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• Who's setting TCP window size down to 0, Indy or Windows?

  - by François

  We have an application server which have been observed sending headers with TCP window size 0 at times when the network had congestion (at a client's site). We would like to know if it is Indy or the underlying Windows layer that is responsible for adjusting the TCP window size down from the nominal 64K in adaptation to the available throughput. And we would be able to act upon it becoming 0 (nothing gets send, users wait = no good). So, any info, link, pointer to Indy code are welcome... Disclaimer: I'm not a network specialist. Please keep the answer understandable for the average me ;-) Note: it's Indy9/D2007 on Windows Server 2003 SP2. More gory details: The TCP zero window cases happen on the middle tier talking to the DB server. It happens at the same moments when end users complain of slowdowns in the client application (that's what triggered the network investigation). 2 major Network issues causing bottlenecks have been identified. The TCP zero window happened when there was network congestion, but may or may not be caused by it. We want to know when that happen and have a way to do something (logging at least) in our code. So where to hook (in Indy?) to know when that condition occurs?

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• Codeigniter: Library function--I'm stuck

  - by Kevin Brown

  I have a library function that sets up my forms, and submits data. They're long, and they work, so I'll spare you reading my code. :) I simply need a way for my functions to determine how to handle the data. Until now, the function did one thing: Submit a report for the current user. NOW, the client has requested that an administrator also be able to complete a form--this means that the form would be filled out, and it would CREATE a user at the same time, whereas the current function EDITS and is accessed by an EXISTING user. Do I need a separate function to do essentially the same thing? How do I make one function perform two tasks? One to update a user, and if there is no user, create one. Current controller: function survey() { $id = $this->session->userdata('id'); $data['member'] = $this->home_model->getUser($id); //Convert the db Object to a row array $data['manager'] = $data['member']->row(); $manager_id = $data['manager']->manager_id; $data['manager'] = $this->home_model->getUser($manager_id); $data['manager'] = $data['manager']->row(); $data['header'] = "Home"; $this->survey_form_processing->survey_form($this->_container,$data, $method); } Current Library: function survey_form($container) { //Lots of validation stuff $this->CI->validation->set_rules($rules); if ( $this->CI->validation->run() === FALSE ) { // Output any errors $this->CI->validation->output_errors(); } else { // Submit form $this->_submit(); } $this->CI->load->view($container,$data); The submit function is huge too. Basically says, "Update table with data where user_id=current user" I hope this wasn't too confusing. I'll create two functions if need be, but I'd like to keep redundancy down! }

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• Same session and session ID for different subdomains in Grails project - How can I do that?

  - by fluxon

  I am currently working on a project that supports multiple languages. In order to be seo friendly, I am trying to redirect users subdomains corresponding to their locale (or their preferred language). I.e., my projects's url is mydomain.com and I work with the subdomains en.mydomain.com, es.mydomain.com, de.mydomain.com, fr.mydomain.com ... you get the idea. All subdomains are served by the same grails app for now. What happens is that my grails project maintains different sessions (as seen by the session ids) for every single subdomain, hence information is lost, when a user switches between languages. I had not forseen that. :( How can I explicitly set the session identifier? I would like it to be based on just mydomain.com. I got the hint that Apache Tomcat offers something like <Context sessionCookiePath="/" sessionCookieDomain=".mydomain.com"> , but that does not help for the devel environment etc. Any hints? Have you tried storing session information in the DB? This is sometimes used for load-balancing purposes and might help here as well?! Help is highly appreciated (as always)! Cheers!

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• connecting to secure database on private network from website host

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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• OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

  - by Pace

  I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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• Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

  - by dede

  I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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• Is it possible to filter data used by pivot table based on filtering the rows in a source table in Excel?

  - by Geoffrey Stoel

  I have developed a dashboard in Excel 2007 that uses one source table in a sheet (being filled with a query on our data warehouse) and multiple pivot tables making different cross sections on this data. I use the GETPIVOTDATA in almost a hundred formulas to give me the right value for a specific indicator in my dashboard. This all works fine. However I now have received the question to make the dashboard for 5 different segments. As you can imagine I don't want to create 5 different workbooks for this and need to maintain the dashboard logic on all of them. So my question is the following. Is it possible to automatically (through VBA or any other means) filter the results in my source table which is the source for my pivot tables and thus for my dashboard values. So schematically: DATABASE_VIEW -- SOURCE_TABLE -- 12 pivot tables -- 100 GETPIVOTDATA functions Preferably I would like to load all the segments in the source_table (one view on my database) and then filter the data in the source table, which results in filterd source_dat for my pivots. This way I can (without requerying the db) quickly change between segments in the dashboards (refreshing pivots only). Data in the source table has the column: CUSTOMER_SEGMENT available to filter upon. Any help is appreciated. Geoffrey

