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  • php/mongodb: how does references work in php?

    - by harald
    hello, i asked this in the mongodb user-group, but was not satisfied with the answer, so -- maybe someone at stackoverflow can enlighten me: the question was: $b = array('x' => 1); $ref = &$b; $collection->insert($ref); var_dump($ref); $ref does not contain '_id', because it's a reference to $b, the handbook states. (the code snippet is taken from the php mongo documentation) i should add, that: $b = array('x' => 1); $ref = $b; $collection->insert($ref); var_dump($ref); in this case $ref contains the _id -- for those, who do not know, what the insert method of mongodb-php-driver does -- because $ref is passed by reference (note the $b with and without referencing '&'). on the other hand ... function test(&$data) { $data['_id'] = time(); } $b = array('x' => 1); $ref =& $b; test($ref); var_dump($ref); $ref contains _id, when i call a userland function. my question is: how does the references in these cases differ? my question is probably not mongodb specific -- i thought i would know how references in php work, but apparently i do not: the answer in the mongodb user-group was, that this was the way, how references in php work. so ... how do they work -- explained with these two code-snippets? thanks in advance!!!

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  • ForeignSecurityPrincipals with LDAP connection on Active Directory servers with trusted forest

    - by Killerwhile
    The context is the following : Two domains mutually trusted dc=dom1 dc=dom2 a group cn=group1,ou=someou,dc=dom1 with users inside : cn=user11,ou=anotherou,dc=dom1 cn=user12,ou=anotherou,dc=dom1 cn=user13,ou=anotherou,dc=dom1 cn=user21,ou=anotherou,dc=dom2 cn=user22,ou=anotherou,dc=dom2 cn=user23,ou=anotherou,dc=dom2 The questions : 1. Test user's credentials How can I do a ldap bind to test credentials for users of dom2 ? I tried to bind as usual but I cannot authenticate users of dom2, even if I connect in ldaps. Is there any trick ? Special permissions to set ? 2. Search and display users from the group. How can I retrieve the detailed informations about the users of dom1 and dom2 using LDAP(s) connection on the AD of dom1 ? I have an technical user which has right to browse both domain. I'm able to see 6 entries in the group with the following filter : (&(memberOf=cn=group1,ou=someou,dc=dom1)(|(objectClass=user)(objectClass=foreignSecurityPrincipal))) but the users from the other domain are seen as cn=...(some key)...,cn=foreignSecurityPrincipal,dc=dom1 Java hints would be better. Thanks a lot !

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  • MonoDevelop 2.8.2: Build failed. Illegal characters in path

    - by user1056607
    I have just installed MonoDevelop 2.8.2. After opening a new solution named test I attempted to run the project. I push f5 and all I see is a "Build failed. Illegal characters in path" error in the bottom left. I open up the Error List and see no errors. I have done some searching and only find solutions pertaining to projects that are beyond the scope of just the pre-generated code. This is the code: using System; namespace Test { class MainClass { public static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Hello World!"); } } } I have tried to uninstall/reinstall, cut out any spaces in the path to the program or the solution, and even opened VS2010 and just copy pasted that code over. I've looked over my options under tools, solution options under project, and the project's options. I am running MD 2.8.2 with GTK# and Microsoft's .NET runtime. Let me know if you need anymore information. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you for your time!

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  • Project setup for creating third party libraries for Android

    - by Jarle Hansen
    Hi all, I am creating a library for Android that others can include in their own project. So far I have been working on it as a normal Java project with JDK 1.6 setup as system library. This works just fine in Eclipse when I add the android.jar. The issue comes when I try to my build script. I am running Gradle and doing a normal compile and test build cycle. My thoughts were that it does not matter if I compile it with a normal JDK, since this is not a standalone application. The benefits by creating a normal Java project is that Gradle does support this much better. My project also does not contain any UI at all. However, the problem is that of course android.jar and the JDK contains lots of the same classes and I think that this is what messes up my build script. Everything crashes when running the tests (the tests are in the same project under src/test/java). My question is, how should I create this project that is meant to be included in Android projects as a third party library? Should I create it as an Android project in Eclipse even though I am only creating a library that does not use any of the UI features? Also, should the tests be in a separate project? Thanks for all responses!

