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  • Dynamic ASP.NET controls using Infragistics

    - by Emil D
    So, in my asp.net webapp I need to dynamically load a custom control, based on the selected value of a dropdown list.That seems to work at first glance, but for some reason all infragistics controls that I have in my custom control appear, but won't work.I get a "Can't init [controlname]" warning in my browser.If I declare my custom control statically, this problem doesn't apprear Here's my code: Markup: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="GenericReportGUI.ascx.cs" Inherits="GenericReportGUI" %> <%@ Register assembly="Infragistics35.WebUI.Misc.v8.3, Version=8.3.20083.1009,Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=7dd5c3163f2cd0cb" namespace="Infragistics.WebUI.Misc" tagprefix="igmisc" %> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="myUpdatePanel" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <igmisc:WebPanel ID="WebPanel1" runat="server"> <Template> <div> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="Placeholder" runat="server"> </asp:PlaceHolder> </div> </Template> </igmisc:WebPanel> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Code-behind: public partial class GenericReportGUI : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected override void OnPreRender( EventArgs e ) { base.OnPreRender(e); loadCustomControl(); } protected void loadCustomControl() { Placeholder.Controls.Clear(); string controlPath = getPath(); //getPath() returns the path to the .ascx file we need to load, based on the selected value of a dropdownlist try { Control newControl = LoadControl( controlPath ); Placeholder.Controls.Add( newControl ); } catch { //if the desired control cannot be loaded, display nothing } myUpdatePanel.Update();//Update the UpdatePanel that contains the custom control } } I'm a total noob when it comes to asp.net, so any help with this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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  • HttpRequest.BeginWebRequest not executing asynchronously

    - by Shawn Simon
    I have the following code: Private Function CreateRequest() As HttpWebRequest Dim request As HttpWebRequest = HttpWebRequest.Create(_url) request.Method = "POST" request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Dim postData As String = String.Join("&", GetPostData().Select(Function(s) String.Format("{0}={1}", s.Key, HttpUtility.UrlEncode(s.Value))).ToArray) Dim data As Byte() = (New ASCIIEncoding).GetBytes(postData) request.Timeout = _maxTimeoutSeconds * 1000 Dim stream = request.GetRequestStream stream.Write(data, 0, data.Length) stream.Close() Return request End Function Public Sub SendAsync(ByVal callback As Action(Of ResponseBase)) Dim request = CreateRequest() _attemptCount += 1 Dim reqID As Integer If _loggingContext IsNot Nothing Then Try reqID = Log.NotesRequest(_url.ToString, GetPostData, _loggingContext) Catch ex As Exception ErrorTracker.LogError(ex) End Try End If Dim responseState As New ResponseState responseState.LoggedNotesRequestID = reqID responseState.Request = request responseState.Callback = callback Dim response = request.BeginGetResponse(New AsyncCallback(AddressOf RespCallback), responseState) End Sub Private Sub RespCallback(ByVal ar As IAsyncResult) Dim responseState As ResponseState = CType(ar.AsyncState, ResponseState) ' Process response... I set up the request to go to a mock server which sleeps for 30 seconds. When I call BeginGetResponse, the application just waits at that line of code for the response. I want it to carry on with the app, and then just run the callback whenever it finishes. This code is run from a web page, and my callback just logs the response and sends an email. I don't want to use to have to wait for the response.

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  • Access denied when trying to read information about SharePoint groups

    - by strongopinions
    I am trying to get the membership of a group in WSS 3.0. I am doing this in an elevated permissions block. Here is the code: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(SPContext.Current.Site.ID)) { using (SPWeb rootWeb = site.RootWeb) { SPGroup gAdmins = rootWeb.SiteGroups["Admins"]; } } }); I get taken to the "access denied" SharePoint screen when I run this code. The group exists. The identity of the application pool for the web application is in the dbo role in the content database. The code works on my development server, but not on another server, which leads me to believe there is something wrong with the permissions or configuration on this server, maybe something in dcomcnfg? Here are some lines from the SharePoint log that seem to be related: PermissionMask check failed. asking for 0x08000000, have 0x00000000 Unknown SPRequest error occurred. More information: 0x80070005 Access Denied for /Pages/UserAdmin.aspx. StackTrace: Microsoft.SharePoint.Utilities.SPUtility:Void HandleAccessDenied(System.Exception), Microsoft.SharePoint.SPGlobal:Void HandleUnauthorizedAccessException(System.UnauthorizedAccessException), .... [UserAdmin.aspx hosts my custom web part containing the code]

