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  • How to deploy to multiple redundant production servers with "cap deploy"?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Capistrano is working great to deploy to a single server. However, I have multiple production API servers for my web application. When I deploy, my code needs to get deployed to every API server at once. Specifying each server manually is NOT the solution I am looking for (e.g. I don't want to do "cap api1 deploy; cap api2 deploy"). Is there a way, using Capistrano, to deploy to all servers at once, with just a simple "cap deploy"? I'm wondering what changes I would need to make to a typical deploy.rb file, whether I'd need to create a separate file for each server, and whether and how the Capfile would need to be changed. Also, I need to be able to specify a different deploy_to path for each server. And ideally, I wouldn't have to repeat things in different config files for different servers (eg. wouldn't have to specify :repository, :application, etc. multiple times). I have spent hours searching Google on this and looking through tutorials, but I have found nothing helpful. Here is a snippet from my current deploy.rb file: set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain.com" role :app, "domain.com" role :db, "domain.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true Should I just use the multistage extension and do this? task :deploy_everything do system "cap api1 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" end That could work, but I feel like this isn't what this extension is meant for...

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  • Modules vs. Classes and their influence on descendants of ActiveRecord::Base

    - by Chris
    Here's a Ruby OO head scratcher for ya, brought about by this Rails scenario: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base has_many(:prices) # define private helper methods end module PrintProduct attr_accessor(:isbn) # override methods in ActiveRecord::Base end class Book < Product include PrintProduct end Product is the base class of all products. Books are kept in the products table via STI. The PrintProduct module brings some common behavior and state to descendants of Product. Book is used inside fields_for blocks in views. This works for me, but I found some odd behavior: After form submission, inside my controller, if I call a method on a book that is defined in PrintProduct, and that method calls a helper method defined in Product, which in turn calls the prices method defined by has_many, I'll get an error complaining that Book#prices is not found. Why is that? Book is a direct descendant of Product! More interesting is the following.. As I developed this hierarchy PrintProduct started to become more of an abstract ActiveRecord::Base, so I thought it prudent to redefine everything as such: class Product < ActiveRecord::Base end class PrintProduct < Product end class Book < PrintProduct end All method definitions, etc. are the same. In this case, however, my web form won't load because the attributes defined by attr_accessor (which are "virtual attributes" referenced by the form but not persisted in the DB) aren't found. I'll get an error saying that there is no method Book#isbn. Why is that?? I can't see a reason why the attr_accessor attributes are not found inside my form's fields_for block when PrintProduct is a class, but they are found when PrintProduct is a Module. Any insight would be appreciated. I'm dying to know why these errors are occurring!

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  • What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

    - by MDBGuy
    Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

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  • Best practice how to store HTML in a database column

    - by tbrandao
    I have an application that modifies a table dynamically, think spreadsheet), then upon saving the form (which the table is part of) ,I store that changed table (with user modifications) in a database column named html_Spreadhseet,along with the rest of the form data. right now I'm just storing the html in a plain text format with basic escaping of characters... I'm aware that this could be stored as a separate file, the source table (html_workseeet) already is. But from a data handling perspective its easier to save the changed html table to and from a column so as to avoid having to come up with a file management strategy (which folder will this live in, now must include folder in backups, security issues now need to apply to files, how to sync db security with file system etc.), so to minimize these issues I'm only storing the ... part in the database column. My question is should I gzip the HTML , maybe use JSON, or some other format to easily store and retrieve the HTML from the database column, what is the best practice to store HTML content in a datbase? Or just store it as I currently am as an escaped text column?

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  • managing classes when everything is relative to a user in nhibernate (orm)

    - by Schotime
    Firstly I have three entities. Users, Roles, Items A user can have multiple Roles. An item gets assigned to one or more roles. Therefore a user will have access to a distinct set of items. Now there is a few ways I can see this working. There is a Collection on Users which has Roles via a many-to-many assoc. Then each Role in this collection will have its own collection of Items. So for each user I would have to get the User (using nhib and fetch the roles and items with it) then either do a selectMany on the Items in each Role to get all the Items for the user or do a couple of foreach's to port the data to a view or dto model. Create a db trigger to automatically insert into another table that just has the relationship between user and items so that on my User entity I only have a Items collections which has all the items assigned to me. Some other way that i can't think of yet, because I'm new to nHibernate. Now i know that the trigger doesn't feel right but I'm not sure how to do this. We also have some hierarchy later where a user may be in charge of a group of users. If anyone could shed some light on how they go about these scenarios in nhibernate or another orm that would be great, or point be in a direction. I know that in the past you would have to enter all combinations into a table so that the query worked, but when you know sql its not too bad. If you need any other info then let me know. Cheers