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• Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

  - by Ben Robinson

  We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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• SQL Databases and table design/organization

  - by John McMullen

  (NOOB disclaimer) I'm working on a system (a type of map), that is accessed mostly via 3 fields: ID (auto incremented), X coordinate, and Y coordinate. As it is right now, i have all data on the map, stored in 1 table. Whenever the map display is loaded it simply queries the database for contents in x and y, and the DB gives the data (other fields in the same entry). If an item on the map is doing something, it has a flag saying its doing something, and then has an ID of the action in another table holding that type of 'actions'. Essentially, for all map data, its stored in 1 table. All actions of a certain type are stored in their own table. I'm a noob, and i'm wondering what the most effective/efficient structure for such a design? (a map that has items, and each item has stats/actions). I'm using PHP atm, using standard SQL queries to get my data. Should i split up the tables so that there are only x number of entries on a table? (coord range limits)? Should it just keep growing and growing? There's a lot of queries to the table... so just tryin to see what is best :/

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• Modify SQL result set before returning from stored procedure

  - by m0sa

  I have a simple table in my SQL Server 2008 DB: Tasks_Table -id -task_complete -task_active -column_1 -.. -column_N The table stores instructions for uncompleted tasks that have to be executed by a service. I want to be able to scale my system in future. Until now only 1 service on 1 computer read from the table. I have a stored procedure, that selects all uncompleted and inactive tasks. As the service begins to process tasks it updates the task_active flag in all the returned rows. To enable scaleing of the system I want to enable deployment of the service on more machines. Because I want to prevent a task being returned to more than 1 service I have to update the stored procedure that returns uncompleted and inactive tasks. I figured that i have to lock the table (only 1 reader at a time - I know I have to use an apropriate ISOLATION LEVEL), and updates the task_active flag in each row of the result set before returning the result set. So my question is how to modify the SELECT result set iin the stored procedure before returning it?

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• C# sqlite syntax in ASP.NET?

  - by acidzombie24

  -edit- This is no longer relevant and the question doesnt make sense to me anymore. I think i wanted to know how to create tables or know if the syntax is the same from winform to ASP.NET I am very use to sqlite http://sqlite.phxsoftware.com/ and would like to create a DB in a similar style. How do i do this? it doesnt need to be the same, just similar enough for me to enjoy. An example of the syntax. connection = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=" + sz +";Version=3"); command = new SQLiteCommand(connection); connection.Open(); command.CommandText = "CREATE TABLE if not exists miscInfo(key TEXT, " + "value TEXT, UNIQUE (key));"; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); The @name is a symbol and command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; replaces the symbol with escaped values/texts/blob command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO discData(rootfolderID, time, volumeName, discLabel, " + "userTitle, userDesc) "+ "VALUES(@rootfolderID, @time, @volumeName, @discLabel, " + "@userTitle, @userDesc); " + "SELECT last_insert_rowid() AS RecordID;"; command.Parameters.Add("@rootfolderID", DbType.Int64).Value = d.rootfolderID; command.Parameters.Add("@time", DbType.Int64).Value = d.time; command.Parameters.Add("@volumeName", DbType.String).Value = d.volumeName; command.Parameters.Add("@discLabel", DbType.String).Value = d.discLabel; command.Parameters.Add("@userTitle", DbType.String).Value = d.userTitle; command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; d.discID = (long)command.ExecuteScalar();

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• For a set of sql-queries, how do you determine which result-set contains a certain row?

  - by ManBugra

  I have a set of sql - queries: List<String> queries = ... queries[0] = "select id from person where ..."; ... queries[8756] = "select id from person where ..."; Each query selects rows from the same table 'person'. The only difference is the where-clause. Table 'person' looks like this: id | name | ... many other columns How can i determine which queries will contain a certain person in their subset? For example: List<Integer> matchingQueries = magicMethod(queries, [23,45]); The list obtained by 'magicMethod' filters all sql queries present in the list 'queries' (defined above) and returns only those that contain either the person with id 23 OR a person with id 45. Why i need it: I am dealing with an application that contains products and categories where the categories are sql queries that define which products belong to them (queries stored in a table also). Now i have a requirement where an admin has to see all categories an item belongs to immediately after the item was created. Btw, over 8.000 categories defined (so far, more to come). language and db: java && postgreSQL Thanks,

