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• Sorting out POCO, Repository Pattern, Unit of Work, and ORM

  - by CoffeeAddict

  I'm reading a crapload on all these subjects: POCO Repository Pattern Unit of work Using an ORM mapper ok I see the basic definitions of each in books, etc. but I can't visualize this all together. Meaning an example structure (DL, BL, PL). So what, you have your DL objects that contain your CRUD methods, then your BL objects which are "mapped" using an ORM back to your DL objects? What about DTOs...they're your DL objects right? I'm confused. Can anyone really explain all this together or send me example code? I'm just trying to put this together. I am determining whether to go LINQ to SQL or EF 4 (not sure about NHibrernate yet). Just not getting the concepts as in physical layers and code layers here and what each type of object contains (just properties for DTOs, and CRUDs for your core DL classes that match the table fields???). I just need some guidance here. I'm reading Fowler's books and starting to read Evans but just not all there yet.

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• Problem: writing parameter values to data driven MSTEST output

  - by Shubh

  Hi, I am trying to extract some information about the parameter variants used in an MSTEST data driven test case from trx file. Currently, For data driven tests, I get the output of same testcase with different inputs as a sequence of tags , but there is no info about the value of the variants. Example: Suppose we have a [data driven]TestMethod1() and the data rows contain variations a and b. There are two variations a=1,b=2 for which the test passes and a=3,b=4 for which the test fails. If we can output the info that it was a=1,b=2 which passed and a=3 b=4 which failed in the trx file; the output will be meaningful. Better information about test case runs from the output file alone(without any dependencies). Investigating the test failure without rerunning the whole set If the data rows change in data source(now a=1,b=2 pass and a=5,b=6 fail) , easy to decipher that the errors are different; although the fail sequence is still the same(row 0 pass row 1 fail but now row1 is different) Has any of you gone through a similar problem? What did you follow? I tried to put the parameter value information in the Description attribute of TestMethod, it didnt work. Any other methods you think can work too? thanks, Shubhankar

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• noncopyable static const member class in template class

  - by Dukales

  I have a non-copyable (inherited from boost::noncopyable) class that I use as a custom namespace. Also, I have another class, that uses previous one, as shown here: #include <boost/utility.hpp> #include <cmath> template< typename F > struct custom_namespace : boost::noncopyable { F sqrt_of_half(F const & x) const { using std::sqrt; return sqrt(x / F(2.0L)); } // ... maybe others are not so dummy const/constexpr methods }; template< typename F > class custom_namespace_user { static ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_; public : F poisson() const { return custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(M_PI); } static F square_diagonal(F const & a) { return a * custom_namespace_.sqrt_of_half(1.0L); } }; template< typename F > ::custom_namespace< F > const custom_namespace_user< F >::custom_namespace_(); this code leads to the next error (even without instantiation): error: no 'const custom_namespace custom_namespace_user::custom_namespace_()' member function declared in class 'custom_namespace_user' The next way is not legitimate: template< typename F ::custom_namespace< F const custom_namespace_user< F ::custom_namespace_ = ::custom_namespace< F (); What should I do to declare this two classes (first as noncopyable static const member class of second)? Is this feaseble?

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• Chrome extension custom cursor

  - by the_nakos

  Hi, I building an Google Chrome extension that place some IMG tag in sites. This img tag on :hover must show a custom cursor. The extension uses jQuery as its injected core script. I tried the following methods: 1. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('#myImgId').css({ 'position': 'absolute', 'top':'5px', 'left':'5px', 'cursor':cursor }); This is the best working. On smaller sites its shows the cursor. On slower loading sites it does not. But on little sites it fails sometimes. 2. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('<style>#myImgId{cursor:'+cursor+'}</style>').appendTo('head'); This did nothing at all. 3. In manifest.json I injected the css. "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["http://*/*"], "css": ["css/style.css"], "js": ["j/c.js", "j/s.js"] } The css file just had the cursor:url(icons/cursor.cur) as I don't have idea, how to get real url in a css file. This isn't working at all. I think it must work like this, I didn't find reference for this on code.google though.

