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  • Hibernate: OutOfMemoryError persisting Blob when printing log message

    - by paul
    I have a Hibernate Entity: @Entity class Foo { //... @Lob public byte[] getBytes() { return bytes; } //.... } My VM is configured with a maximum heap size of 512 MB. When I try to persist an object which has a 75 MB large object, I get an OutOfMemoryError. The names of the methods in the stack trace (StringBuilder, ByteArrayBlobType.toLoggableString, pretty.Printer.toString) suggest that hibernate is trying to write a very large log message that contains my object. Am I correct about why hibernate is using so much memory? What is the simplest way to work around this problem? java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space at java.lang.AbstractStringBuilder.<init>(AbstractStringBuilder.java:44) at java.lang.StringBuilder.<init>(StringBuilder.java:81) at org.hibernate.type.ByteArrayBlobType.toString(ByteArrayBlobType.java:117) at org.hibernate.type.ByteArrayBlobType.toLoggableString(ByteArrayBlobType.java:127) at org.hibernate.pretty.Printer.toString(Printer.java:53) at org.hibernate.pretty.Printer.toString(Printer.java:90) at org.hibernate.event.def.AbstractFlushingEventListener.flushEverythingToExecutions(AbstractFlushingEventListener.java:97) at org.hibernate.event.def.DefaultFlushEventListener.onFlush(DefaultFlushEventListener.java:26) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.flush(SessionImpl.java:1000) at org.jboss.seam.persistence.HibernateSessionProxy.flush(HibernateSessionProxy.java:181)

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Parent-Child Table Relation - how to creat Children in MVC (example request)

    - by adudley
    Hi All. In a standard setup of Parent Child relation, lets say Project and Task. Where a Project is made up of lots of Tasks. So in a standard RDB, we have a Project (ID, Name, Deadline) Task (ID, FK_To_Project, Name, Description, isCompleted) this is all very straight forward. We have an MVC View that views Projects, so we get a nice list of all the project Names next to each deadline. Now we want to CREATE a new PROJECT. The Edit view opens, we type a name, say, 'Make a cup of Tea', with tomorrow as the deadline! Still in this view/web page, I would like a list of all the Child Tasks, in a standard list, with Edit, Delete, and a Create/Add Task button too, just below the 'parent table' details. The simplest way to describe this, is the Parents Table Create/Edit view, with the Childes List View Below it. 1) The ideal solution will also allow my Child Table (Tasks) to have Children also (for more complex scenarios) , and so on, and on, and on. 2) If I navigate away from my Created Project, I don’t want all sorts of random stuff laying around, they went away, it’s gone! 3) I’d expect all the same functionality when Editing an existing project. I’m struggling with the ‘Add New Child’, I had a model dialog (jquery) and all was well, but now when editing an existing child/task, I need to populate the Child Edit, which is a pain and will need loads of java script I think :( How can this be achieved in MVC, does anybody have any examples?

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  • Scrapy issue with iTunes' AppStore

    - by Eric
    I am using Scrapy to fetch some data from iTunes' AppStore database. I start with this list of apps: http://itunes.apple.com/us/genre/mobile-software-applications/id36?mt=8 In the following code I have used the simplest regex which targets all apps in the US store. from scrapy.contrib.linkextractors.sgml import SgmlLinkExtractor from scrapy.contrib.spiders import CrawlSpider, Rule class AppStoreSpider(CrawlSpider): domain_name = 'itunes.apple.com' start_urls = ['http://itunes.apple.com/us/genre/mobile-software-applications/id6015?mt=8'] rules = ( Rule(SgmlLinkExtractor(allow='itunes\.apple\.com/us/app'), 'parse_app', follow=True, ), ) def parse_app(self, response): .... SPIDER = AppStoreSpider() When I run it I receive the following: [itunes.apple.com] DEBUG: Crawled (200) <GET http://itunes.apple.com/us/genre/mobile-software-applications/id6015?mt=8> (referer: None) [itunes.apple.com] DEBUG: Filtered offsite request to 'itunes.apple.com': <GET http://itunes.apple.com/us/app/bloomberg/id281941097?mt=8> As you can see, when it starts crawling the first page it says: "Filtered offsite request to 'itunes.apple.com'". and then the spider stops.. it also returns this message: [ScrapyHTTPPageGetter,client] /usr/lib/python2.5/cookielib.py:1577: exceptions.UserWarning: cookielib bug! Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.5/cookielib.py", line 1575, in make_cookies parse_ns_headers(ns_hdrs), request) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/cookielib.py", line 1532, in _cookies_from_attrs_set cookie = self._cookie_from_cookie_tuple(tup, request) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/cookielib.py", line 1451, in _cookie_from_cookie_tuple if version is not None: version = int(version) ValueError: invalid literal for int() with base 10: '"1"' I have used the same script for other website and I didn't have this problem. Any suggestion?