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  • Java Robot key activity seems to stop working while certain software is running

    - by Mike Turley
    I'm writing a Java application to automate character actions in an online game overnight (specifically, it catches fish in Final Fantasy XI). The app makes heavy use of java's Robot class both for emulating user keyboard input and for detecting color changes on certain parts of the screen. It also uses multithreading and a swing GUI. The application seems to work perfectly when I test it without the game running, just using screenshots to trigger the apps responses into notepad. But for some reason, when I actually launch FFXI and start the program, all of my keyboard and mouse manipulations just stop working altogether. The program is still running, and the Robot class is still able to read pixel colors. But Robot.keyPress, Robot.keyRelease, Robot.mouseMove, Robot.mousePress and Robot.mouseRelease all do nothing. It's the strangest thing-- to test it, I wrote a simple loop that just keeps typing letters, and focused notepad. I'd then start the game, refocus notepad, and it would do nothing. Then I'd exit the game, and it'd start working again immediately. Has anyone else come across something like this, where specific software will stop certain functions of java from working? Also, to make this more interesting-- Last year I wrote a very similar program using the same classes and programming techniques to automate healing a party in the game as they fight. Last year, this program worked perfectly. After running into these problems I dug up that old program, ran it without making any changes, and found that it too was having the same problems. The only differences between now and when it was working: I was running Windows Vista and now I'm running Windows 7, and several new Java versions as well as FFXI versions have been released. What the hell is going on? (if anyone needs to see my source code, email me at [email protected]. I'm trying to keep it to myself.)

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  • Oracle T4CPreparedStatement memory leaks?

    - by Jay
    A little background on the application that I am gonna talk about in the next few lines: XYZ is a data masking workbench eclipse RCP application: You give it a source table column, and a target table column, it would apply a trasformation (encryption/shuffling/etc) and copy the row data from source table to target table. Now, when I mask n tables at a time, n threads are launched by this app. Here is the issue: I have run into a production issue on first roll out of the above said app. Unfortunately, I don't have any logs to get to the root. However, I tried to run this app in test region and do a stress test. When I collected .hprof files and ran 'em through an analyzer (yourKit), I noticed that objects of oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement was retaining heap. The analysis also tells me that one of my classes is holding a reference to this preparedstatement object and thereby, n threads have n such objects. T4CPreparedStatement seemed to have character arrays: lastBoundChars and bindChars each of size char[300000]. So, I researched a bit (google!), obtained ojdbc6.jar and tried decompiling T4CPreparedStatement. I see that T4CPreparedStatement extends OraclePreparedStatement, which dynamically manages array size of lastBoundChars and bindChars. So, my questions here are: Have you ever run into an issue like this? Do you know the significance of lastBoundChars / bindChars? I am new to profiling, so do you think I am not doing it correct? (I also ran the hprofs through MAT - and this was the main identified issue - so, I don't really think I could be wrong?) I have found something similar on the web here: http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?messageID=2860681 Appreciate your suggestions / advice.

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  • OpenGL bitmap text fails after drawing polygon

    - by kaykun
    I'm using Win32 and OpenGL to to draw text onto a window. I'm using the bitmap font method, with wglUseFontBitmaps. Here is my main rendering function: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glPushMatrix(); glColor3f(1.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glBegin(GL_QUADS); glVertex2f(0.0f, 0.0f); glVertex2f(128.0f, 0.0f); glVertex2f(128.0f, 128.0f); glVertex2f(0.0f, 128.0f); glEnd(); glPopMatrix(); glPushMatrix(); glColor3f(1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f); glRasterPos2i(200, 200); glListBase(fontList); glCallLists(5, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, "Test."); glPopMatrix(); SwapBuffers(hDC); As you can see it's very simple and the only thing that it's supposed to do is draw a quadrilateral and draw the text "Test.". But the problem is that drawing a polygon seems to mess up any text operations I try to do after it. If I place the text drawing functions before the polygon, both the text and the polygon draw fine. Is there something I'm missing here? Edit: This problem only happens when the window is run in Fullscreen, by ChangeDisplaySettings. Any reason why this would be??

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  • Why can I run JUnit tests for my Spring project, but not a main method?

    - by FarmBoy
    I am using JDBC to connect to MySQL for a small application. In order to test without altering the real database, I'm using HSQL in memory for JUnit tests. I'm using Spring for DI and DAOs. Here is how I'm configuring my HSQL DataSource <bean id="mockDataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.SingleConnectionDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver"/> <property name="url" value="jdbc:hsqldb:mem:mockSeo"/> <property name="username" value="sa"/> </bean> This works fine for my JUnit tests which use the mock DB. But when I try to run a main method, I find the following error: Error creating bean with name 'mockDataSource' defined in class path resource [beans.xml]: Error setting property values; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.PropertyBatchUpdateException; nested PropertyAccessExceptions (1) are: PropertyAccessException 1: org.springframework.beans.MethodInvocationException: Property 'driverClassName' threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: Could not load JDBC driver class [org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver] I'm running from Eclipse, and I'm using the Maven plugin. Is there a reason why this would work as a Test, but not as a main()? I know that the main method itself is not the problem, because it works if I remove all references to the HSQL DataSource from my Spring Configuration file.