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• How many users are sufficient to make a heavy load for web application

  - by galymzhan

  I have a web application, which has been suffering high load recent days. The application runs on single server which has 8-core Intel CPU and 4gb of RAM. Software: Drupal 5 (Apache 2, PHP5, MySQL5) running on Debian. After reaching 500 authenticated and 200 anonymous users (simultaneous), the application drastically decreases its performance up to total failure. The biggest load comes from authenticated users, who perform activities, causing insert/update/deletes on db. I think mysql is a bottleneck. Is it normal to slow down on such number of users? EDIT: I forgot to mention that I did some kind of profiling. I runned commands top, htop and they showed me that all memory was being used by MySQL! After some time MySQL starts to perform terribly slow, site goes down, and we have to restart/stop apache to reduce load. Administrators said that there was about 200 active mysql connections at that moment. The worst point is that we need to solve this ASAP, I can't do deep profiling analysis/code refactoring, so I'm considering 2 ways: my tables are MyIsam, I heard they use table-level locking which is very slow, is it right? could I change it to Innodb without worry? what if I take MySQL, and move it to dedicated machine with a lot of RAM?

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• Spring MVC: should service layer be returning operation specific DTO's ?

  - by arrages

  In my Spring MVC application I am using DTO in the presentation layer in order to encapsulate the domain model in the service layer. The DTO's are being used as the spring form backing objects. hence my services look something like this: userService.storeUser(NewUserRequestDTO req); The service layer will translate DTO - Domain object and do the rest of the work. Now my problem is that when I want to retrieve a DTO from the service to perform say an Update or Display I can't seem to find a better way to do it then to have multiple methods for the lookup that return different DTO's like... EditUserRequestDTO userService.loadUserForEdit(int id); DisplayUserDTO userService.loadUserForDisplay(int id); but something does not feel right about this approach. The reason do have separate DTO's is that DisplayUserDTO is strongly typed to be read only and also there are many properties of user that are entities from a lookup table in the db (like city and state) so the DisplayUserDTO would have the string description of the properties while the EditUserRequestDTO will have the id's that will back the select drop down lists in the forms. What do you think? thanks

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• Strange JPA one-to-many behavior when trying to set the "many" on the "one" entity

  - by errr

  I've mapped two entities using JPA (specifically Hibernate). Those entities have a one-to-many relationship (I've simplified for presentation): @Entity public class A { @ManyToOne public B getB() { return b; } } @Entity public Class B { @OneToMany(mappedBy="b") public Set<A> getAs() { return as; } } Now, I'm trying to create a relationship between two instances of these entities by using the setter of the one-side/not-owner-side of the relationship (i.e the table being referenced to): em.getTransaction().begin(); A a = new A(); B b = new B(); Set<A> as = new HashSet<A>(); as.add(a); b.setAs(as); em.persist(a); em.persist(b); em.getTransaction().commit(); But then, the relationship isn't persisted to the DB (the row created for entity A isn't referencing the row created for entity B). Why is it so? I'd excpect it to work. Also, if I remove the "mappedBy" property from the @OneToMany annotation it will work. Again - why is it so? and what are the possible effects for removing the "mappedBy" property?

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• Linq2Sql: query - subquery optimisation

  - by Budda

  I have the following query: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.Type=typeValue select new InfrStadium(sector.TeamId) ).ToList(); and InfrStadium class constructor: private InfrStadium(int teamId) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.TeamId==teamId select sector) .ToList<>(); ... work with data } Current implementation perform 1+n queries, where n - number of records fetched the 1st time. I want to optimize that. And another one I would love to do using 'group' operator in way like this: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IEnumerable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } But attempt to launch query causes the following error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for constructor parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[InfrStadiumSector]' Question 1: Could you please explain, what is wrong here, I don't understand why 'team_sectors' is applied as 'System.Int32'? I've tried to change query a little (replace IEnumerable with IQueryeable): IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors.AsQueryable()) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IQueryeable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } In this case I've received another but similar error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[InfrStadiumSector]' of method 'System.Linq.IQueryable1[InfrStadiumSector] AsQueryableInfrStadiumSector' Question 2: Actually, the same question: can't understand at all what is going on here... P.S. I have another to optimize query idea (describe here: Linq2Sql: query optimisation) but I would love to find a solution with 1 request to DB).