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  • WPF C# Client/Server announcement system

    - by manemawanna
    I'm currently in the process of creating an announcement system at my place of work. The role of this system will be to replace all users email due to people misusing it and generally abusing the facility. The system will consist of: Web Portal: Will allow staff to enter any important announcements (this will be restricted via AD). SQL Server 2k5 DB: Will hold the announcements along with records of staff members and if they've read the announcements etc. Front End: Created in WPF & C# which is nearly complete, it will display the announcements to the users. Web Page: Client will contact every so often, which will return an xml file for the client to read. However my boss has now shifted the goal posts and would like the announcements to appear to the user once they are written to the database, rather than waiting on the client to contact the webpage. So now I'm a bit unsure as to how to go about this. I have one idea where I would create a small server application to monitor for new announcements then contact the clients to inform them to approach the website for the information they need. But I'm just looking to see if theres a better or more efficient way to do this or if someone else has a more appropriate idea or suggestion.

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Php JSON Response Array

    - by Nick Kl
    I have this php code. As you can see i query a mysql database through a function showallevents. I return a the $result to the $event variable. I try to return all rows of the data that i take with the msql_fetch_assoc. I don't get response even when i encode the $response variable. It returns null to all fields. Can anyone help me on what i am doing wrong. I had a valid code but it was returning only 1 row of data so i tried to make an associative array but seems i am failing. if ($tag == 'showallevents') { // Request type is show all events // show all events $event = $db->showallevents(); if ($event != false) { $data = array(); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($event)) { $data[] = array( $response["success"] = 1, $response["uid"] = $event["uid"], $response["event"]["date"] = $event["date"], $response["event"]["hours"] = $event["hours"], $response["event"]["store_name"] = $event["store_name"], $response["event"]["event_information"] = $event["event_information"], $response["event"]["event_type"] = $event["event_type"], $response["event"]["Phone"] = $event["Phone"], $response["event"]["address"] = $event["address"], $response["event"]["created_at"] = $event["created_at"], $response["event"]["updated_at"] = $event["updated_at"]); } echo json_encode($data); } else { // event not found // echo json with error = 1 $response["error"] = 1; $response["error_msg"] = "Events not found"; echo json_encode($response); } } else { echo "Access Denied"; } } ?>

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  • add database Tablenames to the JList in java

    - by Litecia
    // Declare JList private JList jlstTab, jlstCol; . . . DefaultListModel dlmTables = new DefaultListModel(); DefaultListModel dlmCol = new DefaultListModel(); // Instantiate dlmTables.addElement("kl"); jlstTab= new JList(dlmTables); jlstTab.setSelectedIndex(0); jlstTab.setSelectionMode(ListSelectionModel.SINGLE_SELECTION); . . . . Connect to the database public static void main(String args[]) { DBToolSwing cs = new DBToolSwing("DB Tool Swing"); try DBAccessObject dbAccess1 = new DBAccessObject("jdbc:odbc:JavaClassDSN"); DBAccessObject dbAccess2 = new DBAccessObject(); ResultSet rsTables = dbAccess1.getDatabaseTableNames(); while (rsTables.next()) System.out.println(rsTables.getString("TABLE_NAME")); I need to get the table names from the database, the output shouldn't be printed on the screen, instead I need the output added to the JlstTab so dlmTables.addElement("TABLE_NAME"); Please if someone can help I would appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Facebook - generating fb tag in Jquery - not working

    - by Gublooo
    Hey guys Kind of stuck here - I have this functionality on my site where I display 10 user comments along with their photo and when a user clicks on "More" - using Jquery more results are fetched from DB and the results are displayed via string generated in the Jquery method. This is a shortened version of my Jquery function $(".more_swipes").live('click',function() { var profile_id = 'profile-user_id; ?'; $.getJSON("/profile/more-swipes", { user_id: profile_id},function(swipes) { $.each(swipes, function(i,data){ newcomment="<div"; newcomment +="<fb:profile-pic uid='"+data.fb_userid+"' linked='false'/"; newcomment +="Name="+data.user_name+"-Comment="+data.comment; $("#moreswipes").append(newcomment); }); }); return false; }); Here as you can see I'm using the tag <fb:profile-pic uid='"+data.fb_userid+"' linked='false'/ Now when more results get displayed, the profile pic of the user is not getting displayed - when I look at the source code - this is how the fb tag looks when its generated thru Jquery <fb:profile-pic uid="222222" linked="false" height="50" width="50" Whereas the FB tags not generated thru the Jquery code look like <fb:profile-pic uid="222222" linked="false" height="50" width="50" class="FB_profile_pic <fb_profile_pic_rendered FB_ElementReady" style="width:px;height:50px" <img src="http://profile.atk......2025.jpg" alt="User Name" title="User Name" style="width:px;height:50px" class="FB_profile_pic"/ </fb:profile-pic So when I add it as a String in JQuery function - facebook is not identifying it and executing it Any idea how to fix this Thanks a bunch

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  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

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  • How to fix this simple SQL query?

