Search Results

Search found 10480 results on 420 pages for 'anonymous functions'.

Page 357/420 | < Previous Page | 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364  | Next Page >

  • How do I "rebind" the click event after unbind('click') ?

    - by Ben
    I have an anchor tag <a class="next">next</a> made into a "button". Sometimes, this tag needs to be hidden if there is nothing new to show. All works fine if I simply hide the button with .hide() and re-display it with .show(). But I wanted to uses .fadeIn() and .fadeOut() instead. The problem I'm having is that if the user clicks on the button during the fadeOut animation, it can cause problems with the logic I have running the show. The solution I found was to unbind the click event from the button after the original click function begins, and then re-bind it after the animation is complete. $('a.next').click(function() { $(this).unbind('click'); ... // calls some functions, one of which fades out the a.next if needed ... $(this).bind('click'); } the last part of the above example does not work. The click event is not actually re-bound to the anchor. does anyone know the correct way to accomplish this? I'm a self-taught jquery guy, so some of the higher level things like unbind() and bind() are over my head, and the jquery documentation isn't really simple enough for me to understand.

    Read the article

  • What's the most trivial function that would benfit from being computed on a GPU?

    - by hanDerPeder
    Hi. I'm just starting out learning OpenCL. I'm trying to get a feel for what performance gains to expect when moving functions/algorithms to the GPU. The most basic kernel given in most tutorials is a kernel that takes two arrays of numbers and sums the value at the corresponding indexes and adds them to a third array, like so: __kernel void add(__global float *a, __global float *b, __global float *answer) { int gid = get_global_id(0); answer[gid] = a[gid] + b[gid]; } __kernel void sub(__global float* n, __global float* answer) { int gid = get_global_id(0); answer[gid] = n[gid] - 2; } __kernel void ranksort(__global const float *a, __global float *answer) { int gid = get_global_id(0); int gSize = get_global_size(0); int x = 0; for(int i = 0; i < gSize; i++){ if(a[gid] > a[i]) x++; } answer[x] = a[gid]; } I am assuming that you could never justify computing this on the GPU, the memory transfer would out weight the time it would take computing this on the CPU by magnitudes (I might be wrong about this, hence this question). What I am wondering is what would be the most trivial example where you would expect significant speedup when using a OpenCL kernel instead of the CPU?

    Read the article

  • Zend, slow load, "waiting for response" for 20-80 seconds on local site

    - by Tony C.
    So I have several sites running under the same zend setup. All of the sites run pretty normally except one. Upon loading or reloading this one site, reguardless of which page your on (excluding the 404 page explanation later...) you get a serious pause before any content begins to download. Using firebugs net panel you can see that the first request which is www.(siteaddress).com.local you see a "waiting for response" bar (purple) that is going for anywhere from 20 to sometimes 80+ seconds and this isn't on a dev site, this is on a local site under localhost. What I've managed to figure out so far is that all the pages do this except my 404 page. The reason the 404 page doesn't succumb to this is because it uses a seperate controller (the error controller) and therefore bypasses much of the controller and functions the other parts of the site use. Using exit statements I've manged to figure out that the problem happens somewhere between my post dispatch and my main (top most) controllers Init function. If i exit in the main controllers init the page loads (then exits instantly, no wait). If i do the same in the pre or post dispatch the page waits the 20-80 seconds then exits. Is there a diagram or explanation somewhere or a way for me to find out what events fire inbetween the post dispatch and the main controllers init function? Or does anyone have any clue what might cause this? Any help would be greatly appreciated...

    Read the article

  • C++: Copy contructor: Use Getters or access member vars directly?

    - by cbrulak
    Have a simple container class: public Container { public: Container() {} Container(const Container& cont) //option 1 { SetMyString(cont.GetMyString()); } //OR Container(const Container& cont) //option 2 { m_str1 = cont.m_str1; } public string GetMyString() { return m_str1;} public void SetMyString(string str) { m_str1 = str;} private: string m_str1; } So, would you recommend this method or accessing the member variables directly? In the example, all code is inline, but in our real code there is no inline code. Update (29 Sept 09): Some of these answers are well written however they seem to get missing the point of this question: this is simple contrived example to discuss using getters/setters vs variables initializer lists or private validator functions are not really part of this question. I'm wondering if either design will make the code easier to maintain and expand. Some ppl are focusing on the string in this example however it is just an example, imagine it is a different object instead. I'm not concerned about performance. we're not programming on the PDP-11