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  • Not all TFS Build type files are getting copied

    - by k4k4sh1
    Because I have several builds sharing some assemblies containing common build tasks, I have one TFSBuild.proj for all builds and import different targets depending on the build, like the following: <Project DefaultTargets="DesktopBuild" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003" ToolsVersion="3.5"> <Import Project="Build_1.targets" Condition="'$(BuildDefinition)'=='Build_1'" /> <Import Project="Build_2.targets" Condition="'$(BuildDefinition)'=='Build_2'" /> <Import Project="Build_3.targets" Condition="'$(BuildDefinition)'=='Build_3'" /> </Project> Each target for a particular build has your usual content for a build type file, but in my case, I also reference some tasks inside assemblies checked into the same folder as TFSBuild.proj in source control. I wanted to add folders to contain some test build targets, since my folder was getting a bit full and cluttered. The following illustrates what I mean. $(TFS project)\build\ TFSBuild.proj Build_1.targets ... Assembly1.dll Assembly2.dll ... Folder\ Test_target_1.targets .... When I stated my build, however, I found that Test_target_1.targets and other files in Folder were not being copied to the build directory, while TFSBuild.proj and other files in the root level, as it were, of the build type folder were being copied. This caused my test build to not be able to reference files inside Folder, causing my build to immediately fail. I realize the simplest work-around would be to get rid of Folder and move all of its contents up to the build folder, but I would really like to have Folder if at all possible. Thanks for your help in advance.

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  • Problem with libcurl cookie engine

    - by Seb Rose
    [Cross-posted from lib-curl mailing list] I have a single threaded app (MSVC C++ 2005) build against a static LIBCURL 7.19.4 A test application connects to an in house server & performs a bespoke authentication process that includes posting a couple of forms, and when this succeeds creates a new resource (POST) and then updates the resource (PUT) using If-Match. I only use a single connection to libcurl (i.e. only one CURL*) The cookie engine is enabled from the start using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "") The cookie cache is cleared at the end of the authentication process using curl_easy_setopt(CURLOPT_COOKIELIST, "SESS"). This is required by the authentication process. The next call, which completes a successful authentication, results in a couple of security cookies being returned from the server - they have no expiry date set. The server (and I) expect the security cookies to then be sent with all subsequent requests to the server. The problem is that sometimes they are sent and sometimes they aren't. I'm not a CURL expert, so I'm probably doing something wrong, but I can't figure out what. Running the test app in a loop results shows a random distribution of correct cookie handling. As a workaround I've disabled the cookie engine and am doing basic manual cookie handling. Like this it works as expected, but I'd prefer to use the library if possible. Does anyone have any ideas? Thanks Seb

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  • SmtpClient.SendAsync - How to ensure my application doesn't finish before callback?

    - by James
    Hi, I need to send emails asychronously through a console application. I need to do some DB updates on the callback but my application is exiting before the callback code gets run! How can I stop this from happening in a nice manner rather than simply guessing how long to wait before exiting. I would imagine the Async calls get placed in some form of thread? Is it possible to check if any are waiting to be called? Sample Code private static void SendCompletedCallback(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { // Get the unique identifier for this asynchronous operation. String token = (string) e.UserState; if (e.Cancelled) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] Send canceled.", token); } if (e.Error != null) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] {1}", token, e.Error.ToString()); } else { // update DB Console.WriteLine("Message sent."); } } public static void Main(string[] args) { var users = Repository.GetUsers(); SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient("Host"); client.SendCompleted += new SendCompletedEventHandler(SendCompletedCallback); MailAddress from = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "System", Encoding.UTF8); foreach (var user in users) { MailAddress to = new MailAddress(user.Email); MailMessage message = new MailMessage(from, to); message.Body = "This is a test"; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; message.Subject = "test message 1" + someArrows; message.SubjectEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; string userState = String.Format("Message for user id {0}", user.ID); client.SendAsync(message, userState); message.Dispose(); } // need to wait here until I have received a callback for each message // otherwise the application will exit }

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  • When can a == b be false and a.Equals(b) true?

    - by alastairs
    I ran into this situation today. I have an object which I'm testing for equality; the Create() method returns a subclass implementation of MyObject. MyObject a = MyObject.Create(); MyObject b = MyObject.Create(); a == b; // is false a.Equals(b); // is true Note I have also over-ridden Equals() in the subclass implementation, which does a very basic check to see whether or not the passed-in object is null and is of the subclass's type. If both those conditions are met, the objects are deemed to be equal. The other slightly odd thing is that my unit test suite does some tests similar to Assert.AreEqual(MyObject.Create(), MyObject.Create()); // Green bar and the expected result is observed. Therefore I guess that NUnit uses a.Equals(b) under the covers, rather than a == b as I had assumed. Side note: I program in a mixture of .NET and Java, so I might be mixing up my expectations/assumptions here. I thought, however, that a == b worked more consistently in .NET than it did in Java where you often have to use equals() to test equality.