    - by morpheous
    I have a database with three tables: user_table country_table city_table I want to write ANSI SQL which will allow me to fetch all the user data (i.e. user details including the name of the country of the last school and the name of the city they live in now). The problem I am having is that I have to use a self join, and I am getting slightly confused. The schema is shown below: CREATE TABLE user_table (id int, first_name varchar(16), last_school_country_id int, city_id int); CREATE TABLE country_table (id int, name varchar(32)); CREATE TABLE city_table (id int, country_id int, name varchar(32)); This is the query I have come up with so far, but the results are wrong, and sometimes, the db engine (mySQL), asks me if I want to show all [HUGE NUMBER HERE] results - which makes me suspect that I am unintentionally creating a cartesian product somewhere. Can someone explain what is wrong with this SQL statement, and what I need to do to fix it? SELECT usr.id AS id, usr.first_name, ctry1.name as loc_country_name, ctry2.name as school_country_name, city.name as loc_city_name FROM user_table usr, country_table ctry1, country_table ctry2, city_table city WHERE usr.last_school_country_id=ctry2.id AND usr.city_id=city.id AND city.country_id=ctry1.id AND ctry1.id=ctry2.id;

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  • Need help with jQuery/AJAX call in Safari/Mac

    - by protohominid
    I've got something that works perfectly in FF and MSIE but it's not working properly in Safari. It's a form with selects that get updated via AJAX/jQuery from a MySQL DB. In Safari, when you select the first item, it correctly loads the options for the next select menu; however, when you choose one of those (which loads new options in a subsequent select menu), the whole form resets and is broken from that point on. Does anyone know of a Safari bug that would cause this? Here's the JS: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#searchForm select").change(updateSearchForm); }); function updateSearchForm() { $.ajax({ url: '/elements/search_form.php?ajax=true', data: $('#searchForm').serialize(), error:function(xhr,err){ alert("readyState: "+xhr.readyState+"\nstatus: "+xhr.status); alert("responseText: "+xhr.responseText); }, success: function(data) { $("#searchForm").html(data); $("#searchForm select").change(updateSearchForm); } }); } I can post the relevant PHP/HTML for the form, but it's lengthy. I'm relatively new to JS so I'm not sure where to start debugging this... TIA

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  • passing string to a AJAX/JSON function

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but it doesn’t do anything. I’m stumped! Here how I set it up: 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1) onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); //just for debugging new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Error assigning call type to call'); }, onFailure: function (xhr) { alert('Error assigning call type to call'); } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values don’t get added to the db, but I also didn’t get the alert from main.js.php if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

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  • Switch front-end's of a website after X amount of hits

    - by Derek Adair
    Sorry about the title - not sure what to call this one. A client of mine would like to redirect users to different front-ends of his eCommerce site based on a hit-counter (possibly a timer?). important: -The content is moderately different in the two sites, enough to consider them two different websites. Knowing this client he will likely add more drastic content changes and other front-ends. So for this question consider the content to be -This site has a rather large back-end. With affiliate networking, multiple payment gateways, order-tracking, and several other features in the works. It is essential that these two front-ends have identical back-end functionality I know that if it was just a simple CSS swap this would be as simple as an if statement that ran off some kind of counter stored in a DB... but the different HTML markup is throwing me for a loop. Q: How can I serve two different front-ends (HTML/CSS) based on a hit counter? Also, I don't have any clue what to tag this one as...

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  • Identical files from different servers. Why might IE 8 display them differently?

    - by jasongetsdown
    I'm working on a site that will go on my company's intranet. I developed it locally on my computer, checking it in different browsers and on colleague's computers, and when it was done I handed it off to IT. They put identical copies on a staging server, and on the production server. This is a site built only with html, javascript, and css. No server side scripting. It also uses a DWF viewer plugin from Autodesk. It is a single standalone page (not part of a CMS) that allows users to load drawings into the viewer and then click to see info from a database of space info saved in a series of js arrays (the space DB software spits out a js file with all the info listed in array literals, creating a crap ton of global variables - ugh, but I digress). When I followed their links (using IE 8) the version on the staging server looked as expected, but the layout is hosed on the version from the production server. Specifically, it seems like a div that is supposed to flow to the right of a div that is float: left is displaying below the floated div at full width, as though it was clear: left (which it is not). It also has the wrong height. I downloaded the files from each and they are identical to my local version. Frustrated, I cleared my browser's cache, restarted my computer, checked it on a colleague's computer who also has IE 8. All the same issue. Staging server good. Production server bad. Finally I uninstalled IE 8 and looked at it in IE 6. Both versions looked fine. So, to recap. Two different servers. No server side scripting. Identical files. One browser agrees they are identical, the other does not. What could cause this?

