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  • Namespace constraint with generic class decleration

    - by SomeGuy
    Good afternoon people, I would like to know if (and if so how) it is possible to define a namespace as a constraint parameter in a generic class declaration. What I have is this: namespace MyProject.Models.Entities <-- Contains my classes to be persisted in db namespace MyProject.Tests.BaseTest <-- Obvious i think Now the decleration of my 'BaseTest' class looks like so; public class BaseTest<T> This BaseTest does little more (at the time of writing) than remove all entities that were added to the database during testing. So typically I will have a test class declared as: public class MyEntityRepositoryTest : BaseTest<MyEntity> What i would LIKE to do is something similar to the following: public class BaseTest<T> where T : <is of the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace> Now i am aware that it would be entirely possible to simply declare a 'BaseEntity' class from which all entities created within the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace will inherit from; public class BaseTest<T> where T : MyBaseEntity but...I dont actually need to, or want to. Plus I am using an ORM and mapping entities with inheritance, although possible, adds a layer of complexity that is not required. So, is it possible to constrain a generic class parameter to a namespace and not a specific type ? Thank you for your time.

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  • Mysql many to many problem (leaderborad/scoreboard)

    - by zoko2902
    Hi all! I'm working on a small project in regards of the upcoming World Cup. I'm building a roster/leaderboard/scoredboard based on groups with national teams. The idea is to have information on all upcoming matches within the group or in the knockout phase (scores, time of the match, match stats etc.). Currently I'm stuck with the DB in that I can't come up with a query that would return paired teams in a row. I have these 3 tables: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `wc_team` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `name` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `description` VARCHAR(250) NULL , `flag` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `image` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `added` TIMESTAMP NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `wc_match` ( `id` INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT , `score` VARCHAR(6) NULL , `date` DATE NULL , `time` VARCHAR(45) NULL , `added` TIMESTAMP NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP , PRIMARY KEY (`id`) , CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `wc_team_has_match` ( `wc_team_id` INT NOT NULL , `wc_match_id` INT NOT NULL , PRIMARY KEY (`wc_team_id`, `wc_match_id`) , I've simplified the tables so we don't go in the wrong direction. Now I've tried al kinds of joins and groupings I could think of, but I never seem to get. Example guery: SELECT t.wc_team_id,t.wc_match_id,c.id.c.name,d.id,d.name FROM wc_team_has_match AS t LEFT JOIN wc_match AS s ON t.wc_match_id = s.id LEFT JOIN wc_team AS c ON t.wc_team_id = c.id LEFT JOIN wc_team AS d ON t.wc_team_id = d.id Which returns: wc_team_id wc_match_id id name id name 16 5 16 Brazil 16 Brazil 18 5 18 Argentina 18 Argentina But what I really want is: wc_team_id wc_match_id id name id name 16 5 16 Brazil 18 Argentina Keep in mind that a group has more matches I want to see all those matches not only one. Any pointer or suggestion would be extremly appreciated since I'm stuck like a duck on this one :).

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  • Advice needed: cold backup for SQL Server 2008 Express?

    - by Mikey Cee
    What are my options for achieving a cold backup server for SQL Server Express instance running a single database? I have an SQL Server 2008 Express instance in production that currently represents a single point of failure for my application. I have a second physical box sitting at the installation that is currently doing nothing. I want to somehow replicate my database in near real time (a little bit of data loss is acceptable) to the second box. The database is very small and resources are utilized very lightly. In the case that the production server dies, I would manually reconfigure my application to point to the backup server instead. Although Express doesn't support log shipping, I am thinking that I could manually script a poor man's version of it, where I use batch files to take the logs and copy them across the network and apply them to the second server at 5 minute intervals. Does anyone have any advice on whether this is technically achievable, or if there is a better way to do what I am trying to do? Note that I want to avoid having to pay for the full version of SQL Server and configure mirroring as I think it is an overkill for this application. I understand that other DB platforms may present suitable options (eg. a MySQL Cluster), but for the purposes of this discussion, let's assume we have to stick to SQL Server.

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  • How to Update with LINQ?

    - by DaveDev
    currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

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  • How should I pass the translated text to my object in my multilingual application?

