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• Suggestions for opening the Rails toolbox to design a challenge game?

  - by keruilin

  How would you suggest designing a challenge system as part of a food-eating game so that it's automated as possible? All RoR tools, design patterns and logic are at your disposal (e.g., admin consoles, crontab, arch, etc.). Prize goes to whoever can suggest the simplest and most-automated design! Here are the requirements: User has many challenges. Badge has many challenges. (A unique badge is awarded for each challenge won.) Only one challenge can run at a time. Each challenge has a limited number of days that it runs. For example, one challenge can run 3 days, while another runs 7 days. Challenges can be seasonal. For example, "Eat 13 Pumpkins" only runs during the Fall. New challenges are added to the game on an ongoing basis. For example, a new challenge every week. Each challenge has a certain probability of being selected to run. For example, "Eat 10 Pies" challenge has 10% chance of being selected to run. As each new challenge is added to the database, I want the probabilities of running to change dynamically. I want to avoid the scenario where I'm manually updating a database field just to change the probability from 10% to 5%, for example. Challenges act like Easter eggs. Challenge icons pop-up at different places on the webpage. User is awarded a badge for successfully completing a challenge, but only when it's active. There is some wait time between each challenge. Between 1 and 7 days. Which wait time is random, but the probability of the wait time being short is high and the probability of it being a long wait time is low.

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• How to Bind a Command in WPF

  - by MegaMind

  Sometimes we used complex ways so many times, we forgot the simplest ways to do the task. I know how to do command binding, but i always use same approach. Create a class that implements ICommand interface and from the view model i create new instance of that class and binding works like a charm. This is the code that i used for command binding public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = this; testCommand = new MeCommand(processor); } ICommand testCommand; public ICommand test { get { return testCommand; } } public void processor() { MessageBox.Show("hello world"); } } public class MeCommand : ICommand { public delegate void ExecuteMethod(); private ExecuteMethod meth; public MeCommand(ExecuteMethod exec) { meth = exec; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return false; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; public void Execute(object parameter) { meth(); } } But i want to know the basic way to do this, no third party dll no new class creation. Do this simple command binding using a single class. Actual class implements from ICommand interface and do the work.

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• Most efficient way to LIMIT results in a JOIN?

  - by johnnietheblack

  I have a fairly simple one-to-many type join in a MySQL query. In this case, I'd like to LIMIT my results by the left table. For example, let's say I have an accounts table and a comments table, and I'd like to pull 100 rows from accounts and all the associated comments rows for each. Thy only way I can think to do this is with a sub-select in in the FROM clause instead of simply selecting FROM accounts. Here is my current idea: SELECT a.*, c.* FROM (SELECT * FROM accounts LIMIT 100) a LEFT JOIN `comments` c on c.account_id = a.id ORDER BY a.id However, whenever I need to do a sub-select of some sort, my intermediate level SQL knowledge feels like it's doing something wrong. Is there a more efficient, or faster, way to do this, or is this pretty good? By the way... This might be the absolute simplest way to do this, which I'm okay with as an answer. I'm simply trying to figure out if there IS another way to do this that could potentially compete with the above statement in terms of speed.

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• Is this method of static file serving safe in node.js? (potential security hole?)

  - by MikeC8

  I want to create the simplest node.js server to serve static files. Here's what I came up with: fs = require('fs'); server = require('http').createServer(function(req, res) { res.end(fs.readFileSync(__dirname + '/public/' + req.url)); }); server.listen(8080); Clearly this would map http://localhost:8080/index.html to project_dir/public/index.html, and similarly so for all other files. My one concern is that someone could abuse this to access files outside of project_dir/public. Something like this, for example: http://localhost:8080/../../sensitive_file.txt I tried this a little bit, and it wasn't working. But, it seems like my browser was removing the ".." itself. Which leads me to believe that someone could abuse my poor little node.js server. I know there are npm packages that do static file serving. But I'm actually curious to write my own here. So my questions are: Is this safe? If so, why? If not, why not? And, if further, if not, what is the "right" way to do this? My one constraint is I don't want to have to have an if clause for each possible file, I want the server to serve whatever files I throw in a directory.

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• Running unittest with typical test directory structure.