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• Projects integration question

  - by qkrsppopcmpt

  Other team has one legacy system, which is data aggregators. It is implemented as web service using JAVA, SOAP,MTOM,Tomcat and Axis2. They have wsdl files defining functionalities such as search, retrieve data, upload, download. Our team has a new developed website which is developed using RoR with mySQL. It is sort of social networking. Users can register, add friends, upload images, videos. Also, they can search data. We are required to connect the two systems. One possible solution I think is - Adding components into our website. The component invoke services on the aggregators. - Synchronize website database to the aggregators. My doubts are: 1. How to add components in our websites? The components should use Java or Ruby or adapter from java to ruby. It is possible using ruby invoke web service. I think it should work since it is the point of web service. If so, can ruby call those services in wsdl directly? But how to deal with those different data structure? How to synchroinze our database to the aggregators. I think the best way is also through web service invocation such as upload. That means, we have to export the db records into xml files and then write some tools to upload. The web service project support MTOM. So, it is fine to upload huge data. Am I on the right record? Can anybody give me some hint. Thanks.

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• Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

  - by Jesse

  So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

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• INSERT INTO table doesn't work???

  - by Joann

  I found a tutorial from nettuts and it has a source code in it so tried implementing it in my site.. It is working now. However, it doesn't have a Registration system so I am making one. The thing is, as I have expected, my code is not working... It doesn't seem to know how to INSERT into the database. Here's the function that inserts data into the db. function register_User($un, $email, $pwd) { $query = "INSERT INTO users( username, password, email ) VALUES(:uname, :pwd, :email) LIMIT 1"; if($stmt = $this->conn->prepare($query)) { $stmt->bind_param(':uname', $un); $stmt->bind_param(':pwd', $pwd); $stmt->bind_param(':email', $email); $stmt->execute(); if($stmt->fetch()) { $stmt->close(); return true; } else return "The username or email you entered is already in use..."; } } I have debugged the connection to the database from within the class, it says it's connected. I tried using this method instead: function register($un, $email, $pwd) { $registerquery = $this->conn->query( "INSERT INTO users(uername, password, email) VALUES('".$un."', '".$pwd."', '".$email."')"); if($registerquery) { echo "<h4>Success</h4>"; } else { echo "<h4>Error</h4>"; } } And it echos "Error"... Can you please help me pen point the error in this??? :(

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• Is it better to use a relational database or document-based database for an app like Wufoo?

  - by mboyle

  I'm working on an application that's similar to Wufoo in that it allows our users to create their own databases and collect/present records with auto generated forms and views. Since every user is creating a different schema (one user might have a database of their baseball card collection, another might have a database of their recipes) our current approach is using MySQL to create separate databases for every user with its own tables. So in other words, the databases our MySQL server contains look like: main-web-app-db (our web app containing tables for users account info, billing, etc) user_1_db (baseball_cards_table) user_2_db (recipes_table) .... And so on. If a user wants to set up a new database to keep track of their DVD collection, we'd do a "create database ..." with "create table ...". If they enter some data in and then decide they want to change a column we'd do an "alter table ....". Now, the further along I get with building this out the more it seems like MySQL is poorly suited to handling this. 1) My first concern is that switching databases every request, first to our main app's database for authentication etc, and then to the user's personal database, is going to be inefficient. 2) The second concern I have is that there's going to be a limit to the number of databases a single MySQL server can host. Pretending for a moment this application had 500,000 user databases, is MySQL designed to operate this way? What if it were a million, or more? 3) Lastly, is this method going to be a nightmare to support and scale? I've never heard of MySQL being used in this way so I do worry about how this affects things like replication and other methods of scaling. To me, it seems like MySQL wasn't built to be used in this way but what do I know. I've been looking at document-based databases like MongoDB, CouchDB, and Redis as alternatives because it seems like a schema-less approach to this particular problem makes a lot of sense. Can anyone offer some advice on this?

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• nullable bool is being passed to the controller null all the time regardless of the value

  - by user1807954

  I'm trying to pass a nullable bool to my controller. But when I pass the bool value from my view to the controller, it's being passed null all the time regardless of the value it has in my view. Here is my view: @model Cars.Models.Car @using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Home", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "CategoryFormID"})) { <label>Convertible:</label> <input type="checkbox" id="ConvertibleID" name="convertible"/> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="search" id="SubmitID">Search</button> } And my controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(bool? convertible){ var cars = from d in db.Car select d; if (convertible.HasValue) { cars = cars.Where(x => x.Convertible == convertible); } return View("SearchResult", cars); } I also have other fields such as drop down lists and text fields, but they're being passed flawless. Any help would be really appreciated. Update: Thank you for your fast responds. However, I did try giving it a value="True" as you guys suggested. There is only 2 options now: null and true. But my intention is to use nullable bool to have three options: null (when user doesn't touch the checkbox), true(checked) and false(unchecked). I know it sounds not smart and silly, but I'm just trying to figure out how nullable bool is working, and what is the intention of having such a thing in C# (I'm new with C#). I was wondering if it is possible to do so with just checkbox and without the use of dropdownlist or radio buttons.