    Read the article

  • Backbone.js routes not firing

    - by drale2k
    I have a Base Router where i define some functions that need to be run everywhere. Every Router extends this Router. Now my problem is, that none of my routes defined in this Base router, actually fire. Every other route in other Routers work fine. I have created a test route called 'a' which calls method 'b', which should fire an alert but nothing happens. Here is the code: (This is Coffeescript, don't pay attention to the indentation, it's fine in my file) class Etaxi.Routers.Base extends Backbone.Router routes: 'register' : 'registerDevice' 'a' : 'b' b: -> alert "a" initialize: -> @registerDevice() unless localStorage.device_id? @getGeolocation() registerDevice: -> @collection = new Etaxi.Collections.Devices() @collection.fetch() view = new Etaxi.Views.RegisterDevice(collection: @collection) $('#wrapper').append(view.render().el) getGeolocation: -> navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition (position) -> lat = position.coords.latitude lng = position.coords.longitude #$('#apphead').tap -> # alert 'Position: ' + lat + " ," + lng So when i visit '/register' or '/a' it should fire the appropriate method but it does not. I wonder if it has something to do with the fact that other Router extend from this Router? Would be wired but it is the only thing i can think of because every other Router works fine.

    Read the article

  • Is there anything on a local network or desktop environment that could effect JScript execution?

    - by uku
    I know this sounds odd. The JS on my project functions perfectly, except when the web site is accessed using computers at one specific company. To make things even more difficult, the JS fails only about 50% of the time when run from that company. The JS failure occurs with FireFox, Chrome, and IE. I have tested this myself using FF and Chrome on a thumb drive. The browsers on my thumb always display my project site perfectly, except when run from a computer on said company's network where they fail at the same rate as the installed browsers. My JS is using jQuery and making some Ajax calls. The Ajax calls are where the failure is occurring. To diagnose the problem I created a logging function for my Ajax calls and recorded success and failure. Over a one month period, there were only a handful of failures (about 1%) from all access points other than this company. Oddly enough, the Ajax calls in the logging function are not failing. There is nothing exotic there - Just Win XP SP3. I have never noticed any other unusual behavior from their network. The company is a division of a mega ISP and is on their corporate network. Any other suggestions for troubleshooting would be welcome.

    Read the article

  • No "redefinition of default parameter error" for class template member function?

    - by STingRaySC
    Why does the following give no compilation error?: // T.h template<class T> class X { public: void foo(int a = 42); }; // Main.cpp #include "T.h" #include <iostream> template<class T> void X<T>::foo(int a = 13) { std::cout << a << std::endl; } int main() { X<int> x; x.foo(); // prints 42 } It seems as though the 13 is just silently ignored by the compiler. Why is this? The cooky thing is that if the template declaration is in Main.cpp instead of a header file, I do indeed get the default parameter redefinition error. Now I know the compiler will complain about this if it were just an ordinary (non-template) function. What does the standard have to say about default parameters in class template member functions or function templates?

    Read the article

  • C header file won't compile with C, but will with C++.

    - by Leif Andersen
    I have the following chunk of a header file BKE_mesh.h: /* Connectivity data */ typedef struct IndexNode { struct IndexNode *next, *prev; int index; } IndexNode; void create_vert_face_map(ListBase **map, IndexNode **mem, const struct MFace *mface, const int totvert, const int totface); void create_vert_edge_map(ListBase **map, IndexNode **mem, const struct MEdge *medge, const int totvert, const int totedge); Note that the header file was prepared for the possibility of being used in a C++ file, as it had: #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif at the top of the file, and the needed finish at the bottom. But the class implementing it was written in C. Next, whenever I try to #include the header file, I get an odd error. If the file has a .cpp extension, it compiles just fine, no complaints whatsoever. However, if I do: #include "BKE_mesh.h" inside of a file with a .c extension, I get the following errors: expected ')' before '*' token for the two last functions, in specific, the variable: ListBase **map in both classes. (Note that earlier in the header file, it declared, but not defined ListBase). So, my question is: why is this valid C++ code, but not C code? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I open a JBoss vfs:/ URL?

