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  • Why is my javascript function sometimes "not defined"?

    - by harpo
    Problem: I call my javascript function, and sometimes I get the error 'myFunction is not defined'. But it is defined. For example. I'll occasionally get 'copyArray is not defined' even in this example: function copyArray( pa ) { var la = []; for (var i=0; i < pa.length; i++) la.push( pa[i] ); return la; } Function.prototype.bind = function( po ) { var __method = this; var __args = []; // sometimes errors -- in practice I inline the function as a workaround __args = copyArray( arguments ); return function() { /* bind logic omitted for brevity */ } } As you can see, copyArray is defined right there, so this can't be about the order in which script files load. I've been getting this in situations that are harder to work around, where the calling function is located in another file that should be loaded after the called function. But this was the simplest case I could present, and appears to be the same problem. It doesn't happen 100% of the time, so I do suspect some kind of load-timing-related problem. But I have no idea what. @Hojou: That's part of the problem. The function in which I'm now getting this error is itself my addLoadEvent, which is basically a standard version of the common library function. @James: I understand that, and there is no syntax error in the function. When that is the case, the syntax error is reported as well. In this case, I am getting only the 'not defined' error. @David: The script in this case resides in an external file that is referenced using the normal <script src="file.js"></script> method in the page's head section. @Douglas: Interesting idea, but if this were the case, how could we ever call a user-defined function with confidence? In any event, I tried this and it didn't work. @sk: This technique has been tested across browsers and is basically copied from the prototype library.

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  • Is my understanding of "select distinct" correct?

    - by paxdiablo
    We recently discovered a performance problem with one of our systems and I think I have the fix but I'm not certain my understanding is correct. In simplest form, we have a table blah into which we accumulate various values based on a key field. The basic form is: recdate date rectime time system varchar(20) count integer accum1 integer accum2 integer There are a lot more accumulators than that but they're all of the same form. The primary key is made up of recdate, rectime and system. As values are collected to the table, the count for a given recdate/rectime/system is incremented and the values for that key are added to the accumulators. That means the averages can be obtained by using accumN / count. Now we also have a view over that table specified as follows: create view blah_v ( recdate, rectime, system, count, accum1, accum2 ) as select distinct recdate, rectime, system, count, value (case when count > 0 then accum1 / count end, 0), value (case when count > 0 then accum2 / count end, 0) from blah; In other words, the view gives us the average value of the accumulators rather than the sums. It also makes sure we don't get a divide-by-zero in those cases where the count is zero (these records do exist and we are not allowed to remove them so don't bother telling me they're rubbish - you're preaching to the choir). We've noticed that the time difference between doing: select distinct recdate from XX varies greatly depending on whether we use the table or the view. I'm talking about the difference being 1 second for the table and 27 seconds for the view (with 100K rows). We actually tracked it back to the select distinct. What seems to be happening is that the DBMS is actually loading all the rows in and sorting them so as to remove duplicates. That's fair enough, it's what we stupidly told it to do. But I'm pretty sure the fact that the view includes every component of the primary key means that it's impossible to have duplicates anyway. We've validated the problem since, if we create another view without the distinct, it performs at the same speed as the underlying table. I just wanted to confirm my understanding that a select distinct can not have duplicates if it includes all the primary key components. If that's so, then we can simply change the view appropriately.

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  • one page over 9 different urls

    - by Ali Demirtas
    Hi I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engines penalize my website for this. Here are examples of a page with more than 2 urls (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/product.php?id_product=515) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) you can see even the static url's have 2 one with language defined and the other without. out fo the three urls above the correct one is the one at the bottom. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. There is 550 pages and every page is published in 17 different languages I want to use a 301 auto redirect. What is the simplest way to do it? I have no idea of coding. # URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on # URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)\-([a-z0-9]+)(\-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(\-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] # Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^***.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.***.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on # index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.*index\.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.*)index\.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

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  • Error using `loess.smooth` but not `loess` or `lowess`

    - by Sandy
    I need to smooth some simulated data, but occasionally run into problems when the simulated ordinates to be smoothed are mostly the same value. Here is a small reproducible example of the simplest case. > x <- 0:50 > y <- rep(0,51) > loess.smooth(x,y) Error in simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, : NA/NaN/Inf in foreign function call (arg 1) loess(y~x), lowess(x,y), and their analogue in MATLAB produce the expected results without error on this example. I am using loess.smooth here because I need the estimates evaluated at a set number of points. According to the documentation, I believe loess.smooth and loess are using the same estimation functions, but the former is an "auxiliary function" to handle the evaluation points. The error seems to come from a C function: > traceback() 3: .C(R_loess_raw, as.double(pseudovalues), as.double(x), as.double(weights), as.double(weights), as.integer(D), as.integer(N), as.double(span), as.integer(degree), as.integer(nonparametric), as.integer(order.drop.sqr), as.integer(sum.drop.sqr), as.double(span * cell), as.character(surf.stat), temp = double(N), parameter = integer(7), a = integer(max.kd), xi = double(max.kd), vert = double(2 * D), vval = double((D + 1) * max.kd), diagonal = double(N), trL = double(1), delta1 = double(1), delta2 = double(1), as.integer(0L)) 2: simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, "none", "interpolate", control$cell, iterations, control$trace.hat) 1: loess.smooth(x, y) loess also calls simpleLoess, but with what appears to be different arguments. Of course, if you vary enough of the y values to be nonzero, loess.smooth runs without error, but I need the program to run in even the most extreme case. Hopefully, someone can help me with one and/or all of the following: Understand why only loess.smooth, and not the other functions, produces this error and find a solution for this problem. Find a work-around using loess but still evaluating the estimate at a specified number of points that can differ from the vector x. For example, I might want to use only x <- seq(0,50,10) in the smoothing, but evaluate the estimate at x <- 0:50. As far as I know, using predict with a new data frame will not properly handle this situation, but please let me know if I am missing something there. Handle the error in a way that doesn't stop the program from moving onto the next simulated data set. Thanks in advance for any help on this problem.