    - by boatingcow
    Up until now, I have maintained a 'dictionary' table in my database, for example: +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | phrase | en | fr | etc... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | generated | Generated in %1$01.2f seconds at %2$s | Créée en %1$01.2f secondes à %2$s aujourd'hui | ... | | submit | Submit... | Envoyer... | ... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ I'll then select all rows from the database for the column that matches the locale we're interested in (or read the cache from a file to speed db lookup) and dump the dictionary into an array called $lng. Then I'll have HTML helper objects like this in my view: $html->input(array('type' => 'submit', 'value' => $lng['submit'], etc...)); ... $html->div(array('value' => sprintf($lng['generated'], $generated, date('H:i')), etc...)); The translations can appear in PDF, XLS and AJAX responses too. The problem with my approach so far is that I now have loads of global $lng; in every class where there is a function that spits out UI code.. How do other people get the translation into the object? Is it one scenario where globals aren't actually that bad? Would it be madness to create a class with accessors when the dictionary terms are all static?

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  • MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

    - by Martin Tóth
    Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

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  • PHP, MySQL prepared statements - can you use results of execute more than once by calling data_seek(

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello, I have a case where I want to use the results of a prepared statement more than once in a nested loop. The outer loop processes the results of another query, and the inner loop is the results of the prepared statement query. So the code would be something like this (just "pseudoish" to demonstrate the concept): // not showing the outer query, it is just a basic SELECT, not prepared statement // we'll call it $outer_query $obj_array = array(); // going to save objects in this $ids = array(18,19,20); // just example id numbers $query = "SELECT field1, field2 FROM table1 WHERE id=?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); foreach ($ids as $id) { $stmt->bind_param("i", $id); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($var1, $var2); $stmt->store_result(); // I think I need this for data_seek while ($q1 = $outer_query->fetch_object()) { while ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($q1->field1 == $var1) { // looking for a match $obj = new stdClass(); $obj->var1 = $var1; $obj->var2 = $var2; $obj_array[] = $obj; $stmt->data_seek(0); // reset for outer loop break; // found match, so leave inner } } } } The problem I seem to be experiencing is that the values are not getting bound in the variables as I would expect after the first time I use fetch in the inner loop. Specifically, in one example I ran with 3 ids for the foreach, the first id was processed correctly, the second was processed incorrectly (matches were not found in the inner loop even though they existed), and then the third was processed correctly. Is there something wrong with the prepared statment function calls in the sequence I am doing above, or is this an invalid way to use the results of the prepared statement? Thanks.

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  • Need to add WHERE condition to query

    - by Angel Carlson
    I am trying to modify edit_orders.php in Zen Cart. Hoping someone might be able to help me add a condition to a query. I need the queries below to specify that the items selected from TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION and TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION must have a language_id = 1. Would be so grateful for any help you could provide. // ############################################################################ // Get List of All Products // ############################################################################ //$result = zen_db_query("SELECT products_name, p.products_id, x.categories_name, ptc.categories_id FROM " . TABLE_PRODUCTS . " p LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION . " pd ON pd.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_TO_CATEGORIES . " ptc ON ptc.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " cd ON cd.categories_id=ptc.categories_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " x ON x.categories_id=ptc.categories_id ORDER BY categories_id"); $result = $db -> Execute("SELECT products_name, p.products_id, categories_name, ptc.categories_id FROM " . TABLE_PRODUCTS . " p LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_DESCRIPTION . " pd ON pd.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_PRODUCTS_TO_CATEGORIES . " ptc ON ptc.products_id=p.products_id LEFT JOIN " . TABLE_CATEGORIES_DESCRIPTION . " cd ON cd.categories_id=ptc.categories_id ORDER BY categories_name");

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  • Django IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • Populate asp.net MVC Index page with data from the database

    - by Sunil Ramu
    I have a web application in which I need to fetch data from the database and display in the index page. As you know, asp.net mvc has given options to edit delete etc... I need to populate the page using the conventional DB way and it uses a stored procedure to retrieve results. I dont want to use LINQ. This is my model entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace LogMVCApp.Models { public class Property { public int Id { get; set; } public string LogInId { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } public string Action { get; set; } public string Information { get; set; } public bool Passed{get; set; } public string LogType { get; set; } } } and I need to retrieve data using something like this... var conString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["connection"].ToString(); var conn = new SqlConnection(conString); var command = new SqlCommand("LogInsert", conn){CommandType=CommandType.StoredProcedure};

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  • How to use Nhibernate Validator + NHib component + ddl