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• How can I get the main thread to sleep while waiting for a delgate to be called?

  - by Erik B

  Consider a class with these methods: - (id) initWithFrame: (CGRect) frame { if (!(self = [super init])) return nil; webView = [[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; [webView setDelegate:self]; lock = [[NSConditionLock alloc] initWithCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; return self; } - (void) setHTML: (NSString *) html { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; [webView loadHTMLString:html baseURL:nil]; [lock unlock]; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)aWebView { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_WAIT]; // Locking to be able to unlock and change the condition. [lock unlockWithCondition:LOCK_GO]; } - (NSString *) stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: (NSString *) jsCommand { [lock lockWhenCondition:LOCK_GO]; return [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:jsCommand]; [lock unlock]; } Let's call this class SynchronousUIWebView. From the main thread I execute: webView = [[SynchronousUIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; [webView setHTML:html]; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:jsCommand]; The problem seems to be that the delegate is not called until I leave the current call stack, which I don't since I'm waiting for the delegate call to happen, aka deadlock. To me it seems like the delegate call is pushed to a queue that is called when the current call is done. So the question is can I modify this behavior? Note: The reason this is needed is that I can't execute the JavaScript until the HTML has loaded.

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• forward invocation, by hand vs magically?

  - by John Smith

  I have the following two class: //file FruitTree.h @interface FruitTree : NSObject { Fruit * f; Leaf * l; } @end //file FruitTree.m @implementation FruitTree //here I get the number of seeds from the object f @end //file Fruit @interface Fruit : NSObject { int seeds; } -(int) countfruitseeds; @end My question is at the point of how I request the number of seeds from f. I have two choices. Either: Since I know f I can explicitly call it, i.e. I implement the method -(int) countfruitseeds { return [f countfruitseeds]; } Or: I can just use forwardInvocation: - (NSMethodSignature *)methodSignatureForSelector:(SEL)selector { // does the delegate respond to this selector? if ([f respondsToSelector:selector]) return [f methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else if ([l respondsToSelector:selector]) return [l methodSignatureForSelector:selector]; else return [super methodSignatureForSelector: selector]; } - (void)forwardInvocation:(NSInvocation *)invocation { [invocation invokeWithTarget:f]; } (Note this is only a toy example to ask my question. My real classes have lots of methods, which is why I am asking.) Which is the better/faster method?

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• Need help make these classes use Visitor Pattern and generics

  - by Shervin

  Hi. I need help to generify and implement the visitor pattern. We are using tons of instanceof and it is a pain. I am sure it can be modified, but I am not sure how to do it. Basically we have an interface ProcessData public interface ProcessData { public setDelegate(Object delegate); public Object getDelegate(); //I am sure these delegate methods can use generics somehow } Now we have a class ProcessDataGeneric that implements ProcessData public class ProcessDataGeneric implements ProcessData { private Object delegate; public ProcessDataGeneric(Object delegate) { this.delegate = delegate; } } Now a new interface that retrieves the ProcessData interface ProcessDataWrapper { public ProcessData unwrap(); } Now a common abstract class that implements the wrapper so ProcessData can be retrieved @XmlSeeAlso( { ProcessDataMotorferdsel.class,ProcessDataTilskudd.class }) public abstract class ProcessDataCommon implements ProcessDataWrapper { protected ProcessData unwrapped; public ProcessData unwrap() { return unwrapped; } } Now the implementation public class ProcessDataMotorferdsel extends ProcessDataCommon { public ProcessDataMotorferdsel() { unwrapped = new ProcessDataGeneric(this); } } similarly public class ProcessDataTilskudd extends ProcessDataCommon { public ProcessDataTilskudd() { unwrapped = new ProcessDataGeneric(this); } } Now when I use these classes, I always need to do instanceof ProcessDataCommon pdc = null; if(processData.getDelegate() instanceof ProcessDataMotorferdsel) { pdc = (ProcessDataMotorferdsel) processData.getDelegate(); } else if(processData.getDelegate() instanceof ProcessDataTilskudd) { pdc = (ProcessDataTilskudd) processData.getDelegate(); } I know there is a better way to do this, but I have no idea how I can utilize Generics and the Visitor Pattern. Any help is GREATLY appreciated.

