Search Results

Search found 11306 results on 453 pages for 'methods'.

Page 364/453 | < Previous Page | 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371  | Next Page >

  • Looping through an List to select an Element in Selenium

    - by ChrisMcLellan
    I'm attempting to write a Page Class for Links within the Header of the website I'm testing. I have the following link structure below <ul> <li><a href="/" title="Home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="/AboutUs" title="About Us">About Us</a> </li> <li><a href="/Account" title="Account">Account</a></li> <li><a href="/Account/Orders" title="Orders">Orders</a></li> <li><a href="/AdministrationPortal" title="Administration Portal">Administration Portal</a></li> </ul> What I want to do is store these into a List, then when a user select one of the links, it will take then to the page they should go to. I have started with the following code below List<IWebElement> headerElements = new List<IWebElement>(); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Home"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("About Us"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Account"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Orders"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Administration Portal"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Log in / Register"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Log off"))); I was thinking for using a for loop to do this, would this be the best way. I'm trying to avoid writting methods like the one below for each link public void SelectCreateNewReferralLink() { var selectAboutUsLink = ( new WebDriverWait(WebDriver, new TimeSpan(50))).Until (ExpectedConditions.ElementExists(By.CssSelector("#main > a:nth-of-type(1)"))); selectCreateNewReferralLink.Click(); } I'm using C#, with WebDriver attempting to write this Any Help would be great Thanks Chris

    Read the article

  • memcache is not storing data accross requests

    - by morpheous
    I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

    Read the article

  • Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

    - by williamjones
    I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

    Read the article

  • Vertically Aligning Elements

    - by Naz
    I'm trying to understand how to center elements within a div. I have this basic code I am working with and am trying to get the 'This is a button' element to be in the center <body> <div style="width:960px;background-color:#d7d7d7;"> <div style=" width:400px; padding:10px; height:auto; background-color:#006699; display:inline-block; "> <p> Vivamus vel sapien. Praesent nisl tortor, laoreet eu, dapibus quis, egestas non, mauris. Cum sociis natoque penatibus et magnis dis parturient montes, nascetur ridiculus mus. Vivamus vel sapien. Praesent nisl tortor, laoreet eu, dapibus quis, egestas non, mauris. Cum sociis natoque penatibus et magnis dis parturient montes, nascetur ridiculus mus.</p> </div> <div style=" width:100px; padding:10px; height:auto; background-color:#b1b1b1; float:right; display:inline-block; margin:auto!important; vertical-align:middle; "> <p>This is a button</p> </div> </div> </body> It's essentially 1 div, divided into 2 with text on the left hand side and a 'This is a button' label to be in the center of the right side, but I can;t figure out how to get it to center, I've tried all sorts of methods. All help/advice is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Correct Delphi compiler switches to stop in the user's code, not my component's

    - by Jeremy Mullin
    I'm modifying our VCL components so the end user's application links to our dcu files, instead of building our source code each time. We have everything working, but I want the debugger to stop on the user's code when an exception is raised. At first it would stop in our dcu and open the CPU window. I was able to prevent that by removing debug info from the dcu files. But now it still doesn't stop in the users code (like DevExpress libraries and others do). The following screencast is a short example. The first time I cause an exception in the DevExpress code, and the debugger correctly stops in my button event. The second time I cause an exception in my components, but the debugger doesn't have my button event on the call stack, and doesn't show me where the problem was. Any ideas why? http://screencast.com/t/NjhlOTRk Currently building the DCU's with these options: -$W+ -$D- -h -w -q Update: The TDataSet methods in between my component and the button event seem to cause this behavior. If I instead call a direct method of my table, I get the expected behavior. I'm guessing there isn't anything I can do about this, but I'm still curious why it happens.