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  • one page has 9 urls. I am looking for 301 auto redirect syntax for multiple urls.

    - by Ali Demirtas
    Hi This is the third time I am asking this question. I am only looking for the syntax of how to solve this problem. I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engines penalize my website for this. Here are examples of a page with more than 2 urls (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/product.php?id_product=515) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) you can see even the static url's have 2 one with language defined and the other without. out fo the three urls above the correct one is the one at the bottom. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. There is 550 pages and every page is published in 17 different languages I want to use a 301 auto redirect. What is the simplest way to do it? Please only reply if you have the coding for a auto 301 redirect! URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)-([a-z0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]).jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.)$ http://www.*.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.index.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.)index.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

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  • Closure Tables - Is this enough data to display a tree view?

    - by James Pitt
    Here is the table I have created by testing the closure table method. | id | parentId | childId | hops | | | | | 270 | 6 | 6 | 0 | 271 | 7 | 7 | 0 | 272 | 8 | 8 | 0 | 273 | 9 | 9 | 0 | 276 | 10 | 10 | 0 | 281 | 9 | 10 | 1 | 282 | 7 | 9 | 1 | 283 | 7 | 10 | 2 | 285 | 7 | 8 | 1 | 286 | 6 | 7 | 1 | 287 | 6 | 9 | 2 | 288 | 6 | 10 | 3 | 289 | 6 | 8 | 2 | 293 | 6 | 9 | 1 | 294 | 6 | 10 | 2 I am trying to create a simple tree of this using PHP. There does not seem to be enough data to create the table. For example, when I look purely at parentId = 6: -Part 6 -Part 7 - ? - ? -Part 9 - ? - ? We know that parts 8 and 10 exists below Part 7 or 9, but not which. We know that part 10 exists at both 3 and 4 nodes deep but where? If I look at other data in the table it is possible to tell it should be: - Part 6 - Part 7 - Part 9 - Part 10 - Part 9 - Part 10 I thought one of the benefits of closure tables was there was no need for recursive queries? Could you help explain what I am doing wrong? EDIT: For clarification, this is a mapping table. There is another table called "parts" which has a column called part_id that correlates to both the parentId and childId columns in the "closure" table. The "id" column in the table above (closure) is just for the purposes of maintaining a primary key. It is not really necessary. The methods I have used to create this closure table is described in the following article: http://dirtsimple.org/2010/11/simplest-way-to-do-tree-based-queries.html EDIT2: It can have two and three hops. I will explain easier by assigning names to the items. Part 6 = Bicycle Part 7 = Gears Part 8 = Chain Part 9 = Bolt Part 10 = Nut Nut is part of Bolt. The Bolt and Nut combo exists directly within Bicycle and within Gears which is part of Bicycle. In relation to what method to use I have looked at Adjacency, Edges, Enum Paths, Closures, DAGS(networks) and the Nested Set Model. I am still trying to work out what is what, but this is an extremely complex component database where there are multiple parents and any modification to a sub-tree must propogate through the other trees. More importantly there will be insertions, deletions and tree views that I wish to avoid recursion during general use, even at the cost of database space and query time during entry.

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  • Passing array into constructor to use on JList

    - by OVERTONE
    I know the title sound confusing and thats because it is. its a bit long so try too stay with me. this is the layout i have my code designed variables constructor methods. im trying too fill a Jlist full on names. i want too get those names using a method. so here goes. in my variables i have my JList. its called contactNames; i also have an array which stores 5 strings which are the contacts names; heres the code for that anyway String contact1; String contact2; String contact3; String contact4; String contact5; String[] contactListNames; JList contactList; simple enough. then in my constructor i have the Jlist defined to fill itself with the contents of the array fillContactList(); JList contactList = new JList(contactListNames); that method fillContactList() is coming up shortly. notice i dont have the array defined in the constructor. so heres my first question. can i do that? define the array to contain something in te constructor rather than filling it fromt the array. now heres where stuff gets balls up. ive created three different methods all of which havent worked. basically im trying to fill the array with all of them. this is the simplest one. it doesnt set the Jlist, it doesnt do anything compilicated. all it trys too do is fill the array one bit at a time public void fillContactList() { for(int i = 0;i<3;i++) { try { String contact; System.out.println(" please fill the list at index "+ i); Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); contact = in.next(); contactListNames[i] = contact; in.nextLine(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } unfortunately this doesnt qwork. i get the print out to fill it at index 0; i input something and i get a nice big stack trace starting at contactListNames[i] = contact; so my two questions in short are how i define an array in a constructor. and why cant i fill the array from that method. ************************888 **************************888 stack trace by request please fill the list at index 0 overtone java.lang.NullPointerException please fill the list at index 1 at project.AdminMessages.fillContactList(AdminMessages.java:408) at project.AdminMessages.<init>(AdminMessages.java:88) at project.AdminUser.createAdminMessages(AdminUser.java:32) at project.AdminUser.<init>(AdminUser.java:18) at project.AdminUser.main(AdminUser.java:47) it was a null poiinter exception

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  • generated service mock: everything but RhinoMocks fails?