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  • Getting past dates in HP-UX with ksh

    - by Alejandro Atienza Ramos
    Ok, so I need to translate a script from a nice linux & bash configuration to ksh in hp-ux. Each and every command expects a different syntax and i want to kill myself. But let's skip the rant. This is part of my script anterior=`date +"%Y%0m" -d '1 month ago'` I basically need to get a past date in format 201002. Never mind the thing that, in the new environment, %0m means "no zeroes", while actually in the other one it means "yes, please put that zero on my string". It doesn't even accept the "1 month ago". I've read the man date for HP-UX and it seems you just can't do date arithmetic with it. I've been looking around for a while but all i find are lengthy solutions. I can't quite understand that such a typical administrative task like adding dates needs so much fuss. Isn't there a way to convert my one-liner to, well, i don't know, another one? Come on, i've seen proposed solutions that used bc, had thirty plus lines and magic number all over the script. The simplest solutions seem to use perl... but i don't know how to modify them, as they're quite arcane. Thanks!

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  • How to use Scala in IntelliJ IDEA (or: why is it so difficult to get a working IDE for Scala)?

    - by Alex R
    I recently gave up trying to use Scala in Eclipse (basic stuff like completion doesn't work). So now I'm trying IntelliJ. I'm not getting very far. I've been able to edit programs (within syntax highlighting and completion... yay!). But I'm unable to run even the simplest "Hello World". This was the original error: Scala signature Predef has wrong version Expected 5.0 found: 4.1 in .... scala-library.jar But that was yesterday with IDEA 9.0.1. See below... UPDATE Today I uninstalled IntelliJ 9.0.1, and installed 9.0.2 Early Availability, with the 4/14 stable version of the Scala plug-in. Then I setup a project from scratch through the wizards: new project from scratch JDK is 1.6.u20 accept the default (project) instead of global / module accept the download of Scala 2.8.0beta1 into project's lib folder Created a new class: object hello { def main(args: Array[String]) { println("hello: " + args); } } For my efforts, I now have a brand-new error :) Here it is: Scalac internal error: class java.lang.ClassNotFoundException [java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202), java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method), java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307), sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301), java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248), java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method), java.lang.Class.forName(Class.java:169), org.jetbrains.plugins.scala.compiler.rt.ScalacRunner.main(ScalacRunner.java:72)] FINAL UPDATE I uninstalled 9.0.2 EA and reinstalled 9.0.1, but this time went with the 2.7.3 version of Scala rather than the default 2.7.6, because 2.7.3 is the one shown in the screen-shots at the IntelliJ website (I guess the screen-shots prove that they actually tested this version!). Now everything works!!!

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  • spring 3 AOP anotated advises

    - by Art79
    Trying to figure out how to Proxy my beans with AOP advices in annotated way. I have a simple class @Service public class RestSampleDao { @MonitorTimer public Collection<User> getUsers(){ .... return users; } } i have created custom annotation for monitoring execution time @Target({ ElementType.METHOD, ElementType.TYPE }) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) public @interface MonitorTimer { } and advise to do some fake monitoring public class MonitorTimerAdvice implements MethodInterceptor { public Object invoke(MethodInvocation invocation) throws Throwable{ try { long start = System.currentTimeMillis(); Object retVal = invocation.proceed(); long end = System.currentTimeMillis(); long differenceMs = end - start; System.out.println("\ncall took " + differenceMs + " ms "); return retVal; } catch(Throwable t){ System.out.println("\nerror occured"); throw t; } } } now i can use it if i manually proxy the instance of dao like this AnnotationMatchingPointcut pc = new AnnotationMatchingPointcut(null, MonitorTimer.class); Advisor advisor = new DefaultPointcutAdvisor(pc, new MonitorTimerAdvice()); ProxyFactory pf = new ProxyFactory(); pf.setTarget( sampleDao ); pf.addAdvisor(advisor); RestSampleDao proxy = (RestSampleDao) pf.getProxy(); mv.addObject( proxy.getUsers() ); but how do i set it up in Spring so that my custom annotated methods would get proxied by this interceptor automatically? i would like to inject proxied samepleDao instead of real one. Can that be done without xml configurations? i think should be possible to just annotate methods i want to intercept and spring DI would proxy what is necessary. or do i have to use aspectj for that? would prefere simplest solution :- ) thanks a lot for help!

