<X> where each X has a Dictionary<Y,object> property.

    - by panamack
    I'm building an application which helps someone manage an event and works with data originating from Excel. I want to use the WPF Toolkit DataGrid to display the incoming data but can't guarantee how many Columns there are going to be or what information they will contain. I'd like to have an Info class that stores column information and have each Visitor at my Event own a Dictionary that uses shared references to Info objects for the keys. Here's the general gist: public class Info{ public string Name{get;set;} public int InfoType{get;set;} } public class Visitor{ public Dictionary<Info,object> VisitorInfo {get;set;} } public class Event{ public List<Visitor> Visitors{get;set;} public Event(){ Info i1 = new Info(){ Name = "ID", InfoType = 0};// type 0 for an id Info i2 = new Info(){ Name = "Name", InfoType = 1};// type 1 for a string Info i3 = new Info(){ Name = "City", InfoType = 1}; Visitor v1 = new Visitor(); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i1, 0); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i2, "Foo Harris"); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i3, "Barsville"); Visitor v2 = new Visitor(); ... this.Visitors.Add(v1); this.Visitors.Add(v2); ... } } XAML: <!-- Window1.xaml --> ... <local:Event x:Key="MyEvent"/> ... <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource MyEvent}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Visitors}" /> Disappointingly, DataGrid just sees a collection of Visitors each having a VisitorInfo property and displays one column called VisitorInfo with the string "(Collection)" once for each Visitor. As a workaround I've created a ListTVisitorToDataTableConverter that maps Infos to DataColumns and Visitors to DataRows and used it like this: <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource Event}" ItemsSource{Binding Path=Visitors, Converter={StaticResource MySmellyListTVisitorToDataTableConverter}}" /> I don't think this is good though, I haven't started trying to convert back yet which I guess I'll need to do if I want to be able to edit any data! How can I do better? Thanks.

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  • Jscrollpane causese text to disappear on internet explorer

    - by Crippletoe
    Hello all, in my current site, i am using the new Jscrollpane in order to generate a scrollbar for a menu (not my descision but the designer's descision so i dont wanna get into how 90's that all looks like..). my menu is based on a <UL> the <li> elements inside it have the attribute "text-align: right;". my problem that on IE alone the menu text doesnt show when i apply the ScrollPane to the menu. when i delete the ScrollPane function from my code- the menu re-appears. i checked the page with "microsoft Expression" DOM inspector in order to examine how IE sees my code and i can see the <li> elements there, only the text inside them is missing. when i disable the "text-align: right;" for the <li> in my CSS, the text shows again. i suspect this has something to do with the jScrollPane's containing which is relatively aligned but i cannot be sure.. can anyone suggest some fix for this problem? a link to a page where you can see the problem is here: http://kaplanoland.com/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=2&Itemid=12 the problematic menu is on the right side of the page. on every browser but IE you can see the text. only on IE not. my CSS code for that menu (not including the jScrollPane CSS) is here: div#menu2{ position: absolute; top: 123px; right: 36px; width: 330px; height: 150px; } div#menu2_scroll{ /*the actual scroller*/ height: 150px; } div#menu2 div#menu2_contain{ } div#menu2 li{ text-align: right; } div#menu2 li span{ line-height: 18px; } div#menu2 a:link, div#menu2 a:visited{ color: #808285 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 a:hover, div#menu2 li#current a{ color: #000000 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 span.separator{ display: block; padding-top: 12px; padding-bottom: 40px; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; } div#menu2 span.separator span { padding-top: 12px; border-top-width: 1px; border-top-style: solid; border-top-color: #808285; } thank you all so much.

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  • Programmatically triggering events in Javascript for IE using jQuery

    - by Dan Herbert
    When an Event is triggered by a user in IE, it is set to the window.event object. The only way to see what triggered the event is by accessing the window.event object (as far as I know) This causes a problem in ASP.NET validators if an event is triggered programmatically, like when triggering an event through jQuery. In this case, the window.event object stores the last user-triggered event. When the onchange event is fired programmatically for a text box that has an ASP.NET validator attached to it, the validation breaks because it is looking at the element that fired last event, which is not the element the validator is for. Does anyone know a way around this? It seems like a problem that is solvable, but from looking online, most people just find ways to ignore the problem instead of solving it. To explain what I'm doing specifically: I'm using a jQuery time picker plugin on a text box that also has 2 ASP.NET validators associated with it. When the time is changed, I'm using an update panel to post back to the server to do some things dynamically, so I need the onchange event to fire in order to trigger the postback for that text box. The jQuery time picker operates by creating a hidden unordered list that is made visible when the text box is clicked. When one of the list items is clicked, the "change" event is fired programmatically for the text box through jQuery's change() method. Because the trigger for the event was a list item, IE sees the list item as the source of the event, not the text box, like it should. I'm not too concerned with this ASP.NET validator working as soon as the text box is changed, I just need the "change" event to be processed so my postback event is called for the text box. The problem is that the validator throws an exception in IE which stops any event from being triggered. Firefox (and I assume other browsers) don't have this issue. Only IE due to the different event model. Has anyone encountered this and seen how to fix it? I've found this problem reported several other places, but they offer no solutions: jQuery's forum, with the jQuery UI Datepicker and an ASP.NET Validator ASP.NET forums, bug with ValidatorOnChange() function

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