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  • SQL Exception: "Impersonate Session Security Context" cannot be called in this batch because a simul

    - by kasey
    When opening a connection to SQL Server 2005 from our web app, we occasionally see this error: "Impersonate Session Security Context" cannot be called in this batch because a simultaneous batch has called it. We use MARS and connection pooling. The exception originates from the following piece of code: protected SqlConnection Open() { SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(); connection.ConnectionString = m_ConnectionString; if (connection != null) { try { connection.Open(); if (m_ExecuteAsUserName != null) { string sql = Format("EXECUTE AS LOGIN = {0};", m_ExecuteAsUserName); ExecuteCommand(connection, sql); } } catch (Exception exception) { connection.Close(); connection = null; } } return connection; } I found an MS Connect article which suggests that the error is caused when a previous command has not yet terminated before the EXECUTE AS LOGIN command is sent. Yet how can this be if the connection has only just been opened? Could this be something to do with connection pooling interacting strangely with MARS? UPDATE: For the short-term we have implemented a workaround by clearing out the connection pool whenever this happens, to get rid of the bad connection, as it otherwise keeps getting handed back to various users. (Not too bad as this only happens a couple of times a day.) But if anyone has any further ideas, we are still looking out for a real solution...

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  • Change the Default Application Pool in IIS7 using .net?

    - by EdenMachine
    I'm using the following function to create a IIS7 Application and/or Virtual Directory. How would I also set the Application to use a different Application Pool? Private Sub CreateVirtualDir(ByVal WebSite As String, ByVal AppName As String, ByVal Path As String, Optional ByVal IsApplication As Boolean = True, Optional ByVal RunScripts As Boolean = True, Optional ByVal IsWrite As Boolean = True) Dim IISSchema As New System.DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry("IIS://" & WebSite & "/Schema/AppIsolated") Dim CanCreate As Boolean = Not IISSchema.Properties("Syntax").Value.ToString.ToUpper() = "BOOLEAN" IISSchema.Dispose() If CanCreate Then Dim PathCreated As Boolean Try Dim IISAdmin As New System.DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry("IIS://" & WebSite & "/W3SVC/1/Root") 'make sure folder exists If Not System.IO.Directory.Exists(Path) Then System.IO.Directory.CreateDirectory(Path) PathCreated = True End If 'If the virtual directory already exists then delete it For Each VD As System.DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry In IISAdmin.Children If VD.Name = AppName Then IISAdmin.Invoke("Delete", New String() {VD.SchemaClassName, AppName}) IISAdmin.CommitChanges() Exit For End If Next VD 'Create and setup new virtual directory Dim VDir As System.DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry = IISAdmin.Children.Add(AppName, "IIsWebVirtualDir") VDir.Properties("Path").Item(0) = Path If IsApplication Then VDir.Properties("AppFriendlyName").Item(0) = AppName End If VDir.Properties("EnableDirBrowsing").Item(0) = False VDir.Properties("AccessRead").Item(0) = True VDir.Properties("AccessExecute").Item(0) = False VDir.Properties("AccessWrite").Item(0) = IsWrite VDir.Properties("AccessScript").Item(0) = RunScripts VDir.Properties("AuthNTLM").Item(0) = True VDir.Properties("EnableDefaultDoc").Item(0) = True VDir.Properties("DefaultDoc").Item(0) = "default.htm,default.aspx,default.asp" VDir.Properties("AspEnableParentPaths").Item(0) = True 'VDir.Properties("AppCreate").Item(0) = False VDir.CommitChanges() 'the following are acceptable params 'INPROC = 0 'OUTPROC = 1 'POOLED = 2 If IsApplication Then VDir.Invoke("AppCreate", 1) Else VDir.Invoke("AppCreate", False) End If Catch Ex As Exception If PathCreated Then System.IO.Directory.Delete(Path) End If 'MsgBox(Ex.Message) End Try End If End Sub