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  • Data Driven MSTest: DataRow is always null

    - by David Back
    I am having a problem using Visual Studio data driven testing. I have tried to deconstruct this to the simplest example. I am using Visual Studio 2012. I create a new unit test project. I am referencing system data. My code looks like this: namespace UnitTestProject1 { [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { [DeploymentItem(@"OrderService.csv")] [DataSource("Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.DataSource.CSV", "OrderService.csv", "OrderService#csv", DataAccessMethod.Sequential)] [TestMethod] public void TestMethod1() { try { Debug.WriteLine(TestContext.DataRow["ID"]); } catch (Exception ex) { Assert.Fail(); } } public TestContext TestContext { get; set; } } } I have a very small csv file that I have set the Build Options to to 'Content' and 'Copy Always'. I have added a .testsettings file to the solution, and set enable deployment, and added the csv file. I have tried this with and without |DataDirectory|, and with/without a full path specified (the same path that I get with Environment.CurrentDirectory). I've tried variations of "../" and "../../" just in case. Right now the csv is at the project root level, same as the .cs test code file. I have tried variations with xml as well as csv. TestContext is not null, but DataRow always is. I have not gotten this to work despite a lot of fiddling with it. I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Does mstest create a log anywhere that would tell me if it is failing to find the csv file, or what specific error might be causing DataRow to fail to populate? I have tried the following csv files: ID 1 2 3 4 and ID, Whatever 1,0 2,1 3,2 4,3 So far, no dice.

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  • How do I save an Android application's state?

    - by Bernard
    I've been playing around with the Android SDK, and I am a little unclear on saving an applications state. So given this minor re-tooling of the 'Hello, Android' example: package com.android.hello; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.TextView; public class HelloAndroid extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); mTextView = new TextView(this); if (savedInstanceState == null) { mTextView.setText("Welcome to HelloAndroid!"); } else { mTextView.setText("Welcome back."); } setContentView(mTextView); } private TextView mTextView = null; } I thought that might be all one needed to do for the simplest case, but it always gives me the first message, no matter how I navigate away from the app. I'm sure it's probably something simple like overriding onPause or something like that, but I've been poking away in the docs for 30 minutes or so and haven't found anything obvious, so would appreciate any help. Cue me looking a fool in three, two, one... Thanks.

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  • Adding a navigation bar to a web view in a tab bar app

    - by Henrik Erlandsson
    I've built the tab bar application in IB, with three tabs. The third tab happily displays a UIWebview where you can browse. The only thing missing is a back button, as not all web pages supply such a link. I need a navigation bar hooked up properly to the correct classes. I'm still a bit unsure about exactly how the hierarchy should look in interface builder and how to hook it up properly. Currently, the third tab is hooked up to a referencing outlet called 'webnews' in the class 'thirdviewcontroller', and the UIWebView (under a normal IUView in the hierarchy, which in turn is under the third tab bar controller) is connected to the webnews outlet. How do I make the navbar control the webview, and do I add code to the thirdviewcontroller.m that lets the navbar on the view control the webview 'back' function? What do I hook up as the delegate for it? Currently I have an app delegate, but that's hooked up to the tab bar. I'm not really after specific code as much as a general 'how it works' clue :) (Unless I can just add the navbar dynamically to the functioning app... but I don't think addSubView on viewWillAppear {} in thirdviewcontroller.m will create the proper functionality?) If I were to guess at the simplest solution, I'd guess create a navbarcontroller.h/.m, slap a navbar on the view in IB, connect the third tab to navbarcontroller, connect the navbar to the webview (?) and move the webnews outlet to navbarcontroller.h, and connect the webview to it. But I don't quite have the nerve to try, better to ask advice first.