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  • Generating jquery 'rules' from business model to UI in asp.net mvc

    - by jim
    Hi all, I've had a good look around and am certain that there's no matching question on SO, so here goes. Has anyone created a 'helper' method on their model that generates jquery (or plain javascript) rules validation dynamically, based on the criteria/rules that are contained within the object and taken from a repository (i.e. DB). What i'm thinking of is a discrete set of partial views (and associated models) that have rules at the business logic 'level' and rather than (or in combination with) validating the rule(s) at postback, translating the same rules into tightly focussed jquery methods that work identically at client (js) and server (c#) levels. I can see benefits here re performance. Also, the rules definitions could be created in a single place (in c#) and the jquery generated off of that, thus allowing single edits to update both code streams. I appreciate that there would be limitations imposed by language specific contstraints but the general principle could be quite interesting if used appropriately. I'm also aware that testibility could be an issue when using two different language structures and hoping to achieve similar test outcomes - but those aside... any thoughts or experiences of similar out there?? cheers jimi

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  • Can a Snapshot transaction fail and only partially commit in a TransactionScope?

    - by Travis Brooks
    Greetings I stumbled onto a problem today that seems sort of impossible to me, but its happening...I'm calling some database code in c# that looks something like this: using(var tran = MyDataLayer.Transaction()) { MyDataLayer.ExecSproc(new SprocTheFirst(arg1, arg2)); MyDataLayer.CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql(arg1, argEtc); tran.Commit(); } I've simplified this a bit for posting, but whats going on is MyDataLayer.Transaction() makes a TransactionScope with the IsolationLevel set to Snapshot and TransactionScopeOption set to Required. This code gets called hundreds of times a day, and almost always works perfectly. However after reviewing some data I discovered there are a handful of records created by "SprocTheFirst" but no corresponding data from "CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql". The only way that records should exist in the tables I'm looking at is from SprocTheFirst, and its only ever called in this one function, so if its called and succeeded then I would expect CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql would get called and succeed because its all in the same TransactionScope. Its theoretically possible that some other dev mucked around in the DB, but I don't think they have. We also log all exceptions, and I can find nothing unusual happening around the time that the records from SprocTheFirst were created. So, is it possible that a transaction, or more properly a declarative TransactionScope, with Snapshot isolation level can fail somehow and only partially commit?

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  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • wpf progress bar slows 10x times serial port communications... how could be possible that?

    - by D_Guidi
    I know that this could look a dumb question, but here's my problem. I have a worker dialog that "hides" a backgroundworker, so in a worker thread I do my job, I report the progress in a standard way and then I show the results in my WPF program. The dialog contains a simply animated gif and a standard wpf progress bar, and when a progress is notified I set Value property. All lokks as usual and works well for any kind of job, like web service calls, db queries, background elaboration and so on. For my job we use also many "couplers", card readers that reads data from smart card, that are managed with native C code that access to serial port (so, I don't use .NET SerialPort object). I have some nunit tests and I read a sample card in 10 seconds, but using my actual program, under the backgroundworker and showing my worker dialog, I need 1.30 minutes to do the SAME job. I struggled into problem for days until I decide to remove the worker dialog, and without dialog I obtain the same performances of the tests! So I investigated, and It's not the dialog, not the animated gif, but the wpf progress bar! Simply the fact that a progress bar is shown (so, no animation, no Value set called, nothing of nothing) slows serialport communicatitons. Looks incredible? I've tested this behavior and it's exactly what happens.