    - by hko
    I have the "quest" to search for the next Mocking Framework for my company, and basically it's down to NSubstitute (simplest syntax, but no strict mocks), FakeItEasy(best reviews, Roy Osherove bonus, and slightly better lib support than NSubstitute), Moq (best "other libs support", biggest featureset, downside: mock.Object). We definitely want to move on from RhinoMocks, e.g. because of the unusefull interactiontest error messages (it should tell me what the parameter was instead, when a verification fails). So I was pretty surprised the other day (that was yesterday) when I found out RhinoMocks could do a thing where every other mock framework fails at: Mocking an autogenerated SomethingService (a typical VS autogenerated service with a default construtor in a partial class). Please don't argue about the design.. I intend to write lightweight integration tests (and some unit tests), and I can't mess around with the service, the product is installed on too many customers system. See this code: // here the NSubstitute and FakeItEasy equivalents throw an exception.. see below TicketStoreService fakeTicketStoreService = MockRepository.GenerateMock<TicketStoreService>(); fakeTicketStoreService.Expect(service => service.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())).Return(new Guid()); fakeTicketStoreService.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())); fakeTicketStoreService.VerifyAllExpectations(); Note that DoSomething is a non-virtual methodcall in an autogenerated class. So it shouldn't work, according to common knowledge. But it does. Problem is that it's the only (non commercial) framework that can do this: Rhino.Mocks works, and verification works too FakeItEasy says it doesn't find a default constructor (probably just wrong exception message): No default constructor was found on the type SomeNamespace.TicketStoreService Moq gives something sane and understandable: Invalid setup on a non-virtual (overridable in VB) member: service=> service.DoSomething Nsubstitute gives a message System.NotSupportedException: Cannot serialize member System.ComponentModel.Component.Site of type System.ComponentModel.ISite because it is an interface. I'm really wondering what's going on here with the frameworks, except Moq. The "fancy new" frameworks seem to have an initial perf hit too, probably preparing some Type cache and serializing stuff, whilst RhinoMocks somehow manages to create a very "slim" mock without recursion. I have to admit I didn't like RhinoMocks very well, but here it shines.. unfortunately. So, is there a way to get that to work with newer (non-commercial!) mocking frameworks, or somehow get a sane error message out of Rhino.Mocks? And why can Rhino.Mocks achieve this, when clearly every Mocking framework states it can only work with virtual methods when given a concrete class? Let's not derail the discussion by talking about alternative approaches like Extract&Override or runtime-proxy Mocking frameworks like JustMock/TypeMock/Moles or the new Fakes framework, I know these, but that would be less ideal solutions, for reasons beyond this topic. Any help appreciated..

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  • Reading POST data from html form sent to serversocket.

    - by user32167
    i try to write simplest possible server app in Java, displaying html form with textarea input, which after submitting gives me possibility to parse xml typed in that textarea. For now i build simple serversocket based server like that: import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.io.PrintWriter; import java.net.ServerSocket; import java.net.Socket; public class WebServer { protected void start() { ServerSocket s; String gets = ""; System.out.println("Start on port 80"); try { // create the main server socket s = new ServerSocket(80); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Error: " + e); return; } System.out.println("Waiting for connection"); for (;;) { try { // wait for a connection Socket remote = s.accept(); // remote is now the connected socket System.out.println("Connection, sending data."); BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader( remote.getInputStream())); PrintWriter out = new PrintWriter(remote.getOutputStream()); String str = "."; while (!str.equals("")) { str = in.readLine(); if (str.contains("GET")){ gets = str; break; } } out.println("HTTP/1.0 200 OK"); out.println("Content-Type: text/html"); out.println(""); // Send the HTML page String method = "get"; out.print("<html><form method="+method+">"); out.print("<textarea name=we></textarea></br>"); out.print("<input type=text name=a><input type=submit></form></html>"); out.println(gets); out.flush(); remote.close(); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Error: " + e); } } } public static void main(String args[]) { WebServer ws = new WebServer(); ws.start(); } } After form (textarea with xml and one additional text input) is submitted in 'gets' String-type variable I have Urlencoded values of my variables (also displayed on the screen, it looks like that: gets = GET /?we=%3Cnetwork+ip_addr%3D%2210.0.0.0%2F8%22+save_ip%3D%22true%22%3E%0D%0A%3Csubnet+interf_used%3D%22200%22+name%3D%22lan1%22+%2F%3E%0D%0A%3Csubnet+interf_used%3D%22254%22+name%3D%22lan2%22+%2F%3E%0D%0A%3C%2Fnetwork%3E&a=fooBar HTTP/1.1 What can i do to change GET to POST method (if i simply change it in form and than put " if (str.contains("POST")){" it gives me string like gets = POST / HTTP/1.1 with no variables. And after that, how i can use xml from my textarea field (called 'we')?