  - by Major Major

  The very common directory structure for even a simple Python module seems to be to separate the unit tests into their own test directory: new_project/ antigravity/ antigravity.py test/ test_antigravity.py setup.py etc. for example see this Python project howto. My question is simply What's the usual way of actually running the tests? I suspect this is obvious to everyone except me, but you can't just run python test_antigravity.py from the test directory as its import antigravity will fail as the module is not on the path. I know I could modify PYTHONPATH and other search path related tricks, but I can't believe that's the simplest way - it's fine if you're the developer but not realistic to expect your users to use if they just want to check the tests are passing. The other alternative is just to copy the test file into the other directory, but it seems a bit dumb and misses the point of having them in a separate directory to start with. So, if you had just downloaded the source to my new project how would you run the unit tests? I'd prefer an answer that would let me say to my users: "To run the unit tests do X."

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• Android lifecycle: Fill in data in activity in onStart() or onResume()?

  - by pjv

  Should you get data via a cursor and fill in the data on the screen, such as setting the window title, in onStart() or onResume()? onStart() would seem the logical place because after onStart() the Activity can already be displayed, albeit in the background. Notably I was having a problem with a managed dialog that made me rethink this. If the user rotates the screen while the dialog is still open, onCreateDialog() and onPrepareDialog() are called between onStart() and onResume(). If the dialog needs to be based on the data you need to have the data before onResume(). If I'm correct about onStart() then why does the Notepad example give a bad example by doing it in onResume()? See http://developer.android.com/resources/samples/NotePad/src/com/example/android/notepad/NoteEditor.html NoteEditor.java line 176 (title = mCursor.getString...). Also, what if my Activity launches another Actvity/Dialog that changes the data my cursor is tracking. Even in the simplest case, does that mean that I have to manually update my previous screen (a listener for a dialog in the main activity), or alternatively that I have to register a ContentObserver, since I'm no longer updating the data in onResume() (though I could update it twice of course)? I know it's a basic question but the dialog only recently, to my surprise, made me realize this.

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• How can I [simply] consume JSON Data in a Line of Business Web Application

  - by Atomiton

  I usually use JSON with jQuery to just return a string with html. However, I want to start to use Javascript objects in my code. What's the simplest way to get started using json objects on my page? Here's a sample Ajax call ( after $(document).ready( { ... }) of course: $('#btn').click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var out = $('#result'); $.ajax({ url: "CustomerServices.asmx/GetCustomersByInvoiceCount", success: function(msg) { // // Iterate through the json results and spit them out to a page? // }, data: "{ 'invoiceCount' : 100 }" }); }); My WebMethod: [WebMethod(Description="Gets customers with more than n invoices")] public List<Customer> GetCustomersByInvoiceCount(int? invoiceCount) { using (dbDataContext db = new dbDataContext()) { return db.Customers.Where(c => c.InvoiceCount >= invoiceCount); } } What gets returned: {"d":[{"__type":"Customer","Account":"1116317","Name":"SOME COMPANY","Address":"UNit 1 , 392 JOHN ST. ","LastTransaction":"\/Date(1268294400000)\/","HighestBalance":13922.34},{"__type":"Customer","Account":"1116318","Name":"ANOTHER COMPANY","Address":"UNIT #345 , 392 JOHN ST. ","LastTransaction":"\/Date(1265097600000)\/","HighestBalance":549.42}]} What I'd LIKE to know, is what are people generally doing with this returned json? Do you iterate through the properties and create an html table on the fly? Is there way to "bind" JSON data using a javascript version of reflection ( something like the .Net GridView Control ) Do you throw this returned data into a Javascript Object and then do something with it? An example of what I want to achieve is to have an plain ol' html page ( on a mobile device )with a list of a Salesperson's Customers. When one of those customers are clicked, the customer id gets sent to a webservice which retrieves the customer details that are relevant to a sales person. I know the SO talent pool is quite deep so I figured you all here would be able to guide in the right direction and give me a few ideas on the best way to approach this.

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• White-box testing in Javascript - how to deal with privacy?

  - by Max Shawabkeh

  I'm writing unit tests for a module in a small Javascript application. In order to keep the interface clean, some of the implementation details are closed over by an anonymous function (the usual JS pattern for privacy). However, while testing I need to access/mock/verify the private parts. Most of the tests I've written previously have been in Python, where there are no real private variables (members, identifiers, whatever you want to call them). One simply suggests privacy via a leading underscore for the users, and freely ignores it while testing the code. In statically typed OO languages I suppose one could make private members accessible to tests by converting them to be protected and subclassing the object to be tested. In Javascript, the latter doesn't apply, while the former seems like bad practice. I could always wall back to black box testing and simply check the final results. It's the simplest and cleanest approach, but unfortunately not really detailed enough for my needs. So, is there a standard way of keeping variables private while still retaining some backdoors for testing in Javascript?

