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  • how to get obj2.name via obj1.categories(), thanks (gae python)

    - by zjm1126
    i using google-app-engine webapp ,code is : class Post(db.Model): title = db.StringProperty(required=True) def categories(self): return (x.category for x in self.postcategory_set) class Category(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class PostCategory(db.Model): post = db.ReferenceProperty(Post) category = db.ReferenceProperty(Category) class sss(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): obj1 = Post(title='hhaa') #obj1.title = 'haha' obj1.put() obj2 = Category() obj2.name='haha-kao' obj2.put() obj3=PostCategory() obj3.post=obj1 obj3.category=obj2 obj3.put() self.response.out.write(obj1.categories().get().name) the error is : Traceback (most recent call last): File "D:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\ext\webapp\__init__.py", line 511, in __call__ handler.get(*groups) File "D:\zjm_code\helloworld\a.py", line 131, in get self.response.out.write(obj1.categories().get().name) AttributeError: 'generator' object has no attribute 'get' so how to get the obj2.name via obj1's method thanks

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  • How to disable mod_security2 rule (false positive) for one domain on centos 5

    - by nicholas.alipaz
    Hi I have mod_security enabled on a centos5 server and one of the rules is keeping a user from posting some text on a form. The text is legitimate but it has the words 'create' and an html <table> tag later in it so it is causing a false positive. The error I am receiving is below: [Sun Apr 25 20:36:53 2010] [error] [client 76.171.171.xxx] ModSecurity: Access denied with code 500 (phase 2). Pattern match "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" at ARGS:body. [file "/usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf"] [line "352"] [id "300015"] [rev "1"] [msg "Generic SQL injection protection"] [severity "CRITICAL"] [hostname "www.mysite.com"] [uri "/node/181/edit"] [unique_id "@TaVDEWnlusAABQv9@oAAAAD"] and here is /usr/local/apache/conf/modsec2.user.conf (line 352) #Generic SQL sigs SecRule ARGS "((alter|create|drop)[[:space:]]+(column|database|procedure|table)|delete[[:space:]]+from|update.+set.+=)" "id:1,rev:1,severity:2,msg:'Generic SQL injection protection'" The questions I have are: What should I do to "whitelist" or allow this rule to get through? What file do I create and where? How should I alter this rule? Can I set it to only be allowed for the one domain, since it is the only one having the issue on this dedicated server or is there a better way to exclude table tags perhaps? Thanks guys

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  • Problem with multiple forms on one page

    - by Jon
    I have two forms on a web page. The first is not an actual form since this is a .NET based site. So instead I have the standard input fields, along with asp:Button PostBackURL="http:/www...". One of the fields is "email". That works fine. Then I have an XSLT file with another form, and am using Javascript (via this.form.action, .method, etc) to post that form. Besides that it has the same fields as the form above. The problem is that when someone submits the second form, the script at the PostBackURL returns an error because the "email" field appears empty. So it seems as though the form is submitting the "email" field form the top form instead of the current one. I thought maybe the wrong form is being submitted, but if I remove the "email" field from the top form, and then submit the bottom one, it works fine. Any ideas on how to fix this? Thanks.

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  • javascript to launch only ONE window for a Java applet with a given URL

    - by Jonathan Dugan
    I need a javascript solution to launch only one window, with a Java Applet in it, for a given URL. I found a solution posted here on Stack Overflow - here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/528671/javascript-window-open-only-if-the-window-does-not-already-exist But it doesn't seem to work .. I get Error: launchApplication.winrefs is undefined Line: 29 I can't seem to post the code in this little box and make it look right below, so the code (my working code, plus the solution from above) is here: http://pastie.org/833879 Where is the error? As I understand it, the hash or array or whatever I use to store the called references to the windows opened this way will be lost if the calling window is closed. Is there a way to make this work even if the calling window is closed and reopened? To basically ask the browser: "Do you have a window open with the following URL?" and if so, "What is the reference to that window?" (so I can raise it).

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  • Oauth callback problem

    - by yogsma
    I am using OAuth with google data api. We have a portal only for authorized users. So when users are logged in and if they are accessing calendar page, they will be asked if they want to sync their calendars with google calendar. If yes, they will be redirected for authentication. Once user has granted access, google appends OAuth_Token to the callback URL. the callback URL was that of the page of calendar in portal. This url has its query string options encrypted. But when the redirection happens , it takes back to login page of url. url is like http://aaa.xyz.com/(encrypted part of query string) and after oauth_token is authorized, this url becomes http://aaa.xyz.com/(encrypted part of query string)&oauth_token. So the user sees the login page after redirection instead of original page. How should I handle this in code.