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  • ASP.Net RadioButton loses ViewState

    - by Carl
    I'm having trouble with a simple radio set of two radio buttons (I don't want to use a RadioButtonList [RBL] because RBL doesn't allow child controls, and in my case, if you select one option, I want to enable a textbox next to the button; yes you could hack this with jQuery to move the textbox, but that's dirty!). I would check one, submit the form (either explicitly or through AutoPostBack), and the CheckedChanged event would never fire. When the page was reloaded, both buttons would be unchecked, regardless of their initial state on non-postback load or the state before form submission. I took out the checkbox and stripped this down to the simplest example I could come up with. I tossed EnableViewState=true all over the place just in case it was being disabled somewhere I couldn't find. <form id="form1" runat="server" enableviewstate="true"> <div> <asp:RadioButton ID="foo" Text="foo" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnCheckedChanged="rbChanged" Checked="true" GroupName="foobar" EnableViewState="true" /> <asp:RadioButton ID="bar" Text="bar" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" GroupName="foobar" OnCheckedChanged="rbChanged" Checked="false" EnableViewState="true" /> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="resultLbl" /> </div> </form> protected void rbChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (foo.Checked) resultLbl.Text = "foo is checked"; else if (bar.Checked) resultLbl.Text = "bar is checked"; else resultLbl.Text = "neither is checked"; }

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  • C# program that generates html pages - limit image dimensions on page

    - by Professor Mustard
    I have a C# program that generates a large number of html pages, based on various bits of data and images that I have stored on the file system. The html itself works just fine, but the images can vary greatly in their dimensions. I need a way to ensure that a given image won't exceed a certain size on the page. The simplest way to accomplish this would be through the html itself... if there was some kind of "maxwidth" or "maxheight" property I could set in the html, or maybe a way to force the image to fit inside a table cell (if I used something like this, I'd have to be sure that the non-offending dimension would automatically scale with the one that's being reduced). The problem is, I don't know much about this "fine tuning" kind of stuff in html, and it seems to be a tough thing to Google around for (most of the solutions involve some sort of html specialization; I'm just using plain html). Alternatively, I could determine the width and height of each image at runtime by examining the image in C#, and then setting width/height values in the html if the image's dimensions exceed a certain value. The problem here is that is seems incredibly inefficient to load an entire image into memory, just to get its dimensions. I would need a way to "peek" at an image and just get its size (it could be bmp, jpg, gif or png). Any recommendations for either approach would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Model Binding, a simple, simple question

    - by Paul Hatcherian
    I have a struct which works much like the System.Nullable type: public struct SpecialProperty<T> { public static implicit operator T(SpecialProperty<T> value) { return value.Value; } public static implicit operator SpecialProperty<T>(T value) { return new TrackChanges<T> { Value = value }; } T internalValue; public T Value { get { return internalValue; } set { internalValue = value; } } public override bool Equals(object other) { return Value.Equals(other); } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value.GetHashCode(); } public override string ToString() { return Value.ToString(); } } I'm trying to use it with ASP.NET MVC binding. Using the default customer model binder the property will always yield null. I can fix this by adding ".Value" to the end of every form input name, but I just want it to bind to the new type directly using some sort of custom model binder, but all the solutions I've tried seemed needlessly complex. I feel like I should be able to extend the default binder and with a few lines of code redirect the property binding to the entire model using implicit conversion. I don't quite get the binding paradigm of the default binder, but it seems really stuck on this distinction between the model and model properties. What is the simplest method to do this? Thanks!

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  • How to compile a schema that uses a DataSet (xs:schema)?

    - by Yaron Naveh
    I have created the simplest web service in c#: public void AddData(DataSet ds) The generated schema (Wsdl) looks like this: <s:schema xmlns:s="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> ... <s:element ref="s:schema" /> ... </s:schema> Note the schema does not contain any import/include elements. I am trying to load this schema to a c# System.Xml.XmlSchema and add it to System.Xml.XmlSchemaSet: var set = new XmlSchemaSet(); var fs = new FileStream(@"c:\temp\schema.xsd", FileMode.Open); var s = XmlSchema.Read(fs, null); set.Add(s); set.Compile(); The last line throws this exception: The 'http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema:schema' element is not declared. It kind of makes sense: The schema generated by .Net uses the "s:schema" type which is declared in a schema which is not imported. Why does .Net create a non valid schema? How to compile the schema anyway? Whay I did is download the schema in http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema and added it to the XmlSchemaSet also. This did not work since that online schema contains DTD definition. I had to manually remove it and now all works. Does this make sense or am I missing something?