    - by skiphoppy
    We are upgrading our application from JBoss 4 to JBoss 6. A couple of pieces of our application get delivered to the client in an unusual way: jars are looked up inside of our application and sent to the client from a servlet, where the client extracts them in order to run certain support functions. In JBoss 4 we would look these jars up with the classloader and find a jar:// URL which would be used to read the jar and send its contents to the client. In JBoss 6 when we perform the lookup we get a vfs:/ URL. I understand that this is from the org.jboss.vfs package. Unfortunately when I call openStream() on this URL and read from the stream, I immediately get an EOF (read() returns -1). What gives? Why can't I read the resource this URL refers to? I've tried trying to access the underlying VFS packages to open the file through the JBoss VFS API, but most of the API appears to be private, and I couldn't find a routine to translate from a vfs:/ URL to a VFS VirtualFile object, so I couldn't get anywhere. I can try to find the file on disk within JBoss, but that approach sounds very failure prone on upgrade. Our old approach was to use Java Web Start to distribute the jars to the client and then look them up within Java Web Start's cache to extract them. But that broke on every minor upgrade of Java because the layout of the cache changed.

    Read the article

  • Handling Apache Thrift list/map Return Types in C++

    - by initzero
    First off, I'll say I'm not the most competent C++ programmer, but I'm learning, and enjoying the power of Thrift. I've implemented a Thrift Service with some basic functions that return void, i32, and list. I'm using a Python client controlled by a Django web app to make RPC calls and it works pretty well. The generated code is pretty straight forward, except for list returns: namespace cpp Remote enum N_PROTO { N_TCP, N_UDP, N_ANY } service Rcon { i32 ping() i32 KillFlows() i32 RestartDispatch() i32 PrintActiveFlows() i32 PrintActiveListeners(1:i32 proto) list<string> ListAllFlows() } The generated signatures from Rcon.h: int32_t ping(); int32_t KillFlows(); int32_t RestartDispatch(); int32_t PrintActiveFlows(); int32_t PrintActiveListeners(const int32_t proto); int64_t ListenerBytesReceived(const int32_t id); void ListAllFlows(std::vector<std::string> & _return); As you see, the ListAllFlows() function generated takes a reference to a vector of strings. I guess I expect it to return a vector of strings as laid out in the .thrift description. I'm wondering if I am meant to provide the function a vector of strings to modify and then Thrift will handle returning it to my client despite the function returning void. I can find absolutely no resources or example usages of Thrift list< types in C++. Any guidance would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to report progress of a JavaScript function?

    - by LambyPie
    I have a JavaScript function which is quite long and performs a number of tasks, I would like to report progress to the user by updating the contents of a SPAN element with a message as I go. I tried adding document.getElementById('spnProgress').innerText = ... statements throughout the function code. However, whilst the function is executing the UI will not update and so you only ever see the last message written to the SPAN which is not very helpful. My current solution is to break the task up into a number of functions, at the end of each I set the SPAN message and then "trigger" the next one with a window.setTimeout call with a very short delay (say 10ms). This yields control and allows the browser to repaint the SPAN with the updated message before starting the next step. However I find this very messy and difficult to follow the code, I'm thinking there must be a better way. Does anyone have any suggestions? Is there any way to force the SPAN to repaint without having to leave the context of the function? Thanks

    Read the article

  • c++ specialized overload?

    - by acidzombie24
    -edit- i am trying to close the question. i solved the problem with boost::is_base_and_derived In my class i want to do two things. 1) Copy int, floats and other normal values 2) Copy structs that supply a special copy function (template T copyAs(); } the struct MUST NOT return int's unless i explicitly say ints. I do not want the programmer mistaking the mistake by doing int a = thatClass; -edit- someone mention classes dont return anything, i mean using the operator Type() overload. How do i create my copy operator in such a way i can copy both 1) ints, floats etc and the the struct restricted in the way i mention in 2). i tried doing template <class T2> T operator = (const T2& v); which would cover my ints, floats etc. But how would it differentiate from structs? so i wrote T operator = (const SomeGenericBase& v); The idea was the GenericBase would be unsed instead then i can do v.Whatever. But that backfires bc the functions i want wouldnt exist, unless i use virtual, but virtual templates dont exist. Also i would hate to use virtual I think the solution is to get rid of ints and have it convert to something that can do .as(). So i wrote something up but now i have the same problem, how does that differentiate ints and structs that have the .as() function template?