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  • gae error when i login.

    - by zjm1126
    i am using http://code.google.com/p/gaema/source/browse/#hg/demos/webapp, and this is my traceback: Traceback (most recent call last): File "D:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\ext\webapp\__init__.py", line 510, in __call__ handler.get(*groups) File "D:\gaema\demos\webapp\main.py", line 31, in get google_auth.get_authenticated_user(self._on_auth) File "D:\gaema\demos\webapp\gaema\auth.py", line 641, in get_authenticated_user OpenIdMixin.get_authenticated_user(self, callback) File "D:\gaema\demos\webapp\gaema\auth.py", line 83, in get_authenticated_user url = self._OPENID_ENDPOINT + "?" + urllib.urlencode(args) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib.py", line 1250, in urlencode v = quote_plus(str(v)) UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode characters in position 0-1: ordinal not in range(128) how to do this thanks ??????????????? ???????? ??????????? ?????????????? ???????

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  • Translate a webpage in PHP

    - by Rob
    I'm looking to translate a webpage in PHP 5 so I can save the translation and make it easily accessible via mydomain.com/lang/fr/category/article.html rather than users having to go through google translate. I've found various easy ways to translate text via CURL, however what i'd really like to be able to do is translate an entire webpage but obviously ignore the tags. The problem is that Google Translate messes up all the HTML tags, class names etc Does anyone know of a php class that can translate an entire webpage whilst ignoring the tags? I'm guessing it may be possible via advanced regular expressions or something like that, but i'm not sure. I can't just curl Google's response as i'll have all the extra JS that they put in. Any ideas?

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  • One-sided rounded buttons in Silverlight

    - by xarzu
    I want to make a collection of buttons in silverlight. They are in a collection that goes from left to right and the buttons are lined up so that they are touching on the left and right sides. Here is the rub: The collection has rounded corners but the buttons in between the end buttons in the collection do not have rounded ends. So basically, for the buttons on the far left and right side of the collection, they have to be somewhat special because they have to have one flat vertical side and one rounded side. Is this possible to do in silverlight without resorting to making a special bitmap for the end buttons? One idea I have is somehow declare a canvas with a bitmap background and then have overlapping ellipse and rectangle <Canvas Height="100" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="189,381,0,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="200" Background="Black"> <Rectangle Fill="#FFF4F4F5" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Stroke="Black" Width="58" Height="61" Canvas.Left="7" Canvas.Top="16" /> <Ellipse Fill="#FFF4F4F5" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Stroke="White" Width="65" StrokeThickness="0" Height="59" Canvas.Left="31" Canvas.Top="17" /> </Canvas>

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  • Sending the variable's content to my mailbox in Python?

    - by brilliant
    I have asked this question here about a Python command that fetches a URL of a web page and stores it in a variable. The first thing that I wanted to know then was whether or not the variable in this code contains the HTML code of a web-page: from google.appengine.api import urlfetch url = "http://www.google.com/" result = urlfetch.fetch(url) if result.status_code == 200: doSomethingWithResult(result.content) The answer that I received was "yes", i.e. the variable "result" in the code did contain the HTML code of a web page, and the programmer who was answering said that I needed to "check the Content-Type header and verify that it's either text/html or application/xhtml+xml". I've looked through several Python tutorials, but couldn't find anything about headers. So my question is where is this Content-Type header located and how can I check it? Could I send the content of that variable directly to my mailbox? Here is where I got this code. It's on Google App Engines.

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  • Working around "one executable per project" in Visual C# for many small test programs

    - by Kevin Ivarsen
    When working with Visual Studio in general (or Visual C# Express in my particular case), it looks like each project can be configured to produce only one output - e.g. a single executable or a library. I'm working on a project that consists of a shared library and a few application, and I already have one project in my solution for each of those. However, during development I find it useful to write small example programs that can run one small subsystem in isolation (at a level that doesn't belong in the unit tests). Is there a good way to handle this in Visual Studio? I'd like to avoid adding several dozen separate projects to my solution for each small test program I write, especially when these programs will typically be less than 100 lines of code. I'm hoping to find something that lets me continue to work in Visual Studio and use its build system (rather than moving to something like NAnt). I could foresee the answer being something like: A way of setting this up in Visual Studio that I haven't found yet A GUI like NUnit's graphical runner that searches an assembly for classes with defined Main() functions that you can select and run A command line tool that lets you specify an assembly and a class with a Main function to run

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  • One big executable or many small DLL's?