    Read the article

  • With this generics code why am I getting "Argument 1: cannot convert from 'ToplogyLibrary.Relationsh

    - by Greg
    Hi, Any see why I'm getting a "Argument 1: cannot convert from 'ToplogyLibrary.RelationshipBase' to 'TRelationship'" in the code below, in CreateRelationship() ? public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, TNode> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<TRelationship> Relationships { get; private set; } // Constructors protected TopologyBase() { Nodes = new Dictionary<TKey, TNode>(); Relationships = new List<TRelationship>(); } // Methods public TNode CreateNode(TKey key) { var node = new TNode {Key = key}; Nodes.Add(node.Key, node); return node; } public void CreateRelationship(TNode parent, TNode child) { // Validation if (!Nodes.ContainsKey(parent.Key) || !Nodes.ContainsKey(child.Key)) { throw new ApplicationException("Can not create relationship as either parent or child was not in the graph: Parent:" + parent.Key + ", Child:" + child.Key); } // Add Relationship var r = new RelationshipBase<TNode>(); r.Parent = parent; r.Child = child; Relationships.Add(r); // *** HERE *** "Argument 1: cannot convert from 'ToplogyLibrary.RelationshipBase<TNode>' to 'TRelationship'" } } public class RelationshipBase<TNode> { public TNode Parent { get; set; } public TNode Child { get; set; } } public class NodeBase<T> { public T Key { get; set; } public NodeBase() { } public NodeBase(T key) { Key = key; } }

    Read the article

  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to restrict instantiation of an object to only one other (parent) object in VB.NET?

    - by Casey
    VB 2008 .NET 3.5 Suppose we have two classes, Order and OrderItem, that represent some type of online ordering system. OrderItem represents a single line item in an Order. One Order can contain multiple OrderItems, in the form of a List(of OrderItem). Public Class Order Public Property MyOrderItems() as List(of OrderItem) End Property End Class It makes sense that an OrderItem should not exist without an Order. In other words, an OrderItem class should not be able to be instantiated on its own, it should be dependent on an Order class to contain it and instantiate it. However, the OrderItem should be public in scope so that it's properties are accessible to other objects. So, the requirements for OrderItem are: Can not be instantiated as a stand alone object; requires Order to exist. Must be public so that any other object can access it's properties/methods through the Order object. e.g. Order.OrderItem(0).ProductID. OrderItem should be able to be passed to other subs/functions that will operate on it. How can I achieve these goals? Is there a better approach?

    Read the article

  • Calling button in Action Script 3.0

    - by Meko
    I am trying to make button panel. each button have two type btn_home and btn_home_white I am trying to reach those buttons.It is work if I write for each button their own methods like btn_home.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER,overEffect); btn_home_white.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT,outEffect); function overEffect(e:MouseEvent) { var myTweenHight:Tween = new Tween( btn_home,"height",Bounce.easeOut,25,0,3,true); var myTweenHight2:Tween = new Tween(btn_home_white,"height",Bounce.easeOut,0,25,3,true); var myTweenAlpha:Tween = new Tween(btn_home_white,"alpha",Strong.easeOut,0,1,2,true); } function outEffect(e:MouseEvent) { var myTweenHight:Tween = new Tween btn_home,"height",Bounce.easeOut,0,25,3,true); var myTweenHight2:Tween = new Tween(btn_home_white,"height",Bounce.easeOut,25,0,3,true); var myTweenAlpha:Tween = new Tween(btn_home_white,"alpha",Strong.easeOut,1,0,2,true); } But I have 10 buttons as btn_buttonname and btn_buttonname_white . I tryed to create Event listener on stage for all.It works for firts type buttons btn_buttonname but How can I get second type buttons? I tryed e.target["_white"] but it does not work . stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER , overEffect); stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT , outEffect); function overEffect(e:MouseEvent) { var myTweenHight:Tween = new Tween(e.target,"height",Bounce.easeOut,25,0,3,true); trace("height"); var myTweenHight2:Tween = new Tween(e.target["_white"],"height",Bounce.easeOut,0,25,3,true); var myTweenAlpha:Tween = new Tween(e.target["_white"],"alpha",Strong.easeOut,0,1,2,true); } function outEffect(e:MouseEvent) { var myTweenHight:Tween = new Tween(e.target,"height",Bounce.easeOut,0,25,3,true); var myTweenHight2:Tween = new Tween(e.target["_white"],"height",Bounce.easeOut,25,0,3,true); var myTweenAlpha:Tween = new Tween(e.target["_white"],"alpha",Strong.easeOut,1,0,2,true); }