    - by mynkow
    I just configured my NHibValidator. My NHibernate creates the DB schema. When I set MaxLenght="20" to some property of a class then in the database the length appears in the database column. I am doing this in the NHibValidator xml file. But the problem is that I have components and cannot figure out how to achieve this behaviour. The component is configured correctly in the Customer.hbm.xml file. EDIT: Well, I found that Hibernate Validator users had the same problem two years ago. http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HV-25 Is this an issue for NHibernate Validator or it is fixed. If it is working tell me how please. ----------------------------------------------------- public class Customer { public virtual string Name{get;set;} public virtual Contact Contacts{ get; } } ----------------------------------------------------- public class Contact { public virtual string Address{get;set;} } ----------------------------------------------------- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <nhv-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-validator-1.0" namespace="MyNamespace" assembly="MyAssembly"> <class name="Customer"> <property name="Name"> <length max="20"/> </property> <property name="Contacts"> <notNull/> <valid/> </property> </class> </nhv-mapping> ----------------------------------------------------- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <nhv-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-validator-1.0" namespace="MyNamespace" assembly="MyAssembly"> <class name="Contact"> <property name="Address"> <length max="50"/> <valid/> </property> </class> </nhv-mapping> -----------------------------------------------------

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  • Error when loading YAML config files in Rails

    - by ZelluX
    I am configuring Rails with MongoDB, and find a strange problem when paring config/mongo.yml file. config/mongo.yml is generated by executing script/rails generate mongo_mapper:config, and it looks like following: defaults: &defaults host: 127.0.0.1 port: 27017 development: <<: *defaults database: tc_web_development test: <<: *defaults database: tc_web_test From the config file we can see the objects development and test should both have a database field. But when it is parsed and loaded in config/initializers/mongo.db, config = YAML::load(File.read(Rails.root.join('config/mongo.yml'))) puts config.inspect MongoMapper.setup(config, Rails.env) the strange thing comes: the output of puts config.inspect is {"defaults"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "development"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "test"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}} which does not contain database attribute. But when I execute the same statements in a plain ruby console, instead of using rails console, mongo.yml is parsed in a right way. {"defaults"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017}, "development"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017, "database"=>"tc_web_development"}, "test"=>{"host"=>"127.0.0.1", "port"=>27017, "database"=>"tc_web_test"}} I am wondering what may be the cause of this problem. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Synchronizing one or more databases with a master database - Foreign keys

    - by Ikke
    I'm using Google Gears to be able to use an application offline (I know Gears is deprecated). The problem I am facing is the synchronization with the database on the server. The specific problem is the primary keys or more exactly, the foreign keys. When sending the information to the server, I could easily ignore the primary keys, and generate new ones. But then how would I know what the relations are. I had one sollution in mind, bet the I would need to save all the pk for every client. What is the best way to synchronize multiple client with one server db. Edit: I've been thinking about it, and I guess seqential primary keys are not the best solution, but what other possibilities are there? Time based doesn't seem right because of collisions which could happen. A GUID comes to mind, is that an option? It looks like generating a GUID in javascript is not that easy. I can do something with natural keys or composite keys. As I'm thinking about it, that looks like the best solution. Can I expect any problems with that?

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  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

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  • For a set of sql-queries, how do you determine which result-set contains a certain row?

    - by ManBugra
    I have a set of sql - queries: List<String> queries = ... queries[0] = "select id from person where ..."; ... queries[8756] = "select id from person where ..."; Each query selects rows from the same table 'person'. The only difference is the where-clause. Table 'person' looks like this: id | name | ... many other columns How can i determine which queries will contain a certain person in their subset? For example: List<Integer> matchingQueries = magicMethod(queries, [23,45]); The list obtained by 'magicMethod' filters all sql queries present in the list 'queries' (defined above) and returns only those that contain either the person with id 23 OR a person with id 45. Why i need it: I am dealing with an application that contains products and categories where the categories are sql queries that define which products belong to them (queries stored in a table also). Now i have a requirement where an admin has to see all categories an item belongs to immediately after the item was created. Btw, over 8.000 categories defined (so far, more to come). language and db: java && postgreSQL Thanks,

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  • PHP OOP singleton doesn't return object

    - by Misiur
    Weird trouble. I've used singleton multiple times but this particular case just doesn't want to work. Dump says that instance is null. define('ROOT', "/"); define('INC', 'includes/'); define('CLS', 'classes/'); require_once(CLS.'Core/Core.class.php'); $core = Core::getInstance(); var_dump($core->instance); $core->settings(INC.'config.php'); $core->go(); Core class class Core { static $instance; public $db; public $created = false; private function __construct() { $this->created = true; } static function getInstance() { if(!self::$instance) { self::$instance = new Core(); } else { return self::$instance; } } public function settings($path = null) { ... } public function go() { ... } } Error code Fatal error: Call to a member function settings() on a non-object in path It's possibly some stupid typo, but I don't have any errors in my editor. Thanks for the fast responses as always.