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• Does the Eclipse editor have an equivalent of emacs's "align-regex"?

  - by rjray

  I've been using Eclipse pretty regularly for several years now, but I admit to not having explored all the esoterica it has to offer, particularly in the areas of what formatting features the editors offer. The main thing I miss from (X)emacs is the "align-regex" command, which let me take several lines into a region and then format them so that some common pattern in all lines was aligned. The simplest example of this is a series of variable assignments: var str = new String('aString'); var index = 0; var longCamelCaseObjectName = new LongNameObject(); After doing align-regex on "=", that would become: var str = new String('aString'); var index = 0; var longCamelCaseObjectName = new LongNameObject(); Now, you may have your own thoughts on stylistic (ab)use of white space and alignment, etc., but that's just an example (I'm actually trying to align a different kind of mess entirely). Can anyone tell me off-hand if there's an easy key-combo-shortcut for this in Eclipse? Or even a moderately-tricky one?

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• Floats not clearing properly in IE - how to fix?

  - by Stomped

  I've been banging my head for about an hour now, and I've distilled the problem down to the simplest example I can think of that shows the problem. The CSS/HTML <style> #T div { float: left; } ._b { clear: left; } </style> <div id='T'> <div class='_a'>*</div> <div class='_b'>*</div> <div class='_c'>*</div> <div class='_d'>*</div> </div> IE7 *** * FF, Chrome, Opera * *** The result in FF/Chrome/Opera is what I'd expect. There's no adding more mark-up to fix this and I'm absolutely befuddled on to how to make it work properly in IE. It gets really ugly when you have say, 3 all on a row to themselves and then 3 meant to be on the same line -- the extra 2 end up on the first row. I really hope someone knows the work-around for this.

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• How do I automatically update hundreds of images in an HTML page using jquery?

  - by Chris

  I have an HTML page where I want to refresh a lot of images every 30 seconds after the HTML page has been downloaded. I understand how to do this with Jquery and a single image, but I want to use about 200 custom urls to determine the current image to display for over 200 images. I need to find an efficient way to have jquery call the custom url associated with each image to download the url for the needed image as it changes, and then update the image in the page when it changes. Current hyperlink example to demonstrate the custom urls. <A href="/urlThatReturnsCurrentImageURL/1234/4567">link to url for image</A> Each custom url will return an image tag like this (or any other text that makes this simpler for jquery) <img src="/static/someImage.jpg"> What is the simplest way to have jquery call the custom url for each image to download the image url, image html, or some other text that jquery can use to download the right image every 30 seconds? Please keep in mind that I will have about 200 of these on a page.

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• optimization math computation (multiplication and summing)

  - by wiso

  Suppose you want to compute the sum of the square of the differences of items: $\sum_{i=1}^{N-1} (x_i - x_{i+1})^2$, the simplest code (the input is std::vector<double> xs, the ouput sum2) is: double sum2 = 0.; double prev = xs[0]; for (vector::const_iterator i = xs.begin() + 1; i != xs.end(); ++i) { sum2 += (prev - (*i)) * (prev - (*i)); // only 1 - with compiler optimization prev = (*i); } I hope that the compiler do the optimization in the comment above. If N is the length of xs you have N-1 multiplications and 2N-3 sums (sums means + or -). Now suppose you know this variable: sum = $x_1^2 + x_N^2 + 2 sum_{i=2}^{N-1} x_i^2$ Expanding the binomial square: $sum_i^{N-1} (x_i-x_{i+1})^2 = sum - 2\sum_{i=1}^{N-1} x_i x_{i+1}$ so the code becomes: double sum2 = 0.; double prev = xs[0]; for (vector::const_iterator i = xs.begin() + 1; i != xs.end(); ++i) { sum2 += (*i) * prev; prev = (*i); } sum2 = -sum2 * 2. + sum; Here I have N multiplications and N-1 additions. In my case N is about 100. Well, compiling with g++ -O2 I got no speed up (I try calling the inlined function 2M times), why?