    Read the article

  • How to retrieve view of MultiIndex DataFrame

    - by Henry S. Harrison
    This question was inspired by this question. I had the same problem, updating a MultiIndex DataFrame by selection. The drop_level=False solution in Pandas 0.13 will allow me to achieve the same result, but I am still wondering why I cannot get a view from the MultiIndex DataFrame. In other words, why does this not work?: >>> sat = d.xs('sat', level='day', copy=False) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\pandas\core\frame.py", line 2248, in xs raise ValueError('Cannot retrieve view (copy=False)') ValueError: Cannot retrieve view (copy=False) Of course it could be only because it is not implemented, but is there a reason? Is it somehow ambiguous or impossible to implement? Returning a view is more intuitive to me than returning a copy then later updating the original. I looked through the source and it seems this situation is checked explicitly to raise an error. Alternatively, is it possible to get the same sort of view from any of the other indexing methods? I've experimented but have not been successful. [edit] Some potential implementations are discussed here. I guess with the last question above I'm wondering what the current best solution is to index into arbitrary multiindex slices and cross-sections.

    Read the article

  • ASMX schema varies when using WCF Service

    - by Lijo
    Hi, I have a client (created using ASMX "Add Web Reference"). The service is WCF. The signature of the methods varies for the client and the Service. I get some unwanted parameteres to the method. Note: I have used IsRequired = true for DataMember. Service: [OperationContract] int GetInt(); Client: proxy.GetInt(out requiredResult, out resultBool); Could you please help me to make the schame non-varying in both WCF clinet and non-WCF cliet? Do we have any best practices for that? using System.ServiceModel; using System.Runtime.Serialization; namespace SimpleLibraryService { [ServiceContract(Namespace = "http://Lijo.Samples")] public interface IElementaryService { [OperationContract] int GetInt(); [OperationContract] int SecondTestInt(); } public class NameDecorator : IElementaryService { [DataMember(IsRequired=true)] int resultIntVal = 1; int firstVal = 1; public int GetInt() { return firstVal; } public int SecondTestInt() { return resultIntVal; } } } Binding = "basicHttpBinding" using NonWCFClient.WebServiceTEST; namespace NonWCFClient { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { NonWCFClient.WebServiceTEST.NameDecorator proxy = new NameDecorator(); int requiredResult =0; bool resultBool = false; proxy.GetInt(out requiredResult, out resultBool); Console.WriteLine("GetInt___"+requiredResult.ToString() +"__" + resultBool.ToString()); int secondResult =0; bool secondBool = false; proxy.SecondTestInt(out secondResult, out secondBool); Console.WriteLine("SecondTestInt___" + secondResult.ToString() + "__" + secondBool.ToString()); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Please help.. Thanks Lijo

    Read the article

  • Lookup table size reduction

    - by Ryan
    Hello: I have an application in which I have to store a couple of millions of integers, I have to store them in a Look up table, obviously I cannot store such amount of data in memory and in my requirements I am very limited I have to store the data in an embebedded system so I am very limited in the space, so I would like to ask you about recommended methods that I can use for the reduction of the look up table. I cannot use function approximation such as neural networks, the values needs to be in a table. The range of the integers is not known at the moment. When I say integers I mean a 32 bit value. Basically the idea is use some copmpression method to reduce the amount of memory but without losing many precision. This thing needs to run in hardware so the computation overhead cannot be very high. In my algorithm I have to access to one value of the table do some operations with it and after update the value. In the end what I should have is a function which I pass an index to it and then I get a value, and after I have to use another function to write a value in the table. I found one called tile coding http://www.cs.ualberta.ca/~sutton/book/8/node6.html, this one is based on several look up tables, does anyone know any other method?. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Using memcache together with conventional cache