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  • How do I configure a C# web service client to send HTTP request header and body in parallel?

    - by Christopher
    Hi, I am using a traditional C# web service client generated in VS2008 .Net 3.5, inheriting from SoapHttpClientProtocol. This is connecting to a remote web service written in Java. All configuration is done in code during client initialization, and can be seen below: ServicePointManager.Expect100Continue = false; ServicePointManager.DefaultConnectionLimit = 10; var client = new APIService { EnableDecompression = true, Url = _url + "?guid=" + Guid.NewGuid(), Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, password, null), PreAuthenticate = true, Timeout = 5000 // 5 sec }; It all works fine, but the time taken to execute the simplest method call is almost double the network ping time. Whereas a Java test client takes roughly the same as the network ping time: C# client ~ 550ms Java client ~ 340ms Network ping ~ 300ms After analyzing the TCP traffic for a session discovered the following: Basically, the C# client sent TCP packets in the following sequence. Client Send HTTP Headers in one packet. Client Waits For TCP ACK from server. Client Sends HTTP Body in one packet. Client Waits For TCP ACK from server. The Java client sent TCP packets in the following sequence. Client Sends HTTP Headers in one packet. Client Sends HTTP Body in one packet. Client Revieves ACK for first packet. Client Revieves ACK for second packet. Client Revieves ACK for second packet. Is there anyway to configure the C# web service client to send the header/body in parallel as the Java client appears to? Any help or pointers much appreciated.

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  • EF4 Generate Database

    - by shaneseaton
    Hi, I am trying my hardest to find the simplest way to create a basic "model first" entity framework example. However I am struggling with the actually generation of the database, particularly the running of the SQL against the database. Tools Visual Studio 2010 SQL Server 2008 Express Process Create a new class project Add a new Server-Database item (mdf) named "Database1.mdf" to the project Add an empty ADO.net Entity Model Create a simple entity (Person: Id, Name) Generate the Script selecting the Database1 connection created for me by visual studio Right click the script editor and select the "Execute SQL..." option Log in to SQLEXPRESS This is where is falls over saying it cant find a database name "Database1". The "problem" is that the SQL server has not had Database1 attached to it. I am 100% positive that Visual Studio use to attach a database to SQLExpress when it created a new database (Step 2). This appears to not be the case any more (even the beta of VS2010 did it). Can someone confirm this? or tell me how to get this to happen? Is there a way that I can modify the TSQL script to use an un-attached database. ie a file. I know I can use SQL Management Studio or sqlcmd to attach the database, but I would ideally like to avoid the solutions as I would like to see the cleanest method of just using visual studio. Ideal Solutions (in order of most prefered) Get visual studio to attach the newly created database Modify the generated SQL to point to file Thanks in advance.

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  • Silverlight TemplateBinding to RotateTransform

    - by Trog Dog
    I am trying to create the simplest Silverlight templated control, and I can't seem to get TemplateBinding to work on the Angle property of a RotateTransform. Here's the ControlTemplate from generic.xaml: <ControlTemplate TargetType="local:CtlKnob"> <Grid x:Name="grid" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <Grid.RenderTransform> <TransformGroup> <RotateTransform Angle="{TemplateBinding Angle}"/> <!-- This does not work --> <!-- <RotateTransform Angle="70"/> --> <!-- This works --> </TransformGroup> </Grid.RenderTransform> <Ellipse Stroke="#FFB70404" StrokeThickness="19"/> <Ellipse Stroke="White" StrokeThickness="2" Height="16" VerticalAlignment="Top" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Width="16" Margin="0,2,0,0"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> Here's the C#: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; namespace CtlKnob { public class CtlKnob : Control { public CtlKnob() { this.DefaultStyleKey = typeof(CtlKnob); } public static readonly DependencyProperty AngleProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Angle", typeof(double), typeof(CtlKnob), null); public double Angle { get { return (double)GetValue(AngleProperty); } set { SetValue(AngleProperty,value); } } } }