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  • C# average function without overflow exception

    - by Ron Klein
    .NET Framework 3.5. I'm trying to calculate the average of some pretty large numbers. For instance: using System; using System.Linq; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var items = new long[] { long.MaxValue - 100, long.MaxValue - 200, long.MaxValue - 300 }; try { var avg = items.Average(); Console.WriteLine(avg); } catch (OverflowException ex) { Console.WriteLine("can't calculate that!"); } Console.ReadLine(); } } Obviously, the mathematical result is 9223372036854775607 (long.MaxValue - 200), but I get an exception there. This is because the implementation (on my machine) to the Average extension method, as inspected by .NET Reflector is: public static double Average(this IEnumerable<long> source) { if (source == null) { throw Error.ArgumentNull("source"); } long num = 0L; long num2 = 0L; foreach (long num3 in source) { num += num3; num2 += 1L; } if (num2 <= 0L) { throw Error.NoElements(); } return (((double) num) / ((double) num2)); } I know I can use a BigInt library (yes, I know that it is included in .NET Framework 4.0, but I'm tied to 3.5). But I still wonder if there's a pretty straight forward implementation of calculating the average of integers without an external library. Do you happen to know about such implementation? Thanks!! UPDATE: The previous example, of three large integers, was just an example to illustrate the overflow issue. The question is about calculating an average of any set of numbers which might sum to a large number that exceeds the type's max value. Sorry about this confusion. I also changed the question's title to avoid additional confusion. Thanks all!!

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  • JQuery BlockUI - How to unblock UI after file download?

    - by Dan
    Using ASP.Net, JQuery and BlockUI, I'm trying to unblock the UI after a download file dialog is shown. I block the UI when export button is clicked: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#<%= BtnExport.ClientID%>').click(function(){ $.blockUI(); }); }); </script> After this, I generate the file server side using: private void SendFileToUser(byte[] file, string contentType, string filename) { Response.Clear(); Response.ContentType = contentType; Response.AppendHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename="+filename); Response.OutputStream.Write(file,0,file.Length); Response.OutputStream.Flush(); Response.End(); } After this code has executed, I would like to unblock the UI. I have considered different options: Poll using Ajax calls to see if the file has been generated. Store the file in Session and redirect to same page and generate download then. But both options seem ackward, and I think there must be a clever JavaScript way to get a handle on or wait for a file dialog. Any suggestions?

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  • WCF timeout exception on calling service on 11th time

    - by Sergej Andrejev
    I'm creating a WCF service and stumbled with request timeout problem. When I load test the service the 11th call always fails with "System.Net.WebException: The operation has timed out". I have read that would happen if serviceThrotling is set to defaults so I added following lines to my service configuration file <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- ... --> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentCalls="100" maxConcurrentSessions="100" maxConcurrentInstances="100" /> </behavior> But this doesn't help. I thought that closing the proxy might be a problem, but I do close all proxies. try { response = service.GetCustomerHdQuotes(request); } finally { try { if (service.State != CommunicationState.Faulted) service.Close(); else service.Abort(); // Abort if the State is Faulted. } catch (Exception) { service.Abort(); } } I also have an idea that inside service some resources pile up preventing service to accept new connections, but the fact that this is always 11th request points that this is more likely due to some configuration problems. Can anybody help me with that?

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  • Asynchronous pages in the ASP.NET framework - where are the other threads and how is it reattached?