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• UPDATE Table SET Field

  - by davlyo

  This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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• Javascript ( jQuery ) Error: SyntaxError: missing ) after argument list

  - by Obmerk Kronen

  I have the simplest function : jQuery(document).ajaxSuccess(function(e, xhr, settings) { var widget_id_base = '099_cf_samurai_widget'; if(settings.data.search('action=save-widget') != -1 && settings.data.search('id_base=' + widget_id_base) != -1) { // alert(\'yay!'\); my_function_chosen_099(); } }); function my_function_chosen_099(){ jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(); } which works just fine , but When I add the width Parameter like so : function my_function_chosen_k99(){ jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:'95%'); } it gives me an error of: Error: SyntaxError: missing ) after argument list Source File: http://localhost/my-path/js/o99.chosen.init.js?ver=k99 Line: 20, Column: 41 Source Code: jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:"95%"); .............................................| I have tried escaping: jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:\"95%"\); and even double jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:\\"95%"\\); and in my desperation, even jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen( width:"95%" ); I checked and rechecked the closing of brackets , and also tried with single quotes ' - but nothing . There appear to be a lot of similar questions here , but all I saw was escaping problems, ANd I have tried all that I know .. What is wrong here ?? I assume it is not a simple syntax error - or is it ? ( one which I can not find .. )

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• How can I synchronize one set of data with another?

  - by RenderIn

  I have an old database and a new database. The old records were converted to the new database recently. All our old applications continue to point to the old database, but the new applications point to the new database. Currently the old database is the only one being updated, so throughout the day the new database becomes out of sync. It is acceptable for the new database to be out of sync for a day, so until all our applications are pointed to the new database I just need to write a nightly cron job that will bring it up to date. I do not want to purge the new database and run the complete conversion script each night, as that would reduce uptime and would create a mess in our auditing of that table. I'm thinking about selecting all the data from the old database, converting it to the new database structure in memory, and then checking for the existence of each record before inserting it in the new database. After that's done, I'd select everything from the new database and check if it exists in the old one, and if not delete it. Is this the simplest way to do this?

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• Make All Types Constant by Default in C++

  - by Jon Purdy

  What is the simplest and least obtrusive way to indicate to the compiler, whether by means of compiler options, #defines, typedefs, or templates, that every time I say T, I really mean T const? I would prefer not to make use of an external preprocessor. Since I don't use the mutable keyword, that would be acceptable to repurpose to indicate mutable state. Potential (suboptimal) solutions so far: // I presume redefinition of keywords is implementation-defined or illegal. #define int int const #define ptr * const int i(0); int ptr j(&i); typedef int const Int; typedef int const* const Intp; Int i(0); Intp j(&i); template<class T> struct C { typedef T const type; typedef T const* const ptr; }; C<int>::type i(0); C<int>::ptr j(&i);

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• How to properly manage a complex DB structure?

  - by errr

  Let's say you have several systems using the same DB - each uses several schemes (sometimes same as the other). This structure of these schemes is somewhat very big and complicated. Now, how could you possibly manage such scheme structure? Obviously using some sort of "configuration" - the simplest would be SQL scripts, but a more reasonable solution would be XMLs which can be easily converted into SQL, or some other readable solution (for example, JPA's XMLs or Annotations). This solution though, causes a problem where you can't really tell if your configuration matches the structure of the DB schemes exactly. You can't say if those two are synchronized. Why wouldn't they? Well, in such big structure there are going to be many changes, and you won't always remember to save/commit your configuration after you've altered the schemes, or maybe you did save/commit it, but eventually didn't altered anything in the schemes and forgot to undo the changes to the configuration. More than that, another problem (not caused by the configuration, but isn't addressed by it either) is versioning. I don't see any good way of managing the DB schemes versions (say our last alteration makes 3 systems crash - not good, how to "rollback"?). And thoughts? thx.

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• How can I [simply] consume JSON Data to display to the page