    Read the article

  • artisteer wp-theme metadata (date, category) lost

    - by Mattias Svensson
    I am going nuts over wordpress and artisteer. I am trying something that used to be pretty straightforward - turning on and off the display of date and post category for my posts on my blog page. I find this in content.php global $post; theme_post_wrapper( array( 'id' => theme_get_post_id(), 'class' => theme_get_post_class(), 'title' => theme_get_meta_option($post->ID, 'theme_show_page_title') ? get_the_title() : '', 'heading' => theme_get_option('theme_single_article_title_tag'), 'before' => theme_get_metadata_icons('date', 'header'), 'content' => theme_get_content() ) ); And the instruction says that all you got to do is insert or remove 'date' in the 'before' line. I've done it back and forth with my content files and nothing changes on the output. I can't find the actual code that prints it all, wordpress used to be so simple before everything was dug down 10 levels deep and you now have to look through millions of different functions to find the simplest things... As you can probably tell, I usually don't work with WP =) But this is on my table now and I haven't stayed up to date with WP for a couple of years... Any input as to where I can find the variables is appreciated... I had expected to at some point find 'posted at '.echo($date).' in category '.echo($category) or something at least remotely similar...

    Read the article

  • How do you prove a function works?

    - by glenn I.
    I've recently gotten the testing religion and have started primarily with unit testing. I code unit tests which illustrate that a function works under certain cases, specifically using the exact inputs I'm using. I may do a number of unit tests to exercise the function. Still, I haven't actually proved anything other than the function does what I expect it to do under the scenarios I've tested. There may be other inputs and scenarios I haven't thought of and thinking of edge cases is expensive, particularly on the margins. This is all not very satisfying to do me. When I start to think of having to come up with tests to satisfy branch and path coverage and then integration testing, the prospective permutations can become a little maddening. So, my question is, how can one prove (in the same vein of proving a theorem in mathematics) that a function works (and, in a perfect world, compose these 'proofs' into a proof that a system works)? Is there a certain area of testing that covers an approach where you seek to prove a system works by proving that all of its functions work? Does anybody outside of academia bother with an approach like this? Are there tools and techniques to help? I realize that my use of the word 'work' is not precise. I guess I mean that a function works when it does what some spec (written or implied) states that it should do and does nothing other than that. Note, I'm not a mathematician, just a programmer.

    Read the article

  • How to programmatically create a node in Drupal 8?

    - by chapka
    I'm designing a new module in Drupal 8. It's a long-term project that won't be going public for a few months at least, so I'm using it as a way to figure out what's new. In this module, I want to be able to programmatically create nodes. In Drupal 7, I would do this by creating the object, then calling "node_submit" and "node_save". These functions no longer exist in Drupal 8. Instead, according to the documentation, "Modules and scripts may programmatically submit nodes using the usual form API pattern." I'm at a loss. What does this mean? I've used Form API to create forms in Drupal 7, but I don't get what the docs are saying here. What I'm looking to do is programmatically create at least one and possibly multiple new nodes, based on information not taken directly from a user-presented form. I need to be able to: 1) Specify the content type 2) Specify the URL path 3) Set any other necessary variables that would previously have been handled by the now-obsolete node_object_prepare() 4) Commit the new node object I would prefer to be able to do this in an independent, highly abstracted function not tied to a specific block or form. So what am I missing?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to store static data in C# that will never changes

    - by Luke101
    I have a class that stores data in asp.net c# application that never changes. I really don't want to put this data in the database - I would like it to stay in the application. Here is my way to store data in the application: public class PostVoteTypeFunctions { private List<PostVoteType> postVotes = new List<PostVoteType>(); public PostVoteTypeFunctions() { PostVoteType upvote = new PostVoteType(); upvote.ID = 0; upvote.Name = "UpVote"; upvote.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.UpVote; postVotes.Add(upvote); PostVoteType downvote = new PostVoteType(); downvote.ID = 1; downvote.Name = "DownVote"; downvote.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.DownVote; postVotes.Add(downvote); PostVoteType selectanswer = new PostVoteType(); selectanswer.ID = 2; selectanswer.Name = "SelectAnswer"; selectanswer.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.SelectAnswer; postVotes.Add(selectanswer); PostVoteType favorite = new PostVoteType(); favorite.ID = 3; favorite.Name = "Favorite"; favorite.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.Favorite; postVotes.Add(favorite); PostVoteType offensive = new PostVoteType(); offensive.ID = 4; offensive.Name = "Offensive"; offensive.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.Offensive; postVotes.Add(offensive); PostVoteType spam = new PostVoteType(); spam.ID = 0; spam.Name = "Spam"; spam.PointValue = PostVotePointValue.Spam; postVotes.Add(spam); } } When the constructor is called the code above is ran. I have some functions that can query the data above too. But is this the best way to store information in asp.net? if not what would you recommend?