    - by rkrauter
    Sorry for this dumb question on Asynchronous operations. This is how I understand it. IIS has a limited set of worker threads waiting for requests. If one request is a long running operation, it will block that thread. This leads to fewer threads to serve requests. Way to fix this - use asynchronous pages. When a request comes in, the main worker thread is freed and this other thread is created in some other place. The main thread is thus able to serve other requests. When the request completes on this other thread, another thread is picked from the main thread pool and the response is sent back to the client. 1) Where are these other threads located? 2) IF ASP.NET likes creating new threads, why not increase the number of threads in the main worker pool - they are all running on the same machine anyway? 3) If the main thread hands off a request to this other thread, why does the request not get disconnected? It magically hands off the request to another worker thread somewhere else and when the long running process completes, it picks a thread from the main worker pool and sends response to the client. I am amazed...but how does that work?

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  • Is VB Really Case Insensitive?

    - by Otaku
    I'm not trying to start an argument here, but for whatever reason it's typically stated that VB is case insensitive and C languages aren't (and somehow that is a good thing). But here's my question: Where exactly is VB case insensitive? When I type... Dim ss As String Dim SS As String ...into the VS2008 IDE the second one has a warning of "Local variable 'SS' is already declared in the current block". In VBA VBE, it doesn't immediately kick an error, but rather just auto-corrects the case. Am I missing something here with this argument that VB is not case sensitive? (Also, if you know or care to answer, why would that be a bad thing?) EDIT: Why am I even asking this question? I've used VB in many of it's dialects for years now, sometimes as a hobbyist, sometimes for small business-related programs in a workgroup. As of the last 6 months I've been working on a big project, much bigger than I anticipated. Much of the sample source code out there is in C#. I don't have any burning desire to learn C#, but if there are things I'm missing out on that C# offers that VB doesn't (an opposite would be VB.NET offers XML Literals), then I'd like to know more about that feature. So in this case, it's often argued that C languages are case sensitive and that's good and VB is case insensitive and that is bad. I'd like to know A) how exactly is VB case insensitive because every single example in the code editor becomes case sensititive (meaning case gets corrected) whether I want it or not and B) is this compelling enough for me to consider moving to C# if VB.NET case is somehow limiting what I could do with code?

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  • PGP Encrypt from C# using GnuPG

    - by Kishore
    Hello All, I'm trying to encrypt a incoming document in C#, and I'm using GnuPG with input redirection. I need to use -se(sign and encrypt) in a single step, which requires entering passphrase. But for some reason, input redirection is not working. Appreciate your help. Control is going to else block. I'm not sure if there is deadlock or child process(gpg.exe) waiting for the input. pgpproc = new Process(); pgpproc.StartInfo.FileName = exeFilePath; pgpproc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = false; pgpproc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = true; pgpproc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; pgpproc.StartInfo.Arguments = "-a -o C:\PGPStaging\output.pgp -se -r recipientID C:\PGPStaging\input.txt"; pgpproc.StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; pgpproc.Start(); StreamWriter myStreamWriter = pgpproc.StandardInput; myStreamWriter.Write("*****"); myStreamWriter.Close(); if (pgpproc.WaitForExit(waittime)) { //success } else { //failure pgpproc.Kill(); pgpproc.WaitForExit(); } `

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  • JEE6 Global JNDI Name and Maven Deployment

    - by wobblycogs
    I'm having some problems with the global JNDI names of my EJB resources which is (or at least will) cause my JNDI look ups to fail. The project is being developed on Netbeans and is a standard Maven Web Application. When my application is deployed to GF3.0 the application name is set to something like: com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT which is all well and good from Netbeans point of view because it ensures the name is unique but it also means all the EJBs get global names such as this: java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService This, of course, is going to cause problems because every time the version changes all the global names change (I've tested this by changing the version and the names indeed changed). The name is being generated from the POM file and it's a concatenation of: <groupId>com.example</groupId> <artifactId>myapp</artifactId> <packaging>war</packaging> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> Up until now I've got away with just injecting all the resources using @EJB but now I need to access the CustomerService EJB from a JSF Converter so I'm doing a JNDI look up like this: try { Context ctx = new InitialContext(); CustomerService customerService = (CustomerService)ctx.lookup( "java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService" ); return customerService.get(submittedValue); } catch( Exception e ) { logger.error( "Failed to convert customer.", e ); return null; } which will clearly break when the application is properly released and the module name changes. So, the million dollar question: how can I set the modle name in maven or how do I recover the module name so that I can programatically build the JNDI name at runtile. I've tried setting it in the web.xml file as suggested by that link but it was ignored. I think I'd rather build the name at runtime as that means there is less scope for screw ups when the application is deployed. Many thanks for any help, I've been tearing my hair out all day on this.