  - by Atomiton

  I usually use JSON with jQuery to just return a string with html. However, I want to start to use Javascript objects in my code. What's the simplest way to get started using json objects on my page? Here's a sample Ajax call ( after $(document).ready( { ... }) of course: $('#btn').click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var out = $('#result'); $.ajax({ url: "CustomerServices.asmx/GetCustomersByInvoiceCount", success: function(msg) { // // Iterate through the json results and spit them out to a page? // }, data: "{ 'invoiceCount' : 100 }" }); }); My WebMethod: [WebMethod(Description="Gets customers with more than n invoices")] public List<Customer> GetCustomersByInvoiceCount(int? invoiceCount) { using (dbDataContext db = new dbDataContext()) { return db.Customers.Where(c => c.InvoiceCount >= invoiceCount); } } What gets returned: {"d":[{"__type":"Customer","Account":"1116317","Name":"SOME COMPANY","Address":"UNit 1 , 392 JOHN ST. ","LastTransaction":"\/Date(1268294400000)\/","HighestBalance":13922.34},{"__type":"Customer","Account":"1116318","Name":"ANOTHER COMPANY","Address":"UNIT #345 , 392 JOHN ST. ","LastTransaction":"\/Date(1265097600000)\/","HighestBalance":549.42}]} What I'd LIKE to know, is what are people generally doing with this returned json? Do you iterate through the properties and create an html table on the fly? Is there way to "bind" JSON data using a javascript version of reflection ( something like the .Net GridView Control ) Do you throw this returned data into a Javascript Object and then do something with it? An example of what I want to achieve is to have an plain ol' html page ( on a mobile device )with a list of a Salesperson's Customers. When one of those customers are clicked, the customer id gets sent to a webservice which retrieves the customer details that are relevant to a sales person. I know the SO talent pool is quite deep so I figured you all here would be able to guide in the right direction and give me a few ideas on the best way to approach this.

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• Merging rows with uniqueness constraints

  - by Flambino

  I've got a little time-tracking web app (implemented in Rails 3.2.8 & MySQL). The app has several users who add their time to specific tasks, on a given date. The system is set up so a user can only have 1 time entry (i.e. row) per task per date. I.e. if you add time twice on the same task and date, it'll add time to the existing row, rather than create a new one. Now I'm looking to merge 2 tasks. In the simplest terms, merging task ID 2 into task ID 1 would take this time | user_id | task_id | date ------+----------+----------+----------- 10 | 1 | 1 | 2012-10-29 15 | 2 | 1 | 2012-10-29 10 | 1 | 2 | 2012-10-29 5 | 3 | 2 | 2012-10-29 and change it into this time | user_id | task_id | date ------+----------+----------+----------- 20 | 1 | 1 | 2012-10-29 <-- time values merged (summed) 15 | 2 | 1 | 2012-10-29 <-- no change 5 | 3 | 1 | 2012-10-29 <-- task_id changed (no merging necessary) I.e. merge by summing the time values, where the given user_id/date/task combo would conflict. I figure I can use a unique constraint to do a ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE ... if I do an insert for every task_id=2 entry. But that seems pretty inelegant. I've also tried to figure a way to first update all the rows in task 1 with the summed-up times, but I can't quite figure that one out. Any ideas?

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• How do I access static variables in an enum class without a class instance?

  - by krick

  I have some code that processes fixed length data records. I've defined the record structures using java enums. I've boiled it down the the simplest example possible to illustrate the hoops that I currently have to jump through to get access to a static variable inside the enum. Is there a better way to get at this variable that I'm overlooking? If you compile and run the code, it just prints out "3". Note: the "code" tag doesn't seem to want to format this properly, but it should compile. class EnumTest { private interface RecordLayout { public int length(); } private enum RecordType1 implements RecordLayout { FIELD1 (2), FIELD2 (1), ; private int length; private RecordType1(int length) { this.length = length; } public int length() { return length; } public static int LEN = 3; } private static <E extends Enum<E> & RecordLayout> String parse(String data, Class<E> record) { // ugly hack to get at LEN... try { int len = record.getField("LEN").getInt(record); System.out.println(len); } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(e); } String results = ""; for (E field: record.getEnumConstants()) { // do some stuff with the fields } return results; } public static void main(String args[]) { parse("ABC", RecordType1.class); } }

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• DOS "pause" in Linux?

  - by user2930466

  Firstly, I'm REALLY new to programming. I've just started my first programming class two weeks ago, and I apologize if I sound newbish. My professor wants me to implement a "press any key to continue..." thing in my program. Basically when I run a program, he wants one line to come up [like printf("jfdskaljlfja");] then what would come up is "press any key to continue," before the next line runs. he told us that the DOS equivalent is system("pause"), but he wants us to do it linux. This is what my code looks like: #include <stdio.h> int main() { printf("This is the first line of this program); system("pause"); printf("This is the second line); } Except he wants us to do this in Linux, so system("pause") won't work in this case. Is there a way to have it do exactly what pause does, but in linux terms? again, sorry if i sound newbish. thank you so much! Also, he doesn't really care if the code is efficient or anything, as long as it runs. Again, i'm really new to programming, so the simplest answer would be much appreciated :)