    Read the article

  • A generic C++ library that provides QtConcurrent functionality?

    - by Lucas
    QtConcurrent is awesome. I'll let the Qt docs speak for themselves: QtConcurrent includes functional programming style APIs for parallel list processing, including a MapReduce and FilterReduce implementation for shared-memory (non-distributed) systems, and classes for managing asynchronous computations in GUI applications. For instance, you give QtConcurrent::map() an iterable sequence and a function that accepts items of the type stored in the sequence, and that function is applied to all the items in the collection. This is done in a multi-threaded manner, with a thread pool equal to the number of logical CPU's on the system. There are plenty of other function in QtConcurrent, like filter(), filteredReduced() etc. The standard CompSci map/reduce functions and the like. I'm totally in love with this, but I'm starting work on an OSS project that will not be using the Qt framework. It's a library, and I don't want to force others to depend on such a large framework like Qt. I'm trying to keep external dependencies to a minimum (it's the decent thing to do). I'm looking for a generic C++ framework that provides me with the same/similar high-level primitives that QtConcurrent does. AFAIK boost has nothing like this (I may be wrong though). boost::thread is very low-level compared to what I'm looking for. I know C# has something very similar with their Parallel Extensions so I know this isn't a Qt-only idea. What do you suggest I use?

    Read the article

  • Loop elements with Jquery and call Omniture s.tl() function to track

    - by ilovewebdev
    Hi, i have a page with a list of items. Each item has a print now link (a.printMe) to print each item. At the end of the list, there's a print all link (a.printAll) to print all items. I want to track number of times an item was printed. If a.printAll link is clicked, then i will send all the item's tracking value to Omniture. I added tracking string into individual item's a.printMe href attribute and track with the following functions: $('a.printMe').click(function() { var value = $(this).attr('href'); track(value); }); $('a.printAll').click(function() { $('a.printMe').each(function() { this.click(); }); // works in IE only. IE 6-8 }); function track(value) { var s = s_gi('account'); s.prop10 = value; s.linkTrackVars = 'prop10'; s.tl(true, 'o'); } The problem is only the last item (in the list) has its value sent to Omniture when i clicked on a.printAll. I finally got the above to work in IE but not Firefox. Anyone encounter this before?

    Read the article

  • Override java methods without affecting parent behaviour

    - by Timmmm
    suppose I have this classes (sorry it's kind of hard to think of a simple example here; I don't want any "why would you want to do that?" answers!): class Squarer { public void setValue(int v) { mV = v; } public int getValue() { return mV; } private int mV; public void square() { setValue(getValue() * getValue()); } } class OnlyOddInputsSquarer extends Squarer { @Override public void setValue(int v) { if (v % 2 == 0) { print("Sorry, this class only lets you square odd numbers!") return; } super.setValue(v); } } auto s = new OnlyOddInputsSquarer(); s.setValue(3); s.square(); This won't work. When Squarer.square() calls setValue(), it will go to OnlyOddInputsSquarer.setValue() which will reject all its values (since all squares are even). Is there any way I can override setValue() so that all the functions in Squarer still use the method defined there? PS: Sorry, java doesn't have an auto keyword you haven't heard about! Wishful thinking on my part.

    Read the article

  • which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

    - by PaulH
    I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

    Read the article

  • Rationale of C# iterators design (comparing to C++)

    - by macias
    I found similar topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56347/iterators-in-c-stl-vs-java-is-there-a-conceptual-difference Which basically deals with Java iterator (which is similar to C#) being unable to going backward. So here I would like to focus on limits -- in C++ iterator does not know its limit, you have by yourself compare the given iterator with the limit. In C# iterator knows more -- you can tell without comparing to any external reference, if the iterator is valid or not. I prefer C++ way, because once having iterator you can set any iterator as a limit. In other words if you would like to get only few elements instead of entire collection, you don't have to alter the iterator (in C++). For me it is more "pure" (clear). But of course MS knew this and C++ while designing C#. So what are the advantages of C# way? Which approach is more powerful (which leads to more elegant functions based on iterators). What do I miss? If you have thoughts on C# vs. C++ iterators design other than their limits (boundaries), please also answer. Note: (just in case) please, keep the discussion strictly technical. No C++/C# flamewar.

    Read the article

  • Flex 3 (Action Script): How to access a function from a loaded swf-file ?