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  • Strange data swapping error occurs when I attempt to update rows in my table from another table in m

    - by Wesley
    So I have a table of data that is 10,000 lines long. Several of the columns in the table simply describe information about one of the columns, meaning, that only one column has the content, and the rest of the columns describe the location of the content (its for a book). Right now, only 6,000 of the 10,000 rows' content column is filled with its content. Rows 6-10,000's content column simply says null. I have another table in the db that has the content for rows 6,000-10,000, with the correct corresponding primary key which would (seemingly) make it easy to update the 10,000 row table. I have been trying an update query such as the following: UPDATE table(10,000) SET content_column = (SELECT content FROM table(6,000-10,000) WHERE table(10,000).id = table(6-10,000.id) Which kind of works, the only problem is that it pulls in the data from the second table just fine, but it replaces the existing content column with null. So rows 1-6,000's content column become null, and rows 6-10,000's content column have the correct values...Pretty strange I thought anyway. Does anybody have any thoughts about where I am going wrong? If you could show me a better sql query, I would appreciate it! Thanks

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  • Oracle User definied aggregate function for varray of varchar

    - by baju
    I am trying to write some aggregate function for the varray and I get this error code when I'm trying to use it with data from the DB: ORA-00600 internal error code, arguments: [kodpunp1], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [] [koxsihread1], [0], [3989], [45778], [], [], [], [], [], [], [], [] Code of the function is really simple(in fact it does nothing ): create or replace TYPE "TEST_VECTOR" as varray(10) of varchar(20) ALTER TYPE "TEST_VECTOR" MODIFY LIMIT 4000 CASCADE create or replace type Test as object( lastVector TEST_VECTOR, STATIC FUNCTION ODCIAggregateInitialize(sctx in out Test) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateIterate(self in out Test, value in TEST_VECTOR) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateMerge(self IN OUT Test, ctx2 IN Test) return number, MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateTerminate(self IN Test, returnValue OUT TEST_VECTOR, flags IN number) return number ); create or replace type body Test is STATIC FUNCTION ODCIAggregateInitialize(sctx in out Test) return number is begin sctx := Test(TEST_VECTOR()); return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateIterate(self in out Test, value in TEST_VECTOR) return number is begin self.lastVector := value; return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateMerge(self IN OUT Test, ctx2 IN Test) return number is begin return ODCIConst.Success; end; MEMBER FUNCTION ODCIAggregateTerminate(self IN Test, returnValue OUT TEST_VECTOR, flags IN number) return number is begin returnValue := self.lastVector; return ODCIConst.Success; end; end; create or replace FUNCTION test_fn (input TEST_VECTOR) RETURN TEST_VECTOR PARALLEL_ENABLE AGGREGATE USING Test; Next I create some test data: create table t1_test_table( t1_id number not null, t1_value TEST_VECTOR not null, Constraint PRIMARY_KEY_1 PRIMARY KEY (t1_id) ) Next step is to put some data to the table insert into t1_test_table (t1_id,t1_value) values (1,TEST_VECTOR('x','y','z')) Now everything is prepared to perform queries: Select test_fn(TEST_VECTOR('y','x')) from dual Query above work well Select test_fn(t1_value) from t1_test_table where t1_id = 1 Version of Oracle DBMS I use: 11.2.0.3.0 Does anyone tried do such a thing? What can be the reason that it does not work? How to solve it? Thanks in advance for help.

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  • Displaying code with <pre> tags.

    - by iMaster
    Currently I'm using <pre><code> code here </code><pre> to display code. I'm pulling this information from a DB for a blog. The problem I'm having is that some of the code isn't showing. For example, in the source code I have this: <pre><code><br /> echo '<ul class="mylist"><li><ul class="left">'; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo '</ul></li>'; echo'<li><ul class="right">'; } echo '<li>$name</li>'; ++$i; } echo '</ul></li>'; echo '</ul>'; ?> But all that shows up is this: echo ''; foreach($nameArray as $name) { if($countervar == $half) { echo ''; echo''; } echo '$name'; ++$i; } echo ' An there's some really weird formatting/spacing issues as well. Any ideas as to what is causing this? I should also mention that some of the other sets of code show up just fine.

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  • How to write automated tests for SQL queries?

    - by James
    The current system we are adopting at work is to write some extremely complex queries which perform multiple calculations and have multiple joins / sub-queries. I don't think I am experienced enough to say if this is correct or not so I am agreeing and attempting to function with this system as it has clear benefits. The problem we are having at the moment is that the person writing the queries makes a lot of mistakes and assumes everything is correct. We have now assigned a tester to analyse all of the queries but this still proves extremely time consuming and stressful. I would like to know how we could create an automated procedure (without specifically writing it with code if possible as I can work out how to do that the long way) to verify a set of 10+ different inputs, verify the output data and say if the calculations are correct. I know I could write a script using specific data in the database and create a script using c# (the db is SQL Server) and verify all the values coming out but I would like to know what the official "standard" is as my experience is lacking in this area and I would like to improve. I am happy to add more information if required, add a comment if necessary. Thank you. Edit: I am using c#

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