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• Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

  - by Hown_

  I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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• With this generics code why am I getting "Argument 1: cannot convert from 'ToplogyLibrary.Relationsh

  - by Greg

  Hi, Any see why I'm getting a "Argument 1: cannot convert from 'ToplogyLibrary.RelationshipBase' to 'TRelationship'" in the code below, in CreateRelationship() ? public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, TNode> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<TRelationship> Relationships { get; private set; } // Constructors protected TopologyBase() { Nodes = new Dictionary<TKey, TNode>(); Relationships = new List<TRelationship>(); } // Methods public TNode CreateNode(TKey key) { var node = new TNode {Key = key}; Nodes.Add(node.Key, node); return node; } public void CreateRelationship(TNode parent, TNode child) { // Validation if (!Nodes.ContainsKey(parent.Key) || !Nodes.ContainsKey(child.Key)) { throw new ApplicationException("Can not create relationship as either parent or child was not in the graph: Parent:" + parent.Key + ", Child:" + child.Key); } // Add Relationship var r = new RelationshipBase<TNode>(); r.Parent = parent; r.Child = child; Relationships.Add(r); // *** HERE *** "Argument 1: cannot convert from 'ToplogyLibrary.RelationshipBase<TNode>' to 'TRelationship'" } } public class RelationshipBase<TNode> { public TNode Parent { get; set; } public TNode Child { get; set; } } public class NodeBase<T> { public T Key { get; set; } public NodeBase() { } public NodeBase(T key) { Key = key; } }

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• How can I tell whether a webpart that has been deployed to a site is a native webpart that ships wit

  - by program247365

  I have a SharePoint 2007 MOSS instance, and I'm on a fact-finding mission. There have been multiple developers, developing multiple webparts and deploying them (using VS2005/2008 SharePoint Extensions). I thought maybe I could look at the fields in the "Web Part Gallery" list in my site, and look by "Modified by", but it looks like a developer's name is on some of the out-of-the-box webparts somehow, and on ones I know are custom developed, they say "System Account" - so looking at that field in this list is a no go. I thought then maybe I could look at the "Group" to which each webpart was assigned but it looks like they were arbitrarily assigned to many different groups inconsistently - so using that piece of information is a no go. Here is my code I have for just looping through and getting the names of all the webparts. Is there any property I can access on the list items of webparts that would tell me whether it's a custom developed webpart? Any way to distinguish the custom webparts from the out-of-the-box ones? Is there another way to do this? #region Misc Site Collection Methods public static List<string> GetAllWebParts(string connectedSPInstanceUrl) { List<string> lstWebParts = new List<string>(); try { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(connectedSPInstanceUrl)) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { SPList list = web.Lists["Web Part Gallery"]; foreach (SPListItem item in list.Items) { lstWebParts.Add(item.Name); } } } } catch (Exception ex) { lstWebParts.Add("Error"); lstWebParts.Add("Message: " + ex.Message); lstWebParts.Add("Inner Exception: " + ex.InnerException.ToString()); lstWebParts.Add("Stack Trace: " + ex.StackTrace); } return lstWebParts; } #endregion

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• Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

  - by SG1

  I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

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• [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

  - by David

  I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

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• php error reporting - having trouble matching local & web server settings