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  • What is the best "forgot my password" method?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I'm programming a community website. I want to build a "forgot my password" feature. Looking around at different sites, I've found they employ one of three options: send the user an email with a link to a unique, hidden URL that allows him to change his password (Gmail and Amazon) send the user an email with a new, randomly generated password (Wordpress) send the user his current password (www.teach12.com) Option #3 seems the most convenient to the user but since I save passwords as an MD5 hash, I don't see how option #3 would be available to me since MD5 is irreversible. This also seems to be insecure option since it means that the website must be saving the password in clear text somewhere, and at the least the clear-text password is being sent over insecure e-mail to the user. Or am I missing something here? So if I can't do option #1, option #2 seems to be the simplest to program since I just have to change the user's password and send it to him. Although this is somewhat insecure since you have to have a live password being communicated via insecure e-mail. However, this could also be misused by trouble-makers to pester users by typing in random e-mails and constantly changing passwords of various users. Option #1 seems to be the most secure but requires a little extra programming to deal with a hidden URL that expires etc., but it seems to be what the big sites use. What experience have you had using/programming these various options? Are there any options I've missed?

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  • Problems with ltk (common lisp)

    - by Silvanus
    I installed ltk to Steel Bank Common Lisp with asdf-install, but I can't even start using it V_V. The code below is the simplest example in the documentation, and is copied almost verbatim. asdf:operate 'asdf:load-op :ltk) (defun hello-1() (with-ltk () (let ((b (make-instance 'button :master nil :text "Press Me" :command (lambda () (format t "Hello World!~&"))))) (pack b)))) (hello-1) This is the error message I get from sbcl: ; in: LAMBDA NIL ; (PACK B) ; ; caught STYLE-WARNING: ; undefined function: PACK ; (WITH-LTK NIL ; (LET ((B (MAKE-INSTANCE 'BUTTON :MASTER NIL :TEXT "Press Me" :COMMAND #))) ; (PACK B))) ; ; caught STYLE-WARNING: ; undefined function: WITH-LTK ; ; compilation unit finished ; Undefined functions: ; PACK WITH-LTK ; caught 2 STYLE-WARNING conditions debugger invoked on a SIMPLE-ERROR in thread #: There is no class named BUTTON. Type HELP for debugger help, or (SB-EXT:QUIT) to exit from SBCL. restarts (invokable by number or by possibly-abbreviated name): 0: [ABORT] Exit debugger, returning to top level. (SB-PCL::FIND-CLASS-FROM-CELL BUTTON NIL T)

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  • Should an Event that has no arguments define its own custom EventArgs or simply use System.EventArgs

    - by Mike Rosenblum
    I have an event that is currently defined with no event arguments. That is, the EventArgs it sends is EventArgs.Empty. In this case, it is simplest to declare my Event handler as: EventHandler<System.EventArgs> MyCustomEvent; I do not plan on adding any event arguments to this event, but it is possible that any code could need to change in the future. Therefore, I am leaning towards having all my events always create an empty event args type that inheretis from System.EventArgs, even if there are no event args currently needed. Something like this: public class MyCustomEventArgs : EventArgs { } And then my event definition becomes the following: EventHandler<MyCustomEventArgs> MyCustomEvent; So my question is this: is it better to define my own MyCustomEventArgs, even if it does not add anything beyond inheriting from System.EventArgs, so that event arguments could be added in the future more easily? Or is it better to explicitly define my event as returning System.EventArgs, so that it is clearer to the user that there are no extra event args? I am leaning towards creating custom event arguments for all my events, even if the event arguments are empty. But I was wondering if others thought that making it clearer to the user that the event arguments are empty would be better? Much thanks in advance, Mike

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  • Flush kernel's TCP buffer with `MSG_MORE`-flagged packets