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• Codeigniter Inserting Multidimensional Array as rows in MySQL

  - by RisingSun

  Please Refer to this question I asked Codeigniter Insert Multiple Rows in SQL To restate <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][email]" value=""></td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][email]" value=""></td> </tr> .......... Can Be Inserted into MySQL as this foreach($_POST['user'] as $user) { $this->db->insert('mytable', $user); } This results in multiple MySQL queries. Is it possible to optimise it further, so that the insert occurs in one query Something like this insert multiple rows via a php array into mysql but taking advantage of codeigniters simpler syntax. Thanks

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• Does a Postgresql dump create sequences that start with - or after - the last key?

  - by bennylope

  I recently created a SQL dump of a database behind a Django project, and after cleaning the SQL up a little bit was able to restore the DB and all of the data. The problem was the sequences were all mucked up. I tried adding a new user and generated the Python error IntegrityError: duplicate key violates unique constraint. Naturally I figured my SQL dump didn't restart the sequence. But it did: DROP SEQUENCE "auth_user_id_seq" CASCADE; CREATE SEQUENCE "auth_user_id_seq" INCREMENT 1 START 446 MAXVALUE 9223372036854775807 MINVALUE 1 CACHE 1; ALTER TABLE "auth_user_id_seq" OWNER TO "db_user"; I figured out that a repeated attempt at creating a user (or any new row in any table with existing data and such a sequence) allowed for successful object/row creation. That solved the pressing problem. But given that the last user ID in that table was 446 - the same start value in the sequence creation above - it looks like Postgresql was simply trying to start creating rows with that key. Does the SQL dump provide the wrong start key by 1? Or should I invoke some other command to start sequences after the given start ID? Keenly curious.

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• How to use MySQL geospatial extensions with spherical geometries

  - by Joshua

  Hi Everyone, I would like to store thousands of latitude/longitude points in a MySQL db. I was successful at setting up the tables and adding the data using the geospatial extensions where the column 'coord' is a Point(lat, lng). Problem: I want to quickly find the 'N' closest entries to latitude 'X' degrees and longitude 'Y' degrees. Since the Distance() function has not yet been implemented, I used GLength() function to calculate the distance between (X,Y) and each of the entries, sorting by ascending distance, and limiting to 'N' results. The problem is that this is not calculating shortest distance with spherical geometry. Which means if Y = 179.9 degrees, the list of closest entries will only include longitudes of starting at 179.9 and decreasing even though closer entries exist with longitudes increasing from -179.9. How does one typically handle the discontinuity in longitude when working with spherical geometries in databases? There has to be an easy solution to this, but I must just be searching for the wrong thing because I have not found anything helpful. Should I just forget the GLength() function and create my own function for calculating angular separation? If I do this, will it still be fast and take advantage of the geospatial extensions? Thanks! josh UPDATE: This is exactly what I am describing above. However, it is only for SQL Server. Apparently SQL Server has a Geometry and Geography datatypes. The geography does exactly what I need. Is there something similar in MySQL?

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• php request variables assigning $_GEt

  - by chris

  if you take a look at a previous question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2690742/mod-rewrite-title-slugs-and-htaccess I am using the solution that Col. Shrapnel proposed- but when i assign values to $_GET in the actual file and not from a request the code doesnt work. It defaults away from the file as if the $_GET variables are not set The code I have come up with is- if(!empty($_GET['cat'])){ $_GET['target'] = "category"; if(isset($_GET['page'])){ $_GET['pageID'] = $_GET['page']; } $URL_query = "SELECT category_id FROM cats WHERE slug = '".$_GET['cat']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); $_GET['category_id'] = $URL_array['category_id']; }elseif($_GET['product']){ $_GET['target'] = "product"; $URL_query = "SELECT product_id FROM products WHERE slug = '".$_GET['product']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); print_r($URL_array); $_GET['product_id'] = $URL_array['product_id']; The original variable string that im trying to represent is /cart.php?Target=product&product_id=16142&category_id=249 And i'm trying to build the query string variables with code and including cart.php so i can use cleaner URL's So I have product/product-title-with-clean-url/ going to slug.php?product=slug Then the slug searches the db for a record with the matching slug and returns the product_id as in the code above.Then built the query string and include cart.php

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