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  • Implementing a logging library in .NET with a database as the storage medium

    - by Dave
    I'm just starting to work on a logging library that everyone can use to keep track of any sort of system information while the user is running our application. The simplest example so far is to track Info, Warnings, and Errors. I want all plugins to be able to use this feature, but since each developer might have a different idea of what's important to report, I want to keep this as generic as possible. In the C++ world, I would normally use something like a stl::pair<string,string> to act as a key value pair structure, and have a stl::list of these to act as a "row" in the log. The log cache would then be a list<list<pair<string,string>>> (ugh!). This way, the developers can use a const string key like INFO, WARNING, ERROR to have a consistent naming for a column in the database (for SELECTing specific types of information). I'd like the database to be able to deal with any number of distinct column names. For example, John might have an INFO row with a column called USER, and Bill might have an INFO row with a column called FILENAME. I want the log viewer to be able to display all information, and if one report doesn't have a value for INFO / FILENAME, those fields should just appear blank. So one option is to use List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>, and the another is to have the log library consumer somehow "register" its schema, and then have the database do an ALTER TABLE to handle this situation. Yet another idea is to have a table that's just for key value pairs, with a foreign key that maps the key value pairs back to the original log entry. I obviously don't want logging to bog down the system, so I only lock the log cache to make a copy of the data (and remove the already-copied data), then a background thread will dump the information to the database. My specific questions regarding this are: Do you see any performance issues? In other words, have you ever tried something like this and found that certain things just don't work well in practice? Is there a more .NETish way to implement the key value pairs, other than List<List<KeyValuePair<String,String>>>? Even if there is a way to do #2 better, is the ALTER TABLE idea I proposed above a Bad Thing? Would you recommend multiple databases over a single one? I don't yet have an idea of how frequently the log would get written to, but we ideally would like to have lots of low level information. Perhaps there should be a DB with a fixed schema only for the low level stuff, and then another DB that's more flexible for reporting information back to users.

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  • How can I ignore an http request without clearing the browser?

    - by Timid Developer
    To prevent duplicate requests (i.e. pressing F5 right after clicking a command button), I've setup my page base class to ignore the request if it's detected as a duplicate. When I say 'ignore' I mean Response.End() Now I thought I've seen this work before, where there's an issue, I just Response.End() and the users page just does nothing. I don't know the exact circumstance in which this worked, but I'm unable to repeat it now. Now when I call Response.End(), I just get an empty browser. More specifically, I get this html. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML><HEAD> <META http-equiv=Content-Type content="text/html; charset=utf-8"></HEAD> <BODY></BODY></HTML> I setup the following test app to confirm the problem is not elsewhere in my app. Here it is: Add the following to an aspx form <asp:Label ID="lbl" Text="0" runat="server" /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd1" Text="Add 1" runat="server" /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd2" Text="Add 2" runat="server" /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd3" Text="Add 3" runat="server" /><br /> And here's the code behind file using System; namespace TestDupRequestCancellation { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { btnAdd1.Click += btnAdd1_Click; btnAdd2.Click += btnAdd2_Click; btnAdd3.Click += btnAdd3_Click; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) CurrentValue = 0; else if (Int32.Parse(lbl.Text) != CurrentValue) Response.End(); } protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { lbl.Text = CurrentValue.ToString(); } protected int CurrentValue { get { return Int32.Parse(Session["CurrentValue"].ToString()); } set { Session["CurrentValue"] = value.ToString(); } } void btnAdd3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentValue += 3; } void btnAdd2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentValue += 2; } void btnAdd1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentValue += 1; } } } When you load the page, clicking any button does what is expected, but if you press F5 at any time after pressing one of the buttons, it will detect it as a duplicate request and call Response.End() which promptly ends the task. Which leaves the user with an empty browser. Is there anyway to leave the user with the page as it was, so they can just click a button? Also; please note that this code is the simplest code I could come up with to demonstrate my problem. It's not meant to demonstrate how to check for dup requests.

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  • How to stream semi-live audio over internet

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    I want to write something like Skype, i.e. I have a constant audio stream on one computer and then recompress it in a format that's suitable for a latent internet connection, receive it on the other end and play it. Let's also assume that the internet connection is fairly modern and fast, i.e. DSL or alike, no slow connections over phone and such. The involved computers will also be rather modern (Dual Core Intel CPUs at 2GHz or more). I know how to handle the audio on the machines. What I don't know is how to transmit the audio in an efficient way. The challenges are: I'd like get good audio quality across the line. The stream should be received without drops. The stream may, however, be received with a little delay (a second delay is acceptable). I imagine that the transport software could first determine the average (and max) latency, then start the stream and tell the receiver to wait for that max latency before starting to play the audio. With that, if the latency doesn't get any higher, the entire stream will be playable on the other side without stutter or drops. If, due to unexpected IP latencies or blockages, the stream does get cut off, I want to be able to notice this so that I can take actions (e.g. abort the stream) and eventually start a new transmission. What are my options if I want do use ready-made software for the compression and tranmission? I have no intention to write my own audio compression engine, really. OTOH, I plan to sell the solution in a vertical market, meaning I can afford a few dollars of license fees per copy, but not $100s. I guess the simplest solution would be to just open a TCP stream, send a few packets back and forth to determine their running time (or even use UDP for that), then use the results as the guide for my max latency value, then simply fire the audio data in its raw form (uncompressed 16 bit stereo), along with a timing code over the TCP connection. The receiver reads the data and plays it with the pre-determined delay. That might just work with the type of fast connection I expect. I just wonder if there are better solutions to reach this goal, with better performance (lower latency) and less data (compressed). BTW, I first try to implement this on OS X, but might want to do it on Windows, too, if it proves successful.