    - by Industrial
    Hi! Here's the deal. We would have taken the complete static html road to solve performance issues, but since the site will be partially dynamic, this won't work out for us. What we have thought of instead is using memcache + eAccelerator to speed up PHP and take care of caching for the most used data. Here's our two approaches that we have thought of right now: Using memcache on all<< major queries and leaving it alone to do what it does best. Usinc memcache for most commonly retrieved data, and combining with a standard harddrive-stored cache for further usage. The major advantage of only using memcache is of course the performance, but as users increases, the memory usage gets heavy. Combining the two sounds like a more natural approach to us, even though the theoretical compromize in performance. Memcached appears to have some replication features available as well, which may come handy when it's time to increase the nodes. What approach should we use? - Is it stupid to compromize and combine the two methods? Should we insted be focusing on utilizing memcache and instead focusing on upgrading the memory as the load increases with the number of users? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Problems with Json Serialize Dictionary<Enum, Int32>

    - by dbemerlin
    Hi, whenever i try to serialize the dictionary i get the exception: System.ArgumentException: Type 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2[[Foo.DictionarySerializationTest+TestEnum, Foo, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null],[System.Int32, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089]]' is not supported for serialization/deserialization of a dictionary, keys must be strings or object My Testcase is: public class DictionarySerializationTest { private enum TestEnum { A, B, C } public void SerializationTest() { Dictionary<TestEnum, Int32> data = new Dictionary<TestEnum, Int32>(); data.Add(TestEnum.A, 1); data.Add(TestEnum.B, 2); data.Add(TestEnum.C, 3); JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); String result = serializer.Serialize(data); // Throws } public void SerializationStringTest() { Dictionary<String, Int32> data = new Dictionary<String, Int32>(); data.Add(TestEnum.A.ToString(), 1); data.Add(TestEnum.B.ToString(), 2); data.Add(TestEnum.C.ToString(), 3); JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); String result = serializer.Serialize(data); // Succeeds } } Of course i could use .ToString() whenever i enter something into the Dictionary but since it's used quite often in performance relevant methods i would prefer using the enum. My only solution is using .ToString() and converting before entering the performance critical regions but that is clumsy and i would have to change my code structure just to be able to serialize the data. Does anyone have an idea how i could serialize the dictionary as <Enum, Int32>? I use the System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer for serialization.

    Read the article

  • Encrypt a file base upon a pregenerated "key" C#

    - by Anubis
    Hello everyone. I'm trying to determine the best course of action to implement a simple "licensing" system with a partner of mine. The concept is: Generate an encrypted value based upon several internal hardware components. Have the customer send this value to us which we will implement into our key generator. Once we have that, we add any other restrictions on the license (user, expires, etc.). From there we generate a file which we send to the customer they can add to their installation and voila, happy people about. I have the first part all done. My next part is trying to figure out which encryption methodology I would need to use. I already know Symmetric Encryption is pretty much the only route I can take. Most of the information I have found involves .NET already creating a key from its own internal methods. That's a bit of background, my question is: "Which encryption method could I use which would allow me to encrypt the restrictions based upon the "id" I was given from the customer's computer?" I'm writing this in C# by the way. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! Take Care!

    Read the article

  • PHP + MYSQLI: Variable parameter/result binding with prepared statements.