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• CSS 100% height with padding/margin

  - by Toji

  This has been driving me crazy for a couple of days now, but in reality it's a problem that I've hit off and on for the last few years: With HTML/CSS how can I make an element that has a width and/or height that is 100% of it's parent element and still has proper padding or margins? By "proper" I mean that if my parent element is 200px tall and I specify 100% height with 5px padding I would expect that I should get a 190px high element with 5px "border" on all sides, nicely centered in the parent element. Now, I know that that's not how the standard box model specifies it should work (although I'd like to know why, exactly...), so the obvious answer doesn't work: #myDiv { width: 100% height: 100%; padding: 5px; } But it would seem to me that there must be SOME way of reliably producing this effect for a parent of arbitrary size. Does anyone know of a way of accomplishing this (seemingly simple) task? Oh, and for the record I'm not terribly interested in IE compatibility so that should (hopefully) make things a bit easier. EDIT: Since an example was asked for, here's the simplest one I can think of: <html style="height: 100%"> <body style="height: 100%"> <div style="background-color: black; height: 100%; padding: 25px"></div> </body> </html> The challenge is then to get the black box to show up with a 25 pixel padding on all edges without the page growing big enough to require scrollbars.

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• broken apache .htaccess (mod_rewrite)

  - by Tim

  Hey there, I'm running into an apache mod_rewrite configuration issue on one of our machines. Has anyone encountered / overcome anyone of these issues. URL1 ( http://www.uppereast.com ) is not being redirected to URL2 ( http://www.nyclocalliving.com ). This definitely worked in my test environment where a localhost address was rewritten to URL2 ( RewriteRule ^http://upe.localhost$ http://www.nyclocalliving.com ). I'm trying to get the all of the redirect rules working ( 2200 + ), but the 'http://www.nyclocalliving.com' site encounters a server error if I use more that 1000 or more rules. A) .htaccess file - I've tried the simplest approach which worked in a local environment 75 # Various rewrite rules. 76 <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> 77 RewriteEngine on 78 79 # BEGIN new URL Mapping rules 80 #RewriteRule ^http://www.uppereast.com/$ http://www.nyclocalliving.com ... 2307 #RewriteRule ^http://www.uppereast.com/zipcodechange.html$ http://www.nyclocalliving.com/zip-code-change fig. 1 B) /var/log/httpd/error_log file - there are these seg. fault errors when I enable the first rule ( line 80 ). no error logs otherwise. 1893 [Fri Sep 25 17:53:46 2009] [notice] Digest: generating secret for digest authentication ... 1894 [Fri Sep 25 17:53:46 2009] [notice] Digest: done 1895 [Fri Sep 25 17:53:46 2009] [notice] Apache/2.2.3 (CentOS) configured -- resuming normal operations 1896 [Fri Sep 25 17:53:47 2009] [notice] child pid 29774 exit signal Segmentation fault (11) 1897 [Fri Sep 25 17:53:47 2009] [notice] child pid 29775 exit signal Segmentation fault (11) 1898 [Fri Sep 25 17:53:47 2009] [notice] child pid 29776 exit signal Segmentation fault (11) 1899 [Fri Sep 25 17:53:47 2009] [notice] child pid 29777 exit signal Segmentation fault (11) 1900 [Fri Sep 25 17:53:47 2009] [notice] child pid 29778 exit signal Segmentation fault (11) 1901 [Fri Sep 25 17:53:47 2009] [notice] child pid 29779 exit signal Segmentation fault (11) fig. 2 C) Some more debug information from the shell; the mod_rewrite is turned on and this is the machine architecture 1 # apachectl -t -D DUMP_MODULES | more 2 Loaded Modules: 3 core_module (static) 4 ... 5 rewrite_module (shared) 1 # uname -a 2 Linux RegionalWeb 2.6.24-23-xen #1 SMP Mon Jan 26 03:09:12 UTC 2009 x86_64 x86_64 x86_64 GNU/Linux fig. 3 I looked into some previous posts (http://serverfault.com/questions/18744/htaccess-not-working-modrewrite), but didn't find a solution for this. I'm sure there's a small switch somewhere that I'm missing. Thanks in advance Tim

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• How can I simulate blocking RTMP over port 80 on Windows?