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  • Do all the HTML5 storage systems work together ?

    - by azera
    While there are a lot of good stuff about html5, one thing I don't get is the redondant storage mechanism, first there is localstorage and sessionstorage, which are key value stores, one is for one instance of the app ("one tab"), and the other works for all the instances of that application so they can share data. Both are saved when you close your browser and have a limited size (usually 5MB), that's great and everything would be nice if we stopped there. But then there is the "Web SQL Database", which has the same security system as the localstorage, the same size limit, the same everything except it works like/is sqlite, with tables and sql syntax and all of that. And the bummer is, they don't work on the same data at all ! This is not two way to access your data, this is really two storage for every html 5 app out there (not created by default yes, but still you see my point). What I would like to know is, is there a reason for both of this mechanisms to exist at the same time ? Or did they just look at sql and nosql movement to pick the best then went "screw it let's add both !" ? Why not implement local/session storage as a table inside web sql db ?

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  • delete row from result set in web sql with javascript

    - by Kaijin
    I understand that the result set from web sql isn't quite an array, more of an object? I'm cycling through a result set and to speed things up I'd like to remove a row once it's been found. I've tried "delete" and "splice", the former does nothing and the latter throws an error. Here's a piece of what I'm trying to do, notice the delete on line 18: function selectFromReverse(reverseRay,suggRay){ var reverseString = reverseRay.toString(); db.transaction(function (tx) { tx.executeSql('SELECT votecount, comboid FROM counterCombos WHERE comboid IN ('+reverseString+') AND votecount>0', [], function(tx, results){ processSelectFromReverse(results,suggRay); }); }, function(){onError}); } function processSelectFromReverse(results,suggRay){ var i = suggRay.length; while(i--){ var j = results.rows.length; while(j--){ console.log('searching'); var found = 0; if(suggRay[i].reverse == results.rows.item(j).comboid){ delete results.rows.item(j); console.log('found'); found++; break; } } if(found == 0){ console.log('lost'); } } }

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  • SQL Server log backups "stalling"

    - by MattK
    I have interited a box running SQL Server 2008 and Windows 2003, and have had a few events where largeish (35GB) log backups "stall", both before and after the installation of SQL 2008 SP1. The server log ships to a standby, so regular log backups are taken at 15 minute intervals. However, after an index reorg causes the log to grow to about 35GB (on a DB with about 17GB of data), the next log backup runs to ~95% completion, then seems to stop. The process shows as suspended, with a wait state of BACKUPIO. CPU, read, and write activity on the SPID also does not change, and the process stays in this state for hours, when normally a backup of this size should complete in about 20 minutes. This server has a single RAID-1 volume, thus the source database files and destination backup files are on the same volume. However, I cannot determine if another process is blocking the backup. The backup SPID cannot be killed, and the only way to terminate the log backup and clear the lock on the backup file is to cycle the SQL Server service. There was one event where the backup terminated completely, with an error that another process had locked the backup file, but no details about what that process was. Can anyone suggest a cause or diagnostic process to this situation?

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  • ASP Dot Net : How to repeat HTML parts with minor differences on a page?

    - by tinky05
    It's a really simple problem. I've got HTML code like this : <div> <img src="image1.jpg" alt="test1" /> </div> <div> <img src="image2.jpg" alt="test2" /> </div> <div> <img src="image3.jpg" alt="test3" /> </div> etc... The data is comming from a DB (image name, alt text). In JAVA, I would do something like : save the info in array in the back end. For the presentation I would loop through it with JSTL : <c:foeach items="${data}" var="${item}> <div> <img src="${item.image}" alt="${item.alt}" /> </div> </c:foreach> What's the best practice in ASP.net I just don't want to create a string with HTML code in it in the "code behind", it's ugly IMO.

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  • POSTmethod and PHP- login verification

    - by Neethusha
    I wrote a code for login verification..I got output with GET. But i need output with POST since it is more secure.pls let me know if there is any error in my code. javascript code: var xml; function verifyusernamepasswd(pass) { //pass is password that will be passed as parameter xml=new XMLHttpRequest(); var url="http://localhost/loginvalidate.php"; var para="q="+username+"&p="+pass;//username is global xml.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xml.setRequestHeader("Content-length", para.length); xml.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xml.open("POST",url,true); xml.onreadystatechange=statechanged1; xml.send(para); } function statechanged1() { if(xml.readyState==4) alert(xml.responseText); } php code: <?php $username=$_POST["q"]; $password=$_POST["p"]; $con=mysql_connect("localhost","root","blaze"); if(!$con) { die('Could not connect: '.mysql.error()); } mysql_select_db("BLAZE",$con) or die("No such Db"); $result=mysql_query("SELECT Passwword FROM USERTABLE WHERE Userhandle='$username'"); if($result==null) echo "false"; else if($result!=null) { $row=mysql_fetch_array($result); if((strcmp($row['Passwword'],$password)==0)) echo "true"; else echo "false"; } ?> the verification does not return anything, cos my alert is not displayed at all...pls tell me whats wrong....