    - by Patrick
    Over the years my application has grown from 1MB to 25MB and I expect it to grow further to 40, 50 MB. I don't use DLL's, but put everything in this one big executable. Having one big executable has certain advantages: Installing my application at the customer is really: copy and run. Upgrades can be easily zipped and sent to the customer There is no risk of having conflicting DLL's (where the customer has version X of the EXE, but version Y of the DLL) The big disadvantage of the big EXE is that linking times seem to grow exponentially. Additional problem is that a part of the code (let's say about 40%) is shared with another application. Again, the advantages are that: There is no risk on having a mix of incorrect DLL versions Every developer can make changes on the common code which speeds up developments. But again, this has a serious impact on compilation times (everyone compiles the common code again on his PC) and on linking times. The question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2387908/grouping-dlls-for-use-in-executable mentions the possibility of mixing DLL's in one executable, but it looks like this still requires you to link all functions manually in your application (using LoadLibrary, GetProcAddress, ...). What is your opinion on executable sizes, the use of DLL's and the best 'balance' between easy deployment and easy/fast development?

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  • details in one Row without any redundancy in the CATID

    - by alkitbi
    $query1 = "select * from linkat_link where emailuser = '$email2' or linkname ='$domain_name2' ORDER BY date desc LIMIT $From,$PageNO"; id   catid      discription            price ------------------------------------ 1         1     domain name     100 2         1      book                  50 3        2      hosting               20 4        2      myservice           20 in this script i have one problem , if i have an ID for Each Cantegory , i have some duplicated CATID which has different content but shares the same CATID, i need to make any duplicated CATID to show in one , and all the discription will be in the same line (Cell) on the same row . So Each CatID will have all the details in one Row without any redundancy in the CATID

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  • Elegantly determine if more than one boolean is "true"

    - by Ola Tuvesson
    I have a set of five boolean values. If more than one of these are true I want to excecute a particular function. What is the most elegant way you can think of that would allow me to check this condition in a single if() statement? Target language is C# but I'm interested in solutions in other languages as well (as long as we're not talking about specific built-in functions). One interesting option is to store the booleans in a byte, do a right shift and compare with the original byte. Something like if(myByte && (myByte 1)) But this would require converting the separate booleans to a byte (via a bitArray?) and that seems a bit (pun intended) clumsy... [edit]Sorry, that should have been if(myByte & (myByte - 1)) [/edit] Note: This is of course very close to the classical "population count", "sideways addition" or "Hamming weight" programming problem - but not quite the same. I don't need to know how many of the bits are set, only if it is more than one. My hope is that there is a much simpler way to accomplish this.

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  • saving appengine mail from spam filters

    - by Fh
    One of my clients uses Trend Micro InterScan Messaging Security to protect their internal mail services. Suddenly InterScan decided to filter out all messages coming from Google App Engine. Unfortunately they haven't been able to whitelist the sender address as each e-mail gets a different one. For example, *3ckihSOVMMHlZHSL.JSMMHlZHSL.JS*@apphosting.bounces.google.com, with everything before the @ being variable. Update I'm including this screenshot of how Interscan sees the incoming e-mail. Notice that all senders are different: If I look into the e-mail headers, the apphosting domain appears inside the Return-Path field: Return-Path: <[email protected].google.com> The "From" field looks ok. It says what I set it to say, but the spam filter only looks at the Return-Path. My client sysadmin doesn't want to whitelist the whole apphosting domain, as it wouldn't be only whitelisting my application. How could I bypass this e-mail filters if I can't get an unique sender? Thanks,

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  • Where to get 1440 free cron jobs a day?