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  • How do you create a MANIFEST.MF that's available when you're testing and running from a jar in produ

    - by warvair
    I've spent far too much time trying to figure this out. This should be the simplest thing and everyone who distributes Java applications in jars must have to deal with it. I just want to know the proper way to add versioning to my Java app so that I can access the version information when I'm testing, e.g. debugging in Eclipse and running from a jar. Here's what I have in my build.xml: <target name="jar" depends = "compile"> <property name="version.num" value="1.0.0"/> <buildnumber file="build.num"/> <tstamp> <format property="TODAY" pattern="yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss" /> </tstamp> <manifest file="${build}/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"> <attribute name="Built-By" value="${user.name}" /> <attribute name="Built-Date" value="${TODAY}" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Title" value="MyApp" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Vendor" value="MyCompany" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Version" value="${version.num}-b${build.number}"/> </manifest> <jar destfile="${build}/myapp.jar" basedir="${build}" excludes="*.jar" /> </target> This creates /META-INF/MANIFEST.MF and I can read the values when I'm debugging in Eclipse thusly: public MyClass() { try { InputStream stream = getClass().getResourceAsStream("/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"); Manifest manifest = new Manifest(stream); Attributes attributes = manifest.getMainAttributes(); String implementationTitle = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Title"); String implementationVersion = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Version"); String builtDate = attributes.getValue("Built-Date"); String builtBy = attributes.getValue("Built-By"); } catch (IOException e) { logger.error("Couldn't read manifest."); } } But, when I create the jar file, it loads the manifest of another jar (presumably the first jar loaded by the application - in my case, activation.jar). Also, the following code doesn't work either although all the proper values are in the manifest file. Package thisPackage = getClass().getPackage(); String implementationVersion = thisPackage.getImplementationVersion(); Any ideas?

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  • markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

    - by spirytus
    For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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  • Algorithm to split an article without breaking the reading flow or HTML code

    - by Victor Stanciu
    Hello, I have a very large database of articles, of varying lengths. The articles have HTML elements in them. I have to insert some ads (simple <script> elements) in the body of each article when it is displayed (I know, I hate ads that interrupt my reading too). Now, the problem is that each ad must be inserted at about the same position in each article. The simplest solution is to simply split the article on a fixed number of characters (without breaking words), and insert the ad code. This, however, runs the risk of inserting the ad in the middle of a HTML tag. I could go the regex way, but I was thinking about the following solution, using JS: Establish a character count threshold. For example, "the add should be inserted at about 200 words" Set accepted deviations in each direction, say -20, +20 characters. Loop through each text node inside the article, and while doing so, keep count of the total number of characters so far Once the count exceeds the threshold, make the following decision: 4.1. If count exceeds the threshold by a value lower that the positive accepted deviation (for example, 17 characters), insert the ad code just after the current text node. 4.2. If the count is greater than the sum of the threshold and the deviation, roll back to the previous text node, and make the same decision, only this time use the previous count and check if it's lower than the difference between the threshold and the deviation, and if not, insert the ad between the current node and the previous one. 4.3. If the 4.1 and 4.2 fail (which means that the previous node reached a too low character count and the current node a too high one), insert the ad after whatever character count is needed inside the current element. I know it's convoluted, but it's the first thing out of my mind and it has the advantage that, by trying to insert the ad between text nodes, perhaps it will not break the flow of the article as bad as it would if I would just stick it in (like the final 4.3 case) Here is some pseudo-code I put together, I don't trust my english-explaining skills: threshold = 200 deviation = 20 current_count = 0 for each node in article_nodes { previous_count = current_count current_count = current_count + node.length if current_count < threshold { continue // next interation } if current_count > threshold + deviation { if previous_count < threshdold - deviation { // insert ad in current node } else { // insert ad between the current and previous nodes } } else { // insert ad after the current node } break; } Am I over-complicating stuff, or am I missing a simpler, more elegant solution?

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  • Problem separating C++ code in header, inline functions and code.

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello all, I have the simplest code that I want to separate in three files: Header file: class and struct declarations. No implementations at all. Inline functions file: implementation of inline methods in header. Code file: normal C++ code for more complicated implementations. When I was about to implement an operator[] method, I couldn't manage to compile it. Here is a minimal example that shows the same problem: Header (myclass.h): #ifndef _MYCLASS_H_ #define _MYCLASS_H_ class MyClass { public: MyClass(const int n); virtual ~MyClass(); double& operator[](const int i); double operator[](const int i) const; void someBigMethod(); private: double* arr; }; #endif /* _MYCLASS_H_ */ Inline functions (myclass-inl.h): #include "myclass.h" inline double& MyClass::operator[](const int i) { return arr[i]; } inline double MyClass::operator[](const int i) const { return arr[i]; } Code (myclass.cpp): #include "myclass.h" #include "myclass-inl.h" #include <iostream> inline MyClass::MyClass(const int n) { arr = new double[n]; } inline MyClass::~MyClass() { delete[] arr; } void MyClass::someBigMethod() { std::cout << "Hello big method that is not inlined" << std::endl; } And finally, a main to test it all: #include "myclass.h" #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { MyClass m(123); double x = m[1]; m[1] = 1234; cout << "m[1]=" << m[1] << endl; x = x + 1; return 0; } void nothing() { cout << "hello world" << endl; } When I compile it, it says: main.cpp:(.text+0x1b): undefined reference to 'MyClass::MyClass(int)' main.cpp:(.text+0x2f): undefined reference to 'MyClass::operator[](int)' main.cpp:(.text+0x49): undefined reference to 'MyClass::operator[](int)' main.cpp:(.text+0x65): undefined reference to 'MyClass::operator[](int)' However, when I move the main method to the MyClass.cpp file, it works. Could you guys help me spot the problem? Thank you.