    - by Brian Warshaw
    In a project that I'm about to wrap up, I've written and implemented an object-relational mapping solution for PHP. Before the doubters and dreamers cry out "how on earth?", relax -- I haven't found a way to make late static binding work -- I'm just working around it in the best way that I possibly can. Anyway, I'm not currently using prepared statements for querying, because I couldn't come up with a way to pass a variable number of arguments to the bind_params() or bind_result() methods. Why do I need to support a variable number of arguments, you ask? Because the superclass of my models (think of my solution as a hacked-up PHP ActiveRecord wannabe) is where the querying is defined, and so the find() method, for example, doesn't know how many parameters it would need to bind. Now, I've already thought of building an argument list and passing a string to eval(), but I don't like that solution very much -- I'd rather just implement my own security checks and pass on statements. Does anyone have any suggestions (or success stories) about how to get this done? If you can help me solve this first problem, perhaps we can tackle binding the result set (something I suspect will be more difficult, or at least more resource-intensive if it involves an initial query to determine table structure).

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate mapping of composite foreign keys

    - by Faron
    I have an existing database schema and wish to replace the custom data access code with Fluent.NHibernate. The database schema cannot be changed since it already exists in a shipping product. And it is preferable if the domain objects did not change or only changed minimally. I am having trouble mapping one unusual schema construct illustrated with the following table structure: CREATE TABLE [Container] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item] ( [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Container_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) The existing domain model has the following class structure: The Property class contains other members representing the property's name and value. The ContainerProperty and ItemProperty classes have no additional members. They exist only to identify the owner of the Property. The Container and Item classes have methods that return collections of ContainerProperty and ItemProperty respectively. Additionally, the Container class has a method that returns a collection of all of the Property objects in the object graph. My best guess is that this was either a convenience method or a legacy method that was never removed. The business logic mainly works with Item (as the aggregate root) and only works with a Container when adding or removing Items. I have tried several techniques for mapping this but none work so I won't include them here unless someone asks for them. How would you map this?

    Read the article

  • forward invocation, by hand vs magically?

    - by John Smith
    I have the following two class: //file FruitTree.h @interface FruitTree : NSObject { Fruit * f; Leaf * l; } @end //file FruitTree.m @implementation FruitTree //here I get the number of seeds from the object f @end //file Fruit @interface Fruit : NSObject { int seeds; } -(int) countfruitseeds; @end My question is at the point of how I request the number of seeds from f. I have two choices. Either: Since I know f I can explicitly call it, i.e. I implement the method -(int) countfruitseeds { return [f countfruitseeds]; } Or: I can just use forwardInvocation: - (NSMethodSignature *)methodSignatureForSelector:(SEL)selector { // does the delegate respond to this selector? if ([f respondsToSelector:selector]) return [f methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else if ([l respondsToSelector:selector]) return [l methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else return [super methodSignatureForSelector: selector]; } - (void)forwardInvocation:(NSInvocation *)invocation { [invocation invokeWithTarget:f]; } (Note this is only a toy example to ask my question. My real classes have lots of methods, which is why I am asking.) Which is the better/faster method?

    Read the article

  • How can I implement CRUD operations in a base class for an entity framework app?

    - by hminaya
    I'm working a simple EF/MVC app and I'm trying to implement some Repositories to handle my entities. I've set up a BaseObject Class and a IBaseRepository Interface to handle the most basic operations so I don't have to repeat myself each time: public abstract class BaseObject<T> { public XA.Model.Entities.XAEntities db; public BaseObject() { db = new Entities.XAEntities(); } public BaseObject(Entities.XAEntities cont) { db = cont; } public void Delete(T entity) { db.DeleteObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public void Update(T entity) { db.AcceptAllChanges(); db.SaveChanges(); } } public interface IBaseRepository<T> { void Add(T entity); T GetById(int id); IQueryable<T> GetAll(); } But then I find myself having to implement 3 basic methods in every Repository ( Add, GetById & GetAll): public class AgencyRepository : Framework.BaseObject<Agency>, Framework.IBaseRepository<Agency> { public void Add(Agency entity) { db.Companies.AddObject(entity); db.SaveChanges(); } public Agency GetById(int id) { return db.Companies.OfType<Agency>().FirstOrDefault(x => x.Id == id); } public IQueryable<Agency> GetAll() { var agn = from a in db.Companies.OfType<Agency>() select a; return agn; } } How can I get these into my BaseObject Class so I won't run in conflict with DRY.