    - by Nok Imchen
    I'm making a program for my own use. In this program, I need to set up cron job. The cron job should run every minute (24 hr * 60 mins = 1440 times). Thus, I'll need to set up a cron job with a frequency of 1 minute. I think Google App Engine gives free cron job. But I'm very new to it. I downloaded the java SDK and read the document but understood nothing :( So, I can't use Google App Engine. Is here any other free service like Google app engine which but with easier inferface??? All I want is a cron job with 1 minute frequency Please help/suggest me... Thank you

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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  • Packing an exe + dll into one executable (not .NET)

    - by Bluebird75
    Hi, Is anybody aware of a program that can pack several DLL and a .EXE into one executable. I am not talking about .NET case here, I am talking about general DLLs, some of which I generate in C++, some of others are external DLL I have no control over. My specific case is a python program packaged with py2exe, where I would like to "hide" the other DLL by packing them. The question is general enough though. The things that had a look at: ILMerge: specific to .NET NETZ: specific to .NET UPX: does DLL compression but not multiple DLL + EXE packing FileJoiner: Almost got it. It can pack executable + anything into one exe but when opened, it will launch the default opener for every file that was packed. So, if the user user dlldepend installed, it will launch it (becaues that's the default dll opener). Maybe that's not possible ? Summary of the answers: DLL opening is managed by the OS, so packing DLL into executable means that at some point, they need to be extracted to a place where the OS can find them. No magic bullet. So, what I want is not possible. Unless... We change something in the OS. Thanks Conrad for pointing me to ThinInstall, which virtualise the application and the OS loading mechanism. With ThinInstall, it is possible to pack everything in one exe (DLL, registry settings, ...).

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  • How to make an NSURL that contains a | (pipe character)?

    - by aks
    Hi all, I am trying to access google maps' forward geocoding service from my iphone app. When i try to make an NSURL from a string with a pipe in it I just get a nil pointer. NSURL *searchURL = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://maps.google.com/maps/api/geocode/json?address=6th+and+pine&bounds=37.331689,-122.030731|37.331689,-122.030731&sensor=false"]; I dont see any other way in the google api to send bounds coordinates with out a pipe. Any ideas about how I can do this?

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  • Incrementing value by one over a lot of rows

    - by Andy Gee
    Edit: I think the answer to my question lies in the ability to set user defined variables in MySQL through PHP - the answer by Multifarious has pointed me in this direction Currently I have a script to cycle over 10M records, it's very slow and it goes like this: I first get a block of 1000 results in an array similar to this: $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>46732, 'db_id'=>5532); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>12324, 'db_id'=>1234); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>45235, 'db_id'=>8345); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>75543, 'db_id'=>2562); I then cycle through them one by one and update the record $mult = count($matches)*2; foreach($matches as $m) { $rank++; $score = (($m[quality_rank] + $rank)/($mult))*100; $s = "UPDATE `packages_sorted` SET `price_rank` = '".$rank."', `deal_score` = '".$score."' WHERE `db_id` = '".$m[db_id]."' LIMIT 1"; } It seems like this is a very slow way of doing it but I can't find another way to increment the field price_rank by one each time. Can anyone suggest a better method. Note: Although I wouldn't usually store this kind of value in a database I really do need on this occasion for comparison search queries later on in the project. Any help would be kindly appreciated :)

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  • .net printing multiple reports in one document (architecture question)

    - by LawsonM
    I understand how to print a single document via the PrintDocument class. However, I want to print multiple reports in one document. Each "report" will consist of charts, tables, etc. I want to have two reports per page. I've studied the few examples I can find on how to combine multiple documents into one; however, they always seem to work by creating a collection of objects (e.g. customer or order) that are then iterated over and drawn in the OnPrintPage method. My problem and hence the "architecture" question is that I don't want to cache the objects required to produce the report since they are very large and memory intensive. I'd simply like the resulting "report". One thought I had was to print the report to a metafile, cache that instead in a "MultiplePrintDocument" class and then position those images appropriately two to a page in the OnPrintPage method. I think this would be a lot more efficient and scalable in my case. But I'm not a professional programmer and can't figure out if I'm barking up the wrong tree here. I think the Graphics.BeginContainer and Graphics.Save methods might be relevant, but can't figure out how to implement or if there is a better way. Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.

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  • In MySql Stored Procedure updating more than one time

    - by Both FM
    In MySql UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=92 AND `ItemID`=28; It successfully update only one row , where inventoryID = 92 and itemID=28 , the following message displayed. 1 row(s) affected when I put this on stored procedure, as follow CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `Sample`(IN itemId INT, IN itemQnty DOUBLE, IN invID INT) BEGIN DECLARE crntQnty DOUBLE; DECLARE nwQnty DOUBLE; SET crntQnty=(SELECT `QuantityOnHand` FROM `item` WHERE id=itemId); SET nwQnty=itemQnty+crntQnty; UPDATE `item` SET `QuantityOnHand`=nwQnty WHERE `Id`=itemId; UPDATE `inventoryentry` SET `Status` = 1 WHERE `InventoryID`=invID AND `ItemID`=itemId; END$$ calling stored procedures CALL Sample(28,10,92) It update all the status = 1 in inventoryentry against InventoryID (i.e. 92) ignoring ItemID, instead of updating only one row. The following message displayed! 5 row(s) affected Why Stored procedure ignoring itemID in update statement ? or Why Stored procedure updating more than one time? But without Stored procedure it working fine.