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  • Taking "do the simplest thing that could possible work" too far in TDD: testing for a file-name kno

    - by Support - multilanguage SO
    For TDD you have to Create a test that fail Do the simplest thing that could possible work to pass the test Add more variants of the test and repeat Refactor when a pattern emerge With this approach you're supposing to cover all the cases ( that comes to my mind at least) but I'm wonder if am I being too strict here and if it is possible to "think ahead" some scenarios instead of simple discover them. For instance, I'm processing a file and if it doesn't conform to a certain format I am to throw an InvalidFormatException So my first test was: @Test void testFormat(){ // empty doesn't do anything nor throw anything processor.validate("empty.txt"); try { processor.validate("invalid.txt"); assert false: "Should have thrown InvalidFormatException"; } catch( InvalidFormatException ife ) { assert "Invalid format".equals( ife.getMessage() ); } } I run it and it fails because it doesn't throw an exception. So the next thing that comes to my mind is: "Do the simplest thing that could possible work", so I : public void validate( String fileName ) throws InvalidFormatException { if(fileName.equals("invalid.txt") { throw new InvalidFormatException("Invalid format"); } } Doh!! ( although the real code is a bit more complicated, I found my self doing something like this several times ) I know that I have to eventually add another file name and other test that would make this approach impractical and that would force me to refactor to something that makes sense ( which if I understood correctly is the point of TDD, to discover the patterns the usage unveils ) but: Q: am I taking too literal the "Do the simplest thing..." stuff?

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  • Fix common library functions, or abandon then?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Imagine i have a function with a bug in it: Boolean MakeLocation(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" return City+", "+State; } So the call: MakeLocation("Springfield", "MO"); would return "Springfield, MO" Now there's a slight problem, what if the user called: MakeLocation("Springfield, MO", "OH"); The called it wrong, obviously. But the function would return "Springfield, MO, OH". The system was functioning like this for many years, until i noticed the function being used wrong, and i corrected it. And i also updated the original function to catch such an obvious mistake - in case it's happening elsewhere: Boolean MakeLocation(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" if (City.Contains, ",") throw new EMakeLocationException("City name contains a comma. You probably didn't mean that"); return City+", "+State; } And testing showed the problem fixed. Except we missed an edge case, and the customer found it. So now the moral dillema. Do you ever add new sanity checks, safety checks, assertions to exising code? Or do you call the old function abandoned, and have a new one: Boolean MakeLocation(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" return City+", "+State; } Boolean MakeLocation2(String City, String State) { //Given "Springfield", "MO" //return "Springfield, MO" if (City.Contains, ",") throw new EMakeLocationException("City name contains a comma. You probably didn't mean that"); return City+", "+State; } The same can apply for anything: Question FetchQuestion(Int id) { if (id == 0) throw new EFetchQuestionException("No question ID specified"); ... } Do you risk breaking existing code, at the expense of existing code being wrong?

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  • Data Driven MSTest: DataRow is always null