    - by Trantec
    Hi, i load in ActionScript a swf file. So far no Problem, but I didn't found a way to access one of it's functions, the best thing would be if I could access the main function in the mxml part of the swf. Here is the code of the main-mxml file that belongs to the swf that should load and access another swf: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" initialize="basket();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.SWFLoader; private function basket(): void { var swfLoader: SWFLoader = new SWFLoader(); swfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handleSWFLoaded ); try { swfLoader.load( "../../data/InternalSWF.swf" ); } catch (error: Error) { trace( "Couldn't load file !" ); } } private function handleSWFLoaded( event: Event ): void { var swfApp:* = event.target.content; // This both ways don't work... //if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) { // var initApp:Function = (swfApp["initApp"] as Function); // initApp(); //} // swfApp.initApp(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Text id="output" width="100%" textAlign="center" /> </mx:Application> The if-Statement "if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) {" is never true and the call "swfApp.initApp()" says that this function does not exist. In the original version I added event listeners for HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR and SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR. But except for HTTP_STATUS = 0 none of them are called. Is the whole idea of how i try to do this wrong ?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to wrap an asynchronous event and its callback in a function that returns a boolean?

    - by Rob Flaherty
    I'm trying to write a simple test that creates an image element, checks the image attributes, and then returns true/false. The problem is that using the onload event makes the test asynchronous. On it own this isn't a problem (using a callback as I've done in the code below is easy), but what I can't figure out is how to encapsulate this into a single function that returns a boolean. I've tried various combinations of closures, recursion, and self-executing functions but have had no luck. So my question: am I being dense and overlooking something simple, or is this in fact not possible, because, no matter what, I'm still trying to wrap an asynchronous function in synchronous expectations? Here's the code: var supportsImage = function(callback) { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function() { //Check attributes and pass true or false to callback callback(true); }; img.src = 'data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAAD/ACwAAAAAAQABAAACADs='; }; supportsImage(function(status){ console.log(status); }); To be clear, what I want is to be able to wrap this in something such that it can be used like: if (supportsImage) { //Do some crazy stuff } Thanks! (Btw, I know there are a ton of SO questions regarding confusion about synchronous vs. asynchronous. Apologies if this can be reduced to something previously answered.)

    Read the article

  • problem with converting simple code from Winform to silverlight app.

    - by Sara
    Hi. I have this code for window form application and I have been attempting to convert it to a Silverlight application but it does not work!. There is a Textbox and I attached KeyDown event handler to it. when the user press the arrow key ( left or right) while the focus on the textbox, it will write . or -. When it is window form i used e.KeyCode and Keys.Right and its works great but when it is silverlight I used e.Key and key.Right and the program doesn't work good because the arrows do the 2 functions moving and write ./-. How I can work this out in Silverlight? (My English not good) The code ( window form): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left || e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } (and Silverlight): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.Key == Key.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } I don't understand, is there huge different effect between using Keycode/Keys and Key/Key or because something else?

    Read the article

  • Setting up a view to draw to in Objective-C (iPhone) ?

    - by Johannes Jensen
    Okay, so, I'm all new to iPhone and stuff, but I'm not even at programming, I have many years of experience with ActionScript 2.0 and 3.0, I want to set up a view, that I can also pass variables to. The view is gonna draw everything with Quartz. I tried to make another game where I tried to add a pointer to a NSMutableArray to the view class, but it didn't work cause I didn't know how to store an actual class. I wanted to do like: [myView setNeedsDisplay]; but I had to do [(View*)self.view setNeedsDisplay]; didn't really work out in the end... Okay, so now I got: - (void) viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; viewClass = [[View class] retain]; gameView = [[[viewClass alloc] initWithFrame: CGRectZero] retain]; [gameView setNeedsDisplay]; } This is in my drawInContext:context, which is fired by drawRect: Also, my drawRect does [self drawInContext: UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext()]; CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor(context, [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]); CGContextSetLineWidth(context, 3.0); CGContextSetLineCap(context, kCGLineCapRound); CGContextSetLineJoin(context, kCGLineJoinRound); CGMutablePathRef aPath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(aPath, nil, 5, 5); CGPathAddLineToPoint(aPath, nil, 45, 43); CGContextAddPath(context, aPath); CGContextStrokePath(context); Nothing happens. Help? Oh yeah, I get this error: : invalid context for each time I use those functions. :[ Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364  | Next Page >