  - by Andrew Heath

  I'm trying to add a custom error handler to my site, but in doing so have discovered that my webhost's PHP error reporting settings and those of my localhost (default XAMPP) vary considerably. While I thought I was programming to E_STRICT like a good little boy, adding the error handler to my webhost revealed craploads of Runtime Notices. Example: Runtime notice strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. Please use the date.timezone setting, the TZ environment variable or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/Chicago' for 'CST/-6.0/no DST' instead In /home/... Clearly this isn't a red-alert, showstopping error. But what bothers me is that it doesn't show up on my localhost. I'd certainly like to improve my code by addressing these sorts of issues if I could see them! I've looked through both php.ini files, and my webhost's setting is error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE whereas mine was error_reporting = E_STRICT, which I had thought was better. However, changing mine to match and rebooting the server doesn't seem to have accomplished anything. Could someone please point me in the right direction?

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• Java - Thread problem

  - by Yatendra Goel

  My question is related to all those methods(including Thread.sleep(...)) which throw InterruptedException. I found a statement on Sun's tutorial saying InterruptedException is an exception that sleep throws when another thread interrupts the current thread while sleep is active. Is that means that the interrupt will be ignored if the sleep is not active at the time of interrupt? Suppose I have two threads: threadOne and threadTwo. threadOne creates and starts threadTwo. threadTwo executes a runnable whose run method is something like: public void run() { : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : : // In the middle of two sleep invocations : : try { Thread.sleep(10 * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } : : } After thread creation, threadOne interrupts threadTwo. Suppose the threadTwo is in the middle of two sleep invocations at the time of interrupt (when no sleep method was active), then will the second sleep method throw InterrupteException as soon as it is invoked? If not, then will this interrupt will be ignored forever? How to be sure that threadTwo will always know about the interrupt (doesn't matter whether its one of the sleep method is active or not)?

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• Objective-C protocol vs inheritance vs extending?

  - by ryanjm.mp

  I have a couple classes that have nearly identical code. Only a string or two is different between them. What I would like to do is to make them "x" from another class that defines those functions and then uses constants or something else to define those strings that are different. I'm not sure if "x" is inheritance or extending or what. That is what I need help with. For example: objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld { NSLog("Hello %@",child.name); } objectBob.m: #define name @"Bob" objectJoe.m #define name @"Joe" (I'm not sure if it's legal to define strings, but this gets the point across) It would be ideal if objectBob.m and objectJoe.m didn't have to even define the methods, just their relationship to objectA.m. Is there any way to do something like this? It is kind of like protocol, except in reverse, I want the "protocol" to actually define the functions. If all else fails I'll just make objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld:(NSString *name) { NSLog("Hello %@",name); } And have the other files call that function (and just #import objectA.m).

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• What is the best practice in regards to building composite dtos off of an aggregate root with domain

  - by Chance

  I'm trying to figure out the best approach/practice for assembling a composite data transfer object off of an aggregate root and would love to hear people's thoughts on this. For example, lets say I have a root that has a few domain objects as children. I want to assemble a specific view dto, based on some business logic, that either has attributes or full dto's of it's objects. What I'm struggling with is trying to figure out where that assembly should happen. I can see it going on the domain object of the aggregate root as there is some business logic associated with it. The benefits of this approach from what I've deduced thus far is that it should reduce the inevitable business logic from bleeding outisde of the domain object. It also allows for private methods that take care of tasks that could become more complex from an external builder. The downsides being that the domain object becomes much more entrenched in the application's workflow and represents much more than just the domain object. It also could become very large in the scenario where you need multiple composite Dtos. Alternatively, I could also see it belonging to some form of transfer object assembler where there is a builder for each domain object. The domain objects would still be responsible for GetDto() and UpdateFromDto(dto). Outside of that, the builder would handle the construction and deconstruction of composite dtos. The downside is kind of mentioned above, where I fear this will easily lead to developers unfamiliar with DDD bleeding a ton of business logic into the assembler which is what I want to desperately avoid. Any thoughts would be greatly apperciated.