    - by David Back
    I am having a problem using Visual Studio data driven testing. I have tried to deconstruct this to the simplest example. I am using Visual Studio 2012. I create a new unit test project. I am referencing system data. My code looks like this: namespace UnitTestProject1 { [TestClass] public class UnitTest1 { [DeploymentItem(@"OrderService.csv")] [DataSource("Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.DataSource.CSV", "OrderService.csv", "OrderService#csv", DataAccessMethod.Sequential)] [TestMethod] public void TestMethod1() { try { Debug.WriteLine(TestContext.DataRow["ID"]); } catch (Exception ex) { Assert.Fail(); } } public TestContext TestContext { get; set; } } } I have a very small csv file that I have set the Build Options to to 'Content' and 'Copy Always'. I have added a .testsettings file to the solution, and set enable deployment, and added the csv file. I have tried this with and without |DataDirectory|, and with/without a full path specified (the same path that I get with Environment.CurrentDirectory). I've tried variations of "../" and "../../" just in case. Right now the csv is at the project root level, same as the .cs test code file. I have tried variations with xml as well as csv. TestContext is not null, but DataRow always is. I have not gotten this to work despite a lot of fiddling with it. I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Does mstest create a log anywhere that would tell me if it is failing to find the csv file, or what specific error might be causing DataRow to fail to populate? I have tried the following csv files: ID 1 2 3 4 and ID, Whatever 1,0 2,1 3,2 4,3 So far, no dice.

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  • OutOfMemoryException, large Private Data

    - by Captain Comic
    Hello, In previous series: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2543648/outofmemoryexception-stack-size-is-huge-large-number-of-threads I have a .net windows service that consumes a lot of memory. The GC heap is not big. Also the stack size is not big. What is big is something called a private data. Also I can see in task manager that my application consumes a lot something that taskmanager calls a handle. My application consumes 2326 handles. I believe that these handles are some windows handles that occupy private data. I can see that this private data is occupied by blocks marked as Thread Environment Block. What is that? Screenshot of my application memory usage by VMMap Screenshot of my application memory usage by Task Manager UPDATE I run ProcessExplorer. I have two instances of my service running at the moment. I can see that they consume a lot of virtual memory for Gen2 GC. This look suspicios. Also total reserved for GC Heap size is the same for two processes.

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  • LoginView inside FormView control is not databinding on PostBack

    - by subkamran
    I have a fairly simple form: <asp:FormView> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:LoginView> <RoleGroups> <asp:RoleGroup roles="Blah"> <ContentTemplate> <!-- Databound Controls using Bind/Eval --> </ContentTemplate> </asp:RoleGroup> </RoleGroups> </asp:LoginView> <!-- Databound Controls --> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:LinqDataSource OnUpdating="MyDataSource_Updating" /> I handle my LinqDataSource OnUpdating event and do some work handling some M:N fields. That all works. However, once the update is finished (and I call e.Cancel = true), the LoginView control does not databind its children... so they are all blank. The FormView's viewstate is still fine, as all the rest of the controls outside of the LoginView appear fine. I even handle the FormView_DataBound event and a Trace shows that the FormView is being databound on postback. Why then is the LoginView not keeping its ViewState/being databound? Here's a sample code snippet showing the flow: protected void MyDataSource_Updating(object s, LinqDataSourceUpdateEventArgs e) { try { Controller.DoSomething(newData); // attempts to databind again here fail // frmView.DataBind(); // MyDataSource.DataBind(); // LoginView.DataBind(); } catch { // blah } finally { e.Cancel = true; } }

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  • HttpServletRequest#login() not working in Java.

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, j_security_check just doesn't seem enough for me to perform login process. So, instead of submitting the form to j_security_check i created my own servlet and in that i am programmatically trying to do login. This works but i am not able to redirect to my restricted resource. Can anybody tell me what can be the problem? This is processRequest method of my servlet :- protected void processRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { response.setContentType("text/html;charset=UTF-8"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); try { String strUsername = request.getParameter("txtusername"); String strPassword = request.getParameter("txtpassword"); if(strUsername == null || strPassword == null || strUsername.equals("") || strPassword.equals("")) throw new Exception("Username and/or password missing."); request.login(strUsername, strPassword); System.out.println("Login succeeded!!"); if(request.isUserInRole(ROLES.ADMIN.getValue())){//enum System.out.println("Found in Admin Role"); response.sendRedirect("/Admin/home.jsf"); } else if (request.isUserInRole(ROLES.GENERAL.getValue())) response.sendRedirect("/Common/index.jsf"); else //guard throw new Exception("No role for user " + request.getRemoteUser()); }catch(Exception ex){ //patch work why there needs to be blogger here? System.out.println("Invalid username and/or password!!"); response.sendRedirect("/Common/index.jsf"); }finally { out.close(); } } Everything works fine and i can even see message "Found in Admin Role" but problem is even after authenticating i am not able to redirect my request to some other page. Please help geeks.