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  • Progress dialog getting dismissed before the thread gets finished - Android

    - by user264953
    Hi experts, I use the code provided by Fedor in the following link, in order to get the latitude and longitude from my simple demo app. I am trying to fetch the latitude and longitude using the MyLocation class provided by him in that link. What is the simplest and most robust way to get the user's current location in Android? I try to fetch the latitude and longitude on a button click. On the button click, I start an async task and delegate the location fetching work to the do in background method of my asynctask. pre execute - progressdialog initiated. post execute - progress dialog dismissed. This is how, the progress dialog in my code should work and here is the issue which I have. THe progress dialog gets initiated correctly, but even before the latitude and longitude gets printed in the doinbackground method, the progress dialog gets dismissed. I do not understand why this happens. Here is my front end activity public class LocationServices extends Activity { MyLocation myLocation = new MyLocation(); LocationResult locationResult; TextView tv1, tv2; Location location; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); tv1 = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.tv1); tv2 = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.tv2); Button btn = (Button) findViewById(R.id.Button01); btn.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { new LocationAsyncTasking().execute(); } }); } public class LocationAsyncTasking extends AsyncTask<String, Void, Void> { ProgressDialog dialog; int totalAvail; protected void onPreExecute() { // this.dialog.setMessage("Inserting data..."); dialog = new ProgressDialog(LocationServices.this); this.dialog.setMessage("Fetching data..."); this.dialog.show(); } protected Void doInBackground(String... args) { Looper.prepare(); locationResult = new LocationResult() { public void gotLocation(Location location) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub // LocationServices.this.location = location; System.out.println("Progress dialog should be present now - latitude"+location.getLatitude()); System.out.println("Progress dialog should be present now - longitude"+location.getLongitude()); } }; myLocation.getLocation(LocationServices.this, locationResult); return (null); } protected void onProgressUpdate(Integer... progress) { } protected void onPostExecute(Void unused) { dialog.dismiss(); } } } I am quite puzzled, thinking of what makes this progress dialog disappear even before the SOP in doinbackground is finished. Experts, please help me understand and resolve this issue. Any help in this regard is well appreciated. Looking forward, Best Regards, Rony

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  • BULK INSERT from one table to another all on the server

    - by steve_d
    I have to copy a bunch of data from one database table into another. I can't use SELECT ... INTO because one of the columns is an identity column. Also, I have some changes to make to the schema. I was able to use the export data wizard to create an SSIS package, which I then edited in Visual Studio 2005 to make the changes desired and whatnot. It's certainly faster than an INSERT INTO, but it seems silly to me to download the data to a different computer just to upload it back again. (Assuming that I am correct that that's what the SSIS package is doing). Is there an equivalent to BULK INSERT that runs directly on the server, allows keeping identity values, and pulls data from a table? (as far as I can tell, BULK INSERT can only pull data from a file) Edit: I do know about IDENTITY_INSERT, but because there is a fair amount of data involved, INSERT INTO ... SELECT is kinda of slow. SSIS/BULK INSERT dumps the data into the table without regards to indexes and logging and whatnot, so it's faster. (Of course creating the clustered index on the table once it's populated is not fast, but it's still faster than the INSERT INTO...SELECT that I tried in my first attempt) Edit 2: The schema changes include (but are not limited to) the following: 1. Splitting one table into two new tables. In the future each will have its own IDENTITY column, but for the migration I think it will be simplest to use the identity from the original table as the identity for the both new tables. Once the migration is over one of the tables will have a one-to-many relationship to the other. 2. Moving columns from one table to another. 3. Deleting some cross reference tables that only cross referenced 1-to-1. Instead the reference will be a foreign key in one of the two tables. 4. Some new columns will be created with default values. 5. Some tables aren’t changing at all, but I have to copy them over due to the "put it all in a new DB" request.

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  • [java] reading POST data from html form sent to serversocket.

    - by user32167
    i try to write simplest possible server app in Java, displaying html form with textarea input, which after submitting gives me possibility to parse xml typed in thet textarea. For now i build simple serversocket based server like that: import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.io.PrintWriter; import java.net.ServerSocket; import java.net.Socket; public class WebServer { protected void start() { ServerSocket s; String gets = ""; System.out.println("Start on port 80"); try { // create the main server socket s = new ServerSocket(80); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Error: " + e); return; } System.out.println("Waiting for connection"); for (;;) { try { // wait for a connection Socket remote = s.accept(); // remote is now the connected socket System.out.println("Connection, sending data."); BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader( remote.getInputStream())); PrintWriter out = new PrintWriter(remote.getOutputStream()); String str = "."; while (!str.equals("")) { str = in.readLine(); if (str.contains("GET")){ gets = str; break; } } out.println("HTTP/1.0 200 OK"); out.println("Content-Type: text/html"); out.println(""); // Send the HTML page String method = "get"; out.print("<html><form method="+method+">"); out.print("<textarea name=we></textarea></br>"); out.print("<input type=text name=a><input type=submit></form></html>"); out.println(gets); out.flush(); remote.close(); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Error: " + e); } } } public static void main(String args[]) { WebServer ws = new WebServer(); ws.start(); } } After form (textarea with xml and one additional text input) is submitted in 'gets' String-type variable I have Urlencoded values of my variables (also displayed on the screen, it looks like that: gets = GET /?we=%3Cnetwork+ip_addr%3D%2210.0.0.0%2F8%22+save_ip%3D%22true%22%3E%0D%0A%3Csubnet+interf_used%3D%22200%22+name%3D%22lan1%22+%2F%3E%0D%0A%3Csubnet+interf_used%3D%22254%22+name%3D%22lan2%22+%2F%3E%0D%0A%3C%2Fnetwork%3E&a=fooBar HTTP/1.1 What can i do to change GET to POST method (if i simply change it in form and than put " if (str.contains("GET")){" it gives me string like gets = POST / HTTP/1.1 with no variables. And after that, how i can use xml from my textarea field (called 'we')?

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  • How do I create a safe local development environment?