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• Is it possible to restrict instantiation of an object to only one other (parent) object in VB.NET?

  - by Casey

  VB 2008 .NET 3.5 Suppose we have two classes, Order and OrderItem, that represent some type of online ordering system. OrderItem represents a single line item in an Order. One Order can contain multiple OrderItems, in the form of a List(of OrderItem). Public Class Order Public Property MyOrderItems() as List(of OrderItem) End Property End Class It makes sense that an OrderItem should not exist without an Order. In other words, an OrderItem class should not be able to be instantiated on its own, it should be dependent on an Order class to contain it and instantiate it. However, the OrderItem should be public in scope so that it's properties are accessible to other objects. So, the requirements for OrderItem are: Can not be instantiated as a stand alone object; requires Order to exist. Must be public so that any other object can access it's properties/methods through the Order object. e.g. Order.OrderItem(0).ProductID. OrderItem should be able to be passed to other subs/functions that will operate on it. How can I achieve these goals? Is there a better approach?

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• What does the windbg command "kd" do?

  - by Oskar

  I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

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• Linq to SQL code generator features

  - by Anders Abel

  I'm very fond of Linq to SQL and the programming model it encourages. I think that in many cases when you are in control of both the database schema and the code it is not worth the effort to have different relational and object models for the data. Working with Linq to SQL makes it simple to have type safe data access from .NET, using the partial extension methods to implement business rules. Unfortunately I do not like the dbml designer due to the lack of a schema refresh function. So far I have used SqlMetal, but that lacks the customization options of the dbml designer. Because of that I've started working on a tool which regenerates the whole code file like SqlMetal, but has the ability to do the customizations that are available in the dbml designer (and maybe more in the future). The customizations will be described in an xml file which only contains those parts that shouldn't have default values. This should keep the xml file size down as well as the maintenance burden of it. To help me focus on the right features, I would like to know: What would be your favourite feature in a linq to sql code generator?

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• What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

  - by Ankit

  I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

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• Can I avoid explicitly casting objects with a common subclass?

  - by prendio2

  I have an iPodLibraryGroup object and Artist and Album both inherit from it. When it comes to my view controllers though I find that I'm duplicate lots of code, for example I have an ArtistListViewController and and AlbumListViewController even though they're both doing basically the same thing. The reason I've ended up duplicating the code is because these view controllers each refer to either an Artist object or al Album object and I'm not sure how to set it up so that one view controller could handle both — these view controllers are mainly accessing methods that that the objects have in common from iPodLibraryGroup. As an example, to hopefully make this clearer consider this code in AlbumListViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { Album *album = nil; album = [self albumForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; … if (!album.thumbnail) { [self startThumbnailDownload:album forIndexPath:indexPath inTableView:tableView]; cell.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"Placeholder.png"]; } else { cell.imageView.image = album.thumbnail; } return cell; } This is essentially completely repeated (along with a hell of a lot more repeated code) in ArtistListViewController just so that I can typecast the local variable as an Artist instead of an Album. Is there a way to not explicitly need to set Artist or Album here so that the same code could work for any object that is a child of iPodLibraryGroup?

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• Logic for family tree program

  - by david robers

  Hi All, I am creating a family tree program in Java, or at least trying to. I have developed several classes: Person - getters and setter for name gender age etc FamilyMember - extends Person getters and setters for setting arents and children Family - which consists of multiple family members and methods for adding removing members FamilyTree which is the main class for setting relationships. I have two main problems: 1) I need to set the relationships between people. Currently I am doing: FamilyMember A, FamilyMember B B.setMother(A); A.setChild(B); The example above is for setting a mother child relationship. This seems very clunky. Its getting very long winded to implement all relationships. Any ideas on how to implement multiple relationships in a less prodcedural way? 2) I have to be able to display the family tree. How can I do this? Are there any custom classes out there to make life easier? Thanks for your time...