  - by Christian Nunciato

  It seems like this should be so simple, but since this isn't my area of expertise, I'm having a hell of a time figuring out how to do it. Basically, I have a Flash app and I'm connecting to a Flash Media Server to stream some content. The URL I'm using to do this, for example, looks like this: rtmp://someserver.com/some/path/mp3:somefile Everything works -- but that's sort of the problem. When I'm trying to do is simulate my users attempting to play back my media under more restrictive conditions than the ones I have here (i.e., none) -- namely being stuck behind firewalls or proxy servers that block access to RTMP streams. Flash, according to Adobe, is equipped to handle proxy servers and firewalls automatically, like so (from the docs): When you do not specify a port number in an RTMP address, Flash will attempt to connect to port 1935. If it fails it will then try to connect to port 443; if that fails, it will try port 80. [And if that fails, it will attempt to connect via RTMPT (i.e., HTTP tunneling) on port 80.] So no coding is required to access ports 1935, 443, or port 80 if you do not specify a port in the RTMP address. The problem I'm having is setting up a reliable environment in which to test that this behavior actually happens. I'm on a Windows machine, for example, so with Windows Firewall, I can block certain ports and protocols (1935, 443), but I don't want to block port 80, because the final fallback protocol (RTMPT) is supposed to run on port 80, and Windows Firewall only gives me enough granularity (as far as I know, anyway) to block "all outbound TCP traffic to remote port 80" -- that is, I can't, apparently, block "all outbound RTMP traffic to port 80" while leaving RTMPT traffic to port 80 unaffected. My understanding thus far is that I'll probably need to set up a proxy server to do this. Is this correct? Or is there a simpler way (on Win 7, at least) to filter out RTMP to 1935, RTMP to 443, RTMP to 80, but still allow RTMPT to 80 (where all four hostnames are identical)? And if I do have to set up a proxy server, what's the simplest way to go on Windows? I've set up WinProxy, which seems a bit janky but apparently works -- but then what I can't figure out is how to tell Windows to force all TCP traffic (including RTMP, RTMPT and HTTO) through this proxy server so I can turn around and reject the requests for RTMP. Any help would be hugely appreciated. This isn't my realm of expertise and I've alreasdy spent more time on it than I probably should. :)

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• Moving from single-site to multi-site Active Directory has broken OWA proxying

  - by messick

  Originally we had the following setup: OfficeExch01 has Mailbox Role and CAS Role OfficeExch01 is in the office. CoLoExch01 had just CAS Role. CoLoExch01 is internet facing and in a CoLo. Three AD domain controllers in the default site. Users could go to https://webmail.whatever.com/owa, get proxyed to OfficeExch01 and everything was great. Well, we recently setup a separate AD site and put a domain controller and the ColoExch01 server in the new site. I also made that remote DC be a Global Catalog. Now, users get the following error: Outlook Web Access is not available. If the problem continues, contact technical support for your organization and tell them the following: There is no Microsoft Exchange Client Access server that has the necessary configuration in the Active Directory site where the mailbox is stored. I also see event 41 errors in the logs: The Client Access server "https://webmail.xxxxxxx.com/owa" attempted to proxy Outlook Web Access traffic for mailbox "/o=XXXXX/ou=Exchange Administrative Group (FYDIBOHF23SPDLT)/cn=Recipients/cn=xxxxxxk". This failed because no Client Access server with an Outlook Web Access virtual directory configured for Kerberos authentication could be found in the Active Directory site of the mailbox. The simplest way to configure an Outlook Web Access virtual directory for Kerberos authentication is to set it to use Integrated Windows authentication by using the Set-OwaVirtualDirectory cmdlet in the Exchange Management Shell, or by using the Exchange Management Console. If you already have a Client Access server deployed in the target Active Directory site with an Outlook Web Access virtual directory configured for Kerberos authentication, the proxying Client Access server may not be finding that target Client Access server because it does not have an internalUrl parameter configured. You can configure the internalUrl parameter for the Outlook Web Access virtual directory on the Client Access server in the target Active Directory site by using the Set-OwaVirtualDirectory cmdlet. Looking this up I see a lot talk about ExternalURL and InternalURL settings. However, everything worked great until we made the new AD site. I also made sure the internal CAS server's /owa virtual directory is set to use Integrated Authentication. Is there something I need to do to allow Exchange to see that I've made these AD changes?

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