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  • MySQL Stored Procedures : Use a variable as the database name in a cursor declaration

    - by Justin
    I need to use a variable to indicate what database to query in the declaration of a cursor. Here is a short snippet of the code : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM dbName.cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N'; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; As you can see, I'm TRYING to use the variable dbName to indicate in which database the query should occur within. However, MySQL will NOT allow that. I also tried things such as : CREATE PROCEDURE `update_cdrs_lnp_data`(IN dbName VARCHAR(25), OUT returnCode SMALLINT) cdr_records:BEGIN DECLARE cdr_record_cursor CURSOR FOR SET @query = CONCAT("SELECT cdrs_id, called, calling FROM " ,dbName, ".cdrs WHERE lrn_checked = 'N' "); PREPARE STMT FROM @query; EXECUTE STMT; # Setup logging DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION BEGIN #call log_debug('Got exception in update_cdrs_lnp_data'); SET returnCode = -1; END; Of course this doesn't work either as MySQL only allows a standard SQL statement in the cursor declaration. Can anyone think of a way to use the same stored procedure in multiple databases by passing in the name of the db that should be affected?

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  • problems with retrieving data that was saved outside of a grails webflow

    - by callie16
    Hi, this is actually connected to an earlier question of mine here. Anyway, I have 3 domains that look like this: class A { ... static hasMany = [ b : B ] ... } class B { ... static belongsTo = [ a : A ] static hasMany = [ c : C ] ... } class C { ... static belongsTo = [ b : B ] ... } In my GSP page, I call an action in the Controller via a remote function in a javascript block (I'm using Dojo so I'm passing data to be saved this way... it's not a form per se so I use JSON for now to pass the data to the Controller). Let's say, I'm calling something like this: def someAction = { def jsonArr = [parse the JSON here] def tmpA = A.get(params.id) ... def tmpB = new B() b.someParam = jsonArr.someParam ... def tmpC = new C() tmpC.cParam = jsonArr.cParam tmpB.addToC(tmpC) tmpB.save(flush: true) //this may or may not be here but I'm adding it for the sake of completeness tmpA.addToB(tmpB) tmpA.save(flush: true) // NOTE: If I check here via println or whatnot, tmpA has a tmpB which has a tmpC... in other words, the data got saved. It's also in the DB. redirect(action: 'order' ...) } Then comes the fun part. Here's the webflow sample: def orderFlow = { ... someStateIShouldEndUpIn { on("next") { // or on previous... doesn't matter def anId = params.id def currA = A.get(anId) // this does NOT return a null value def testB = currA.b // this DOES return a null value }.to("somePage") ... } ... } Any ideas on why this happens? Moreover, when I dump the data of currA, b=null... instead of b=[] or b=[contents of tmpB]. Any help would be seriously appreciated... been at this for a couple of days now... Thanks!

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  • Projects integration question

    - by qkrsppopcmpt
    Other team has one legacy system, which is data aggregators. It is implemented as web service using JAVA, SOAP,MTOM,Tomcat and Axis2. They have wsdl files defining functionalities such as search, retrieve data, upload, download. Our team has a new developed website which is developed using RoR with mySQL. It is sort of social networking. Users can register, add friends, upload images, videos. Also, they can search data. We are required to connect the two systems. One possible solution I think is - Adding components into our website. The component invoke services on the aggregators. - Synchronize website database to the aggregators. My doubts are: 1. How to add components in our websites? The components should use Java or Ruby or adapter from java to ruby. It is possible using ruby invoke web service. I think it should work since it is the point of web service. If so, can ruby call those services in wsdl directly? But how to deal with those different data structure? How to synchroinze our database to the aggregators. I think the best way is also through web service invocation such as upload. That means, we have to export the db records into xml files and then write some tools to upload. The web service project support MTOM. So, it is fine to upload huge data. Am I on the right record? Can anybody give me some hint. Thanks.

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