    - by timn
    send()'s man page reveals the MSG_MORE flag which is asserted to act like TCP_CORK. I have a wrapper function around send(): int SocketConnection_Write(SocketConnection *this, void *buf, int len) { errno = 0; int sent = send(this->fd, buf, len, MSG_NOSIGNAL); if (errno == EPIPE || errno == ENOTCONN) { throw(exc, &SocketConnection_NotConnectedException); } else if (errno == ECONNRESET) { throw(exc, &SocketConnection_ConnectionResetException); } else if (sent != len) { throw(exc, &SocketConnection_LengthMismatchException); } return sent; } Assuming I want to use the kernel buffer, I could go with TCP_CORK, enable whenever it is necessary and then disable it to flush the buffer. But on the other hand, thereby the need for an additional system call arises. Thus, the usage of MSG_MORE seems more appropriate to me. I'd simply change the above send() line to: int sent = send(this->fd, buf, len, MSG_NOSIGNAL | MSG_MORE); According to lwm.net, packets will be flushed automatically if they are large enough: If an application sets that option on a socket, the kernel will not send out short packets. Instead, it will wait until enough data has shown up to fill a maximum-size packet, then send it. When TCP_CORK is turned off, any remaining data will go out on the wire. But this section only refers to TCP_CORK. Now, what is the proper way to flush MSG_MORE packets? I can only think of two possibilities: Call send() with an empty buffer and without MSG_MORE being set Re-apply the TCP_CORK option as described on this page Unfortunately the whole topic is very poorly documented and I couldn't find much on the Internet. I am also wondering how to check that everything works as expected? Obviously running the server through strace' is not an option. So the only simplest way would be to usenetcat' and then look at its `strace' output? Or will the kernel handle traffic differently transmitted over a loopback interface?

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  • WPF TextBox Interceping RoutedUICommands

    - by Joseph Sturtevant
    I am trying to get Undo/Redo keyboard shortcuts working in my WPF application (I have my own custom functionality implemented using the Command Pattern). It seems, however, that the TextBox control is intercepting my "Undo" RoutedUICommand. What is the simplest way to disable this so that I can catch Ctrl+Z at the root of my UI tree? I would like to avoid putting a ton of code/XAML into each TextBox in my application if possible. The following briefly demonstrates the problem: <Window x:Class="InputBindingSample.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:loc="clr-namespace:InputBindingSample" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Window.CommandBindings> <CommandBinding Command="loc:Window1.MyUndo" Executed="MyUndo_Executed" /> </Window.CommandBindings> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <StackPanel> <Button Content="Ctrl+Z Works If Focus Is Here" /> <TextBox Text="Ctrl+Z Doesn't Work If Focus Is Here" /> </StackPanel> </DockPanel> </Window> using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace InputBindingSample { public partial class Window1 { public static readonly RoutedUICommand MyUndo = new RoutedUICommand("MyUndo", "MyUndo", typeof(Window1), new InputGestureCollection(new[] { new KeyGesture(Key.Z, ModifierKeys.Control) })); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void MyUndo_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("MyUndo!"); } } }

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  • ADT-like polymorphism in Java (without altering class)

    - by ffriend
    In Haskell I can define following data type: data Tree = Empty | Leaf Int | Node Tree Tree and then write polymorphic function like this: depth :: Tree -> Int depth Empty = 0 depth (Leaf n) = 1 depth (Node l r) = 1 + max (depth l) (depth r) In Java I can emulate algebraic data types with interfaces: interface Tree {} class Empty implements Tree {} class Leaf implements Tree { int n; } class Node implements Tree { Tree l; Tree r; } But if I try to use Haskell-like polymorphism, I get an error: int depth(Empty node) { return 0; } int depth(Leaf node) { return 1; } int depth(Node node) { return 1 + Math.max(depth(node.l), depth(node.r)); // ERROR: Cannot resolve method 'depth(Tree)' } Correct way to overcome this is to put method depth() to each class. But what if I don't want to put it there? For example, method depth() may be not directly related to Tree and adding it to class would break business logic. Or, even worse, Tree may be written in 3rd party library that I don't have access to. In this case, what is the simplest way to implement ADT-like polymorpism? Just in case, for the moment I'm using following syntax, which is obviously ill-favored: int depth(Tree tree) { if (tree instanceof Empty) depth((Empty)tree) if (tree instanceof Leaf) depth((Leaf)tree); if (tree instanceof Node) depth((Node)tree); else throw new RuntimeException("Don't know how to find depth of " + tree.getClass()); }

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  • C# Regex - Replace multiple characters at once without overwriting?