    Read the article

  • Delphi TRttiType.GetMethods return zero TRttiMethod instances

    - by conciliator
    I've recently been able to fetch a TRttiType for an interface using TRttiContext.FindType using Robert Loves "GetType"-workaround ("registering" the interface by an explicit call to ctx.GetType, e.g. RType := ctx.GetType(TypeInfo(IMyPrettyLittleInterface));). One logical next step would be to iterate the methods of said interface. Consider program rtti_sb_1; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses SysUtils, Rtti, mynamespace in 'mynamespace.pas'; var ctx: TRttiContext; RType: TRttiType; Method: TRttiMethod; begin ctx := TRttiContext.Create; RType := ctx.GetType(TypeInfo(IMyPrettyLittleInterface)); if RType <> nil then begin for Method in RType.GetMethods do WriteLn(Method.Name); end; ReadLn; end. This time, my mynamespace.pas looks like this: IMyPrettyLittleInterface = interface ['{6F89487E-5BB7-42FC-A760-38DA2329E0C5}'] procedure SomeProcedure; end; Unfortunately, RType.GetMethods returns a zero-length TArray-instance. Are there anyone able to reproduce my troubles? (Note that in my example I've explicitly fetched the TRttiType using TRttiContext.GetType, not the workaround; the introduction is included to warn readers that there might be some unresolved issues regarding rtti and interfaces.) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Do COM Dll References Require Manual Disposal? If so, How?

    - by Drew
    I have written some code in VB that verifies that a particular port in the Windows Firewall is open, and opens one otherwise. The code uses references to three COM DLLs. I wrote a WindowsFirewall class, which Imports the primary namespace defined by the DLLs. Within members of the WindowsFirewall class I construct some of the types defined by the DLLs referenced. The following code isn't the entire class, but demonstrates what I am doing. Imports NetFwTypeLib Public Class WindowsFirewall Public Shared Function IsFirewallEnabled as Boolean Dim icfMgr As INetFwMgr icfMgr = CType(System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type.GetTypeFromProgID("HNetCfg.FwMgr")), INetFwMgr) Dim profile As INetFwProfile profile = icfMgr.LocalPolicy.CurrentProfile Dim fIsFirewallEnabled as Boolean fIsFirewallEnabled = profile.FirewallEnabled return fIsFirewallEnabled End Function End Class I do not reference COM DLLs very often. I have read that unmanaged code may not be cleaned up by the garbage collector and I would like to know how to make sure that I have not introduced any memory leaks. Please tell me (a) if I have introduced a memory leak, and (b) how I may clean it up. (My theory is that the icfMgr and profile objects do allocate memory that remains unreleased until after the application closes. I am hopeful that setting their references equal to nothing will mark them for garbage collection, since I can find no other way to dispose of them. Neither one implements IDisposable, and neither contains a Finalize method. I suspect they may not even be relevant here, and that both of those methods of releasing memory only apply to .Net types.)

    Read the article

  • Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

    - by Mark
    I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

    - by program247365
    I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

    Read the article

  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

    Read the article

  • Sorting out POCO, Repository Pattern, Unit of Work, and ORM

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I'm reading a crapload on all these subjects: POCO Repository Pattern Unit of work Using an ORM mapper ok I see the basic definitions of each in books, etc. but I can't visualize this all together. Meaning an example structure (DL, BL, PL). So what, you have your DL objects that contain your CRUD methods, then your BL objects which are "mapped" using an ORM back to your DL objects? What about DTOs...they're your DL objects right? I'm confused. Can anyone really explain all this together or send me example code? I'm just trying to put this together. I am determining whether to go LINQ to SQL or EF 4 (not sure about NHibrernate yet). Just not getting the concepts as in physical layers and code layers here and what each type of object contains (just properties for DTOs, and CRUDs for your core DL classes that match the table fields???). I just need some guidance here. I'm reading Fowler's books and starting to read Evans but just not all there yet.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371  | Next Page >