    - by docgnome
    I'm currently doing web development with another developer on a centralized development server. In the past this has worked alright, as we have two separate projects we are working on and rarely conflict. Now, however, we are adding a third (possible) developer into the mix. This is clearly going to create problems with other developers changes affecting my work and vice versa. To solve this problem, I'm thinking the best solution would be to create a virtual machine to distribute between the developers for local use. The problem I have is when it comes to the database. Given that we all develop on laptops, simply keeping a local copy of the live data is plain stupid. I've considered sanitizing the data, but I can't really figure out how to replace the real data, with data that would be representative of what people actually enter with out repeating the same information over and over again, e.g. everyone's address becomes 123 Testing Lane, Test Town, WA, 99999 or something. Is this really something to be concerned about? Are there tools to help with this sort of thing? I'm using MySQL. Ideally, if I sanitized the db it should be done from a script that I can run regularly. If I do this I'd also need a way to reduce the size of the db itself. (I figure I could select all the records created after x and whack them and all the records in corresponding tables out so that isn't really a big deal.) The second solution I've thought of is to encrypt the hard drive of the vm, but I'm unsure of how practical this is in terms of speed and also in the event of a lost/stolen laptop. If I do this, should the vm hard drive file itself be encrypted or should it be encrypted in the vm? (I'm assuming the latter as it would be portable and doesn't require the devs to have any sort of encryption capability on their OS of choice.) The third is to create a copy of the database for each developer on our development server that they are then responsible to keep the schema in sync with the canonical db by means of migration scripts or what have you. This solution seems to be the simplest but doesn't really scale as more developers are added. How do you deal with this problem?

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  • Can I use the [] operator in C++ to create virtual arrays

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a large code base, originally C ported to C++ many years ago, that is operating on a number of large arrays of spatial data. These arrays contain structs representing point and triangle entities that represent surface models. I need to refactor the code such that the specific way these entities are stored internally varies for specific scenarios. For example if the points lie on a regular flat grid, I don't need to store the X and Y coordinates, as they can be calculated on the fly, as can the triangles. Similarly, I want to take advantage of out of core tools such as STXXL for storage. The simplest way of doing this is replacing array access with put and get type functions, e.g. point[i].x = XV; becomes Point p = GetPoint(i); p.x = XV; PutPoint(i,p); As you can imagine, this is a very tedious refactor on a large code base, prone to all sorts of errors en route. What I'd like to do is write a class that mimics the array by overloading the [] operator. As the arrays already live on the heap, and move around with reallocs, the code already assumes that references into the array such as point *p = point + i; may not be used. Is this class feasible to write? For example writing the methods below in terms of the [] operator; void MyClass::PutPoint(int Index, Point p) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); StoreGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs,p.z); } else m_PointArray[Index] = p; } } Point MyClass::GetPoint(int Index) { if (m_StorageStrategy == RegularGrid) { int xoffs,yoffs; ComputeGridFromIndex(Index,xoffs,yoffs); return GetGridPoint(xoffs,yoffs); // GetGridPoint returns Point } else return m_PointArray[Index]; } } My concern is that all the array classes I've seen tend to pass by reference, whereas I think I'll have to pass structs by value. I think it should work put other than performance, can anyone see any major pitfalls with this approach. n.b. the reason I have to pass by value is to get point[a].z = point[b].z + point[c].z to work correctly where the underlying storage type varies.

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  • Why is FF on OS X loosing jQuery-UI in click event handler?

    - by Jean-François Beauchamp
    In a web page using jQUery 1.7.1 and jQUery-UI 1.8.18, if I output $.ui in an alert box when the document is ready, I get [object Object]. However when using Firefox, if I output $.ui in a click event handler, I get 'undefined' as result. With other browsers (latest versions of IE, Chrome and Safari), the result is still [object Object] when clicking on the link. Here is my HTML Page: <!doctype html> <html> <head> <title></title> <script src="Scripts/jquery-1.7.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.18.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { alert($.ui); // ALERT A $(document).on("click", ".dialogLink", function () { alert($.ui); // ALERT B return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" class="dialogLink">Click me!</a> </body> </html> In this post, I reduced to its simplest form another problem I was having described here: $(this).dialog is not a function. I created a new post for the sake of clarity, since the real question is different from the original one now that pin-pointed where the problem resided. UPDATE: IF I replace my alerts with simply alert($); I get this result for alert A: function (selector, context) { return new jQuery.fn.init(selector, context, rootjQuery); } and this one for alert B: function (a, b) { return new d.fn.init(a, b, g); } This does not make sense to me, although I may not be understanding well enough what $ is... UPDATE 2: I can only reproduce this problem using Firefox on OS X. On Firefox running on Windows 7, everything is fine.

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  • What is GC holes?