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  • Android RestTemplate Ok on emulator but fails on real device

    - by Hossein
    I'm using spring RestTemplate and it works perfect on emulator but if I run my app on real device I get HttpMessageNotWritableException ............ nested exception is java.net.SocketException: Broken pipe Here is some lines of my code(keep in mind my app works perfect on emulator) ............ LoggerUtil.logToFile(TAG, "url is [" + url + "]"); LoggerUtil.logToFile(TAG, "NetworkInfo - " + connectivityManager.getActiveNetworkInfo()); ResponseEntity<T> responseEntity = restTemplate.exchange(url, HttpMethod.POST, requestEntity, clazz); ............. I know my device's network works perfect because all other applications on my device are working and also using device browser I'm able to connect to my server so my server is available. My server is up and running and my device is able to connect to my server so why I get java.net.SocketException: Broken pipe ?!!!!!!! Before I call restTemplate.exchange() I log NetworkInfo and it looks ok -type: WIFI -status: CONNECTED/CONNECTED -isAvailable: true Thanks in advance. Update: It is really weird Even if I use HttpURLConnection, it works perfectly on emulator but on real device I get 400 Bad Request Here is my code HttpURLConnection con = null; try { String url = ....; LoggerUtil.logToFile(TAG, "url [" + url + "]" ); con = (HttpURLConnection) new URL(url).openConnection(); con.setRequestMethod("POST"); con.setRequestProperty("Connection", "Keep-Alive"); con.setDoInput(true); con.setDoOutput(true); con.setUseCaches(false); con.connect(); LoggerUtil.logToFile(TAG, "con.getResponseCode is " + con.getResponseCode()); LoggerUtil.logToFile(TAG, "con.getResponseMessage is " + con.getResponseMessage()); } catch(Throwable t){ LoggerUtil.logToFile(TAG, "*** failed [" + t + "]" ); } in log file I see con.getResponseCode is 400 con.getResponseMessage is Bad Request

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  • RJS error: TypeError: element is null

    - by salilgaikwad
    Hi All, I got RJS error: TypeError: element is null while using ajax. I used in view <%= periodically_call_remote(:url={:action='get_user_list', :id='1'}, :frequency = '5') % in controller render :update do |page| page.replace_html 'chat_area', :partial => 'chat_area', :object = [@chats, @user] if @js_update end in partial chat_area <% if [email protected]? && !show_div(@chats).blank?% <% show_div_id=show_div(@chats) % <% for chat in @chats % " style="display:<%= (chat.id == show_div_id)? 'block' : 'none' %;" <% form_remote_for(:chat, :url => {:controller=>'chats', :action='create', :id=1}, :html={:name = "form_#{chat.id}"}, :complete="resetContent('#{chat.id}');") do |f| % <%= f.hidden_field :sessionNo, :value=chat.sessionNo % <%= f.text_area :chatContent, :id= "chatContent_field_#{chat.id}", :cols="100", :rows="6", :onKeyPress="return submitenter(this,event);" % ')"/ <% end % </div> <% end % <% else % <% end % My div present in index.html.erb <table border="0" width="100%" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tbody><tr> <td align="left" width="80%" valign="top" style=""> <%= text_area :chat, :chatContent, :id=> "chatContent_field", :cols=>"100", :rows=>"6" %> </td> <td align="left" width="20%" valign="bottom" style="padding-left:10px;padding-left:10px;x" > <div id="chat_area"> <%= render :partial => 'chat_area' %> </div> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> Any help is appreciated. Regards, Salil Gaikwad

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  • Trouble converting an MP3 file to a WAV file using Naudio