    - by Everaldo Aguiar
    Hello guys, I'm implementing a c# program that should automatize a Mono-alphabetic substitution cipher. The functionality i'm working on at the moment is the simplest one: The user will provide a plain text and a cipher alphabet, for example: Plain text(input): THIS IS A TEST Cipher alphabet: A - Y, H - Z, I - K, S - L, E - J, T - Q Cipher Text(output): QZKL KL QJLQ I thought of using regular expressions since I've been programming in perl for a while, but I'm encountering some problems on c#. First I would like to know if someone would have a suggestion for a regular expression that would replace all occurrence of each letter by its corresponding cipher letter (provided by user) at once and without overwriting anything. Example: In this case, user provides plaintext "TEST", and on his cipher alphabet, he wishes to have all his T's replaced with E's, E's replaced with Y and S replaced with J. My first thought was to substitute each occurrence of a letter with an individual character and then replace that character by the cipherletter corresponding to the plaintext letter provided. Using the same example word "TEST", the steps taken by the program to provide an answer would be: 1 - replace T's with (lets say) @ 2 - replace E's with # 3 - replace S's with & 4 - Replace @ with E, # with Y, & with j 5 - Output = EYJE This solution doesn't seem to work for large texts. I would like to know if anyone can think of a single regular expression that would allow me to replace each letter in a given text by its corresponding letter in a 26-letter cipher alphabet without the need of splitting the task in an intermediate step as I mentioned. If it helps visualize the process, this is a print screen of my GUI for the program: http://img43.imageshack.us/img43/2118/11618743.jpg

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  • How to best implement Version Control for Web Development?

    - by Adam Taylor
    Version control systems are obviously important in development projects but there use in web development projects appears to be more complex, what with the requirement of having a web server to run all but the simplest of web applications. With that in mind, I have looked around and discovered a few different methods of using version control in web development projects: Provide each developer with a virtual machine which is a replication of the development server and have the developer run their working copy of the application in the virtual machine. Have each developer use a sub domain on the development server, e.g. john.project.com and checkout their working copy of the app to the directories the sub domain points to. Use the version control system to checkout code, make a change, commit the code and then check it on the development server (which points to the head of the repository). I can see a drawback of 1 being the added time required to create the virtual machines and ensure that the virtual machines are kept insync with the development server (also the need(?) to continuously change the developers host file to point at the virtual machine not the development server). I can see 2 possibly being a problem if absolute URLs are used within the site unless there is an easy way to update the configuration to use the new subdomains as well. 3 is the easiest to set up but is rather primitive and it will presumably become quite tedious for a developer to keep checking in the code after every time change. How have the users of stackoverflow used version control with web development projects and which method/workflow was most effective. Please also include extra methods I haven't thought of / read about.

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  • Shell script to emulate warnings-as-errors?

    - by talkaboutquality
    Some compilers let you set warnings as errors, so that you'll never leave any compiler warnings behind, because if you do, the code won't build. This is a Good Thing. Unfortunately, some compilers don't have a flag for warnings-as-errors. I need to write a shell script or wrapper that provides the feature. Presumably it parses the compilation console output and returns failure if there were any compiler warnings (or errors), and success otherwise. "Failure" also means (I think) that object code should not be produced. What's the shortest, simplest UNIX/Linux shell script you can write that meets the explicit requirements above, as well as the following implicit requirements of otherwise behaving just like the compiler: - accepts all flags, options, arguments - supports redirection of stdout and stderr - produces object code and links as directed Key words: elegant, meets all requirements. Extra credit: easy to incorporate into a GNU make file. Thanks for your help. === Clues === This solution to a different problem, using shell functions (?), Append text to stderr redirects in bash, might figure in. Wonder how to invite litb's friend "who knows bash quite well" to address my question? === Answer status === Thanks to Charlie Martin for the short answer, but that, unfortunately, is what I started out with. A while back I used that, released it for office use, and, within a few hours, had its most severe drawback pointed out to me: it will PASS a compilation with no warnings, but only errors. That's really bad because then we're delivering object code that the compiler is sure won't work. The simple solution also doesn't meet the other requirements listed. Thanks to Adam Rosenfield for the shorthand, and Chris Dodd for introducing pipefail to the solution. Chris' answer looks closest, because I think the pipefail should ensure that if compilation actually fails on error, that we'll get failure as we should. Chris, does pipefail work in all shells? And have any ideas on the rest of the implicit requirements listed above?

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