    - by tianyi
    I wrote a long TCP connection socket server in C#. Spike in memory in my server happens. I used dotNet Memory Profiler(a tool) to detect where the memory leaks. Memory Profiler indicates the private heap is huge, and the memory is something like below(the number is not real,what I want to show is the GC0 and GC2's Holes are very very huge, the data size is normal): Managed heaps - 1,500,000KB Normal heap - 1400,000KB Generation #0 - 600,000KB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 500,000KB Generation #1 - xxKB Data - 0KB "Holes" - xKB Generation #2 - xxxxxxxxxxxxxKB Data - 100,000KB "Holes" - 700,000KB Large heap - 131072KB Large heap - 83KB Overhead/unused - 130989KB Overhead - 0KB Howerver, what is GC hole? I read an article about the hole: http://kaushalp.blogspot.com/2007/04/what-is-gc-hole-and-how-to-create-gc.html The author said : The code snippet below is the simplest way to introduce a GC hole into the system. //OBJECTREF is a typedef for Object*. { PointerTable *pTBL = o_pObjectClass->GetPointerTable(); OBJECTREF aObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); OBJECTREF bObj = AllocateObjectMemory(pTBL); //WRONG!!! “aObj” may point to garbage if the second //“AllocateObjectMemory” triggered a GC. DoSomething (aOb, bObj); } All it does is allocate two managed objects, and then does something with them both. This code compiles fine, and if you run simple pre-checkin tests, it will probably “work.” But this code will crash eventually. Why? If the second call to “AllocateObjectMemory” triggers a GC, that GC discards the object instance you just assigned to “aObj”. This code, like all C++ code inside the CLR, is compiled by a non-managed compiler and the GC cannot know that “aObj” holds a root reference to an object you want kept live. ======================================================================== I can't understand what he explained. Does the sample mean aObj becomes a wild pointer after GC? Is it mean { aObj = (*aObj)malloc(sizeof(object)); free(aObj); function(aObj);? } ? I hope somebody can explain it.

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  • -[CCScene setOffsetx:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance

    - by Alexander Sharunov
    please help me, i'm very new in objective-c i've got 2 simplest classes (bellow first, second) i would like to set the offsetx properties of self.rolypoly object in second class like a self.rolypoly.offsetx=1 or run use [self.rolypoly setOffx]; to do somethings, but i always have the errors: trying [self.rolypoly setOffx]; in second class -[CCScene setOffx:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x91d0b70' or trying self.rolypoly.offsetx=1; in second class -[CCScene setOffsetx:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x808bfc0' first class //************************************************************ #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "cocos2d.h" @interface RolyPoly : CCLayer { CCAction *_walkAction; CCSprite *_rolypoly; int offsetx; int offsety; } @property (nonatomic, retain) CCSprite *rolypoly; @property (nonatomic, retain) CCAction *walkAction; @property (nonatomic, assign) int offsetx; @property (nonatomic, assign) int offsety; +(id) scene; -(void) setOffx; @end //************************************************************ #import "GameLayer.h" #import "RolyPoly.h" @implementation RolyPoly @synthesize rolypoly = _rolypoly; @synthesize walkAction = _walkAction; @synthesize offsetx = _offsetx; @synthesize offsety = _offsety; +(id) scene { CCScene *scene = [CCScene node]; RolyPoly *layer = [RolyPoly node]; [scene addChild: layer]; return scene; } -(id) init { if ((self = [super init])) { [self scheduleUpdate]; } return self; } -(void) setOffx { NSLog(@"setOffx"); } -(void) update:(ccTime)delta { } - (void) dealloc { self.rolypoly = nil; self.walkAction = nil; [super dealloc]; } @end second class //************************************************************ #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "cocos2d.h" #import "RolyPoly.h" @interface GameLayer : CCLayer { RolyPoly *_rolypoly; } // returns a CCScene that contains the HelloWorldLayer as the only child +(CCScene *) scene; @property (nonatomic, assign) RolyPoly * rolypoly; @end //************************************************************ #import "GameLayer.h" #import "RolyPoly.h" // HelloWorldLayer implementation @implementation GameLayer @synthesize rolypoly = _rolypoly; +(CCScene *) scene { CCScene *scene = [CCScene node]; GameLayer *layer = [GameLayer node]; [scene addChild: layer]; return scene; } -(id) init { if( (self=[super init])) { CGSize screenSize = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] winSize]; self.rolypoly = [RolyPoly scene]; [self addChild:self.rolypoly z:1]; [self.rolypoly setOffx]; [self scheduleUpdate]; } return self; } - (void)update:(ccTime)dt { } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end

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  • Returning and printing string array index in C

    - by user1781966
    I've got a function that searches through a list of names and I'm trying to get the search function to return the index of the array back to the main function and print out the starting location of the name found. Everything I've tried up to this point either crashes the program or results in strange output. Here is my search function: #include<stdio.h> #include<conio.h> #include<string.h> #define MAX_NAMELENGTH 10 #define MAX_NAMES 5 void initialize(char names[MAX_NAMES][MAX_NAMELENGTH], int Number_entrys, int i); int search(char names[MAX_NAMES][MAX_NAMELENGTH], int Number_entrys); int main() { char names[MAX_NAMES][MAX_NAMELENGTH]; int i, Number_entrys,search_result,x; printf("How many names would you like to enter to the list?\n"); scanf("%d",&Number_entrys); initialize(names,Number_entrys,i); search_result= search(names,Number_entrys); if (search_result==-1){ printf("Found no names.\n"); }else { printf("%s",search_result); } getch(); return 0; } void initialize(char names[MAX_NAMES][MAX_NAMELENGTH],int Number_entrys,int i) { if(Number_entrys>MAX_NAMES){ printf("Please choose a smaller entry\n"); }else{ for (i=0; i<Number_entrys;i++){ scanf("%s",names[i]); } } } int search(char names[MAX_NAMES][MAX_NAMELENGTH],int Number_entrys) { int x; char new_name[MAX_NAMELENGTH]; printf("Now enter a name in which you would like to search the list for\n"); scanf("%s",new_name); for(x = 0; x < Number_entrys; x++) { if ( strcmp( new_name, names[x] ) == 0 ) { return x; } } return -1; } Like I mentioned before I have tried a lot of different ways to try and fix this issue, but I cant seem to get them to work. Printing X like what I have above is just the last thing I tried, and therefor know that it doesn't work. Any suggestions on the simplest way to do this?

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