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• Return type from DAL class (Sql ce, Linq to Sql)

  - by bretddog

  Hi, Using VS2008 and Sql CE 3.5, and preferably Linq to Sql. I'm learning database, and unsure about DAL methods return types and how/where to map the data over to my business objects: I don't want direct UI binding. A business object class UserData, and a class UserDataList (Inherits List(Of UserData)), is represented in the database by the table "Users". I use SQL Compact and run SqlMetal which creates dbml/designer.vb file. This gives me a class with a TableAttribute: <Table()> _ Partial Public Class Users I'm unsure how to use this class. Should my business object know about this class, such that the DAL can return the type Users, or List(Of Users) ? So for example the "UserDataService Class" is a part of the DAL, and would have for example the functions GetAll and GetById. Will this be correct : ? Public Class UserDataService Public Function GetAll() As List(Of Users) Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As List(Of Users) = From n In ctx.Users Select n Return q End Function Public Function GetById(ByVal id As Integer) As Users Dim ctx As New MyDB(connection) Dim q As Users = (From n In ctx.Users Where n.UserID = id Select n).Single Return q End Function And then, would I perhaps have a method, say in the UserDataList class, like: Public Class UserDataList Inherits List(Of UserData) Public Sub LoadFromDatabase() Me.clear() Dim database as New UserDataService dim users as List(Of Users) users = database.GetAll() For each u in users dim newUser as new UserData newUser.Id = u.Id newUser.Name = u.Name Me.Add(newUser) Next End Sub End Class Is this a sensible approach? Would appreciate any suggestions/alternatives, as this is my first attempt on a database DAL. cheers!

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• why doesn't IE8 refresh textbox right away?(Jquery)

  - by AndrewSmith

  I have 3 radio buttons and one textbox in my page. These 3 radio controls represent corresponding choice and among them, the third one enables textbox that is disabled by default. If user clicks any one from the first twos after clicking the third, the textbox will be emptied(if user input any) and disabled again. The problem is, in IE, the textbox isn't emptied not until I click back once again on the said textbox. I've used jquery val methods as well as attr but nothing seems to work. You can see my code as follows. The very same code works just fine in Mozilla. I'm not sure why IE is having problem. m.bind_eventform = function(){ $('input[name=poster]').change(function(){ if($('input[name=poster]:checked').val()==2) $('#poster_other').removeAttr('disabled'); else if(!($('#poster_other').is(':disabled'))) { $('#poster_other').attr('disabled','disabled'); $('#poster_other').attr('value',''); //this one doesn't work $('#poster_other').val(''); //as well as this one } }); }; $(document).ready(m.bind_eventform);

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• Exposed onsite vs IFD deployments for MS Dynamics CRM

  - by Greg McGuffey

  I'm working for the first time on a MS Dyanmics CRM 4.0 project. Our company has a high number of remote employees and even more remote consultants. As such it will be necessary to make the CRM solution available over the internet. As near as I can tell, I have three options: Have everyone use a VPN to access an intranet site (typical onsite deployment). However, we have found that VPNs are far from trouble free and cause many support issues. We avoid them like the plague. Use IFD to expose the CRM on the internet. I don't know much about this except that the URL will be different than the onsite URL, which could cause some headaches (see below). Expose the CRM site by opening the site to the internet, using SSL to encrypt traffic. We currently do this with our MS sharepoint sites. I'm not sure how secure this would be (one of the reasons for this question). I'd like to avoid using both the onsite intranet deployment and the IFD together for a couple of reasons. One of the requests for the solution is use email to notify users that they've been assigned a task, and include the URL to the task within the email. For this reason. If both deployments are used, then I'll need to include two URLs and the user would need to know which to use. Which leads to the second reason, the main users of the solution split time between being in the office and being remote. Thus they would need to access the solution two different ways, and know when to use which. Bad. So, what are the advantages/disadvantages of any of these methods? Any other options? Is there any issue using IFD from within the intranet? Security issues? Thanks!

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