    - by WebDevHobo
    Naudio Library: http://naudio.codeplex.com/ I'm trying to convert an MP3 file to a WAV file, but I've run in to a small error. I know what's going wrong, but I don't really know how to go about fixing it. Here's the piece of code I'm running: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using(Mp3FileReader reader = new Mp3FileReader(@"path\to\MP3")) { using(WaveFileWriter writer = new WaveFileWriter(@"C:\test.wav", new WaveFormat())) { int counter = 0; while(reader.Read(test, counter, test.Length + counter) != 0) { writer.WriteData(test, counter, test.Length + counter); counter += 512; } } } } reader.Read() goes into the Mp3FileReader class, and the method looks like this: public override int Read(byte[] sampleBuffer, int offset, int numBytes) { if (numBytes % waveFormat.BlockAlign != 0) //throw new ApplicationException("Must read complete blocks"); numBytes -= (numBytes % waveFormat.BlockAlign); return mp3Stream.Read(sampleBuffer, offset, numBytes); } mp3Stream is an object of the Stream class. The problem is: I'm getting an ArgumentException. MSDN says that this is because the sum of offset and numBytes is greater than the length of sampleBuffer. Documentation: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.io.stream.read.aspx This happens because I increase the counter every time, but the size of the byte array test remains the same. What I've been wondering is: do I need to increase the size of the array dynamically, or do I need to find out the needed size at the beginning and set it right away? And also, instead of 512, the method in Mp3FileReader returns 365 the first time. Which is the size of a whole block. But I'm writing the full 512. I'm basically just using the read to check if I'm not at the end of the file yet. Do I need to catch the return value and do something with that, or am I good here?

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  • Dojo addOnLoad, but is Dojo loaded?

    - by adamrice32
    I've encountered what seems like a chicken & egg problem, and have what I think is a logical solution. However, it occurred to me that others must have encountered something similar, so I figured I'd float it out there for the masses. The situation is that I want to use dojo's addOnLoad function to queue up a number of callbacks which should be executed after the DOM has completed rendering on the client side. So what I'm doing is as follows: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="dojo.xd.js"></script> ... </head> <body> ... <script type="text/javascript"> dojo.addOnLoad( ... ); dojo.addOnLoad( ... ); ... </script> </body> </html> Now, the issue is that I seem to be calling dojo.addOnLoad before the entire Dojo library has been downloaded the browser. This makes sense in a way, because the inline SCRIPT contents should be executed before the entire DOM is loaded (and the normal body onload callback is triggered). My question is this - is my approach sound, or would it make more sense to register a normal/standard body onload JavaScript callback to call a function, which does the same work that each of the dojo.addOnLoads is doing in the SCRIPT block. Of course, this begs the question, why would you ever then use dojo.addOnLoad if you're not guaranteed that the Dojo library will be loaded prior to using the library? Hopefully this situation makes sense to someone other than me. Seems like someone else may have encountered this situation. Thoughts? Best Regards, Adam Rice

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  • Algorithm to get through a maze

    - by Sam
    Hello, We are currently programming a game (its a pretty unknown language: modula 2), And the problem we encountered is the following: we have a maze (not a perfect maze) in a 17 x 12 grid. The computer has to generate a way from the starting point (9, 12) to the end point (9, 1). I found some algorithms but they dont work when the robot has to go back: xxxxx x => x x xxx or: xxxxx x xxxxxx x x x x x xxxxxx x => x xxxxxxxxx I found a solution for the first example type but then the second type couldn't be solved and the solution I made up for the second type would cause the robot to get stuck in the first type of situation. It's a lot of code so i'll give the idea: WHILE (end destination not reached) DO { try to go right, if nothing blocks you: go right if you encounter a block, try up until you can go right, if you cant go up anymore try going down until you can go right, (starting from the place you first were blocked), if you cant go down anymore, try one step left and fill the spaces you tested with blocks. } This works for the first type of problem ... not for the second one. Now it could be that i started wrong so i am open for better algorithms or solutions specificaly to how i could improve my algorithm. Thanks a lot!!

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  • jQuery.width() & DOM refresh

    - by o_O Tync
    My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

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  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

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