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  • Should I be relying on WebTests for data validation?

    - by Alexander Kahoun
    I have a suite of web tests created for a web service. I use it for testing a particular input method that updates a SQL Database. The web service doesn't have a way to retrieve the data, that's not its purpose, only to update it. I have a validator that validates the response XML that the web service generates for each request. All that works fine. It was suggested by a teammate that I add data validation so that I check the database to see the data after the initial response validator runs and compare it with what was in the input request. We have a number of services and libraries that are separate from the web service I'm testing that I can use to get the data and compare it. The problem is that when I run the web test the data validation always fails even when the request succeeds. I've tried putting the thread to sleep between the response validation and the data validation but to no avail; It always gets the data from before the response validation. I can set a break point and visually see that the data has been updated in the DB, funny thing is when I step through it in debug with the breakpoint it does validate successfully. Before I get too much more into this issue I have to ask; Is this the purpose of web tests? Should I be able to validate data through service calls in this manner or am I asking too much of a web test and the response validation is as far as I should go?

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  • Testing a method that sends e-mail without sending the mail

    - by SnOrfus
    I have a method like public abstract class Base { public void MethodUnderTest(); } public class ClassUnderTest : Base { public override MethodUnderTest() { if(condition) { IMail mail = new Mail() { /* ... */ }; IMailer mailer = new Mailer() { /* ... */ } mailer.Send(mail); } else { /* ... */ } } } I have unit tests for this method, and the mail gets sent to myself, so it's not terrible (better than no test) but I'd prefer not to send the mail. The problem I have is that I don't want test specific code in the class (ie. if (testMode) return; instead of sending the mail) I don't know lots about DI, but I considered passing a mock IMailer into MethodUnderTest except that it overrides the base class, and no other class that derives from Base needs an IMailer object (I don't want to force implementers of Base to take an unnecessary IMailer in MethodUnderTest) What else can I do? (note: IMail and IMailer are part of an external library for sending e-mail. It's written in house, so I can modify it all I like if necessary, though I can't see a need to in this situation)

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  • Call Init from XUL after Page Loads (Firefox add-on)

    - by mattyboy123
    Hi all, I've been working on some code in js/html and it works great. I'm now trying to package it into an add-on for Firefox, and having some issues getting the XUL document correct. PLAIN OLD HTML/JS In my html test file between the <head></head> I have: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/MyCode.js"></script> At the end of the test file before the </body> I have: <script type="text/javascript">MyCode.Static.Init();</script> FIREFOX ADD-ON: OVERLAY.XUL In an overlay.xul file in the extension package I have : <?xml version="1.0"?> <overlay id="mycode" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://mycode/content/MyCode.js"></script> <script> window.addEventListener("load", function () { gBrowser.addEventListener("load",MyCode.Static.Init,true); }, false); </script> </overlay> This does not seem to enter the method, but then again I'm not even sure if I've got the listeners firing properly. Would this be the correct way to duplicate what I was doing in plain old html/js ?

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  • Creating nodes porgramatically in Drupal 6

    - by John
    Hey, I have been searching for how to create nodes in Drupal 6. I found some entries here on stackoverflow, but the questions seemed to either be for older versions or the solutions did not work for me. Ok, so here is my current process for trying to create $node = new stdClass(); $node->title = "test title"; $node->body = "test body"; $node->type= "story"; $node->created = time(); $node->changed = $node->created; $node->status = 1; $node->promote = 1; $node->sticky = 0; $node->format = 1; $node->uid = 1; node_save( $node ); When I execute this code, the node is created, but when I got the administration page, it throws the following errors: warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. user warning: Duplicate entry '36' for key 1 query: INSERT INTO node_comment_statistics (nid, last_comment_timestamp, last_comment_name, last_comment_uid, comment_count) VALUES (36, 1269980590, NULL, 1, 0) in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\sites\all\modules\nodecomment\nodecomment.module on line 409. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. I've looked at different tutorials, and all seem to follow the same process. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using Drupal 6.15. When I roll back the database (to right before I made the changes) the errors are gone. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Why wouldn't a flex remoteobject be able to work within a custom component?

    - by Gary
    Please enlighten this flex noob. I have a remoteobject within my main.mxml. I can call a function on the service from an init() function on my main.mxml, and my java debugger triggers a breakpoint. When