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  • Modeling many-to-one with constraints?

    - by Greg Beech
    I'm attempting to create a database model for movie classifications, where each movie could have a single classification from each of one of multiple rating systems (e.g. BBFC, MPAA). This is the current design, with all implied PKs and FKs: TABLE Movie ( MovieId INT ) TABLE ClassificationSystem ( ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE Classification ( ClassificationId INT, ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE MovieClassification ( MovieId INT, ClassificationId INT, Advice NVARCHAR(250) -- description of why the classification was given ) The problem is with the MovieClassification table whose constraints would allow multiple classifications from the same system, whereas it should ideally only permit either zero or one classifications from a given system. Is there any reasonable way to restructure this so that a movie having exactly zero or one classifications from any given system is enforced by database constraints, given the following requirements? Do not duplicate information that could be looked up (i.e. duplicating ClassificationSystemId in the MovieClassification table is not a good solution because this could get out of sync with the value in the Classification table) Remain extensible to multiple classification systems (i.e. a new classification system does not require any changes to the table structure)? Note also the Advice column - each mapping of a movie to a classification needs to have a textual description of why that classification was given to that movie. Any design would need to support this.

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  • How to avoid notice in php when one of the conditions is not true

    - by user225269
    I've notice that when one of the two conditions in a php if statement is not true. You get an undefined index notice for the statement that is not true. And the result in my case is a distorted web page. For example, this code: <?php session_start(); if (!isset($_SESSION['loginAdmin']) && ($_SESSION['loginAdmin'] != '')) { header ("Location: loginam.php"); } else { include('head2.php'); } if (!isset($_SESSION['login']) && ($_SESSION['login'] != '')) { header ("Location: login.php"); } else { include('head3.php'); } ?> If one of the if statements is not true. The one that is not true will give you a notice that it is undefined. In my case it says that the session 'login' is not defined. If session 'LoginAdmin' is used. What can you recommend that I would do in order to avoid these undefined index notice.

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  • Send 404 when requesting index.php through .htaccess?

    - by Daniel
    I've recently refactored an existing CodeIgniter application to use url segments instead of query strings, and I'm using a rewriterule in htaccess to rewrite stuff to index.php: RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php/$1 [L] My problem right now is that a lot of this website's pages are indexed by google with a link to index.php. Since I made the change to use url segments instead, I don't care about these google results anymore and I want to send a 404 (no need to use 301 Move permanently, there have been enough changes, it'll just have to recrawl everything). To get to the point: How do I redirect requests to /index.php?whatever to a 404 page? I was thinking of rewriting to a non-existent file that would cause apache to send a 404. Would this be an acceptable solution? How would the rewriterule for that look like? edit: Currently, existing google results will just cause the following error: An Error Was Encountered The URI you submitted has disallowed characters.

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  • Data confusion - Selecting data in one DataGridView based on selection in another

    - by Logan Young
    This probably isn't the best way to do what I want, but I can't think of anything else to try... NB: I'm using Visual Basic.NET My form has 2 DataGridView controls. One of these is bound to a DataSet, the other isn't visible - at least not until the user selects a uniqueidentifier cell in the 1st grid. When the user makes this selection, the 2nd grid will become visible and display the row from another with the same id as the one selected in the 1st grid. So, basically, I want to dynamically display data in one grid based on user selection in another grid. My code looks like this so far... Private Sub RulesGrid_CellClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles RulesGrid.CellClick Try FlagsGrid.Visible = True ''// MsgBox(RulesGrid.CurrentCell.Value.ToString()) Dim sql As String = "SELECT * FROM ctblMKA_Status_Flags " + _ "WHERE intStatusID = '" & RulesGrid.CurrentCell.Value & "'" DSFlags = GetDS(sql) DSFlags.DataSetName = "FlagsDataSet" FlagsGrid.DataSource = DSFlags ProgressBar.Visible = False Catch ex As Exception MsgBox(ex.ToString) End Try End Sub I feel like I'm missing something here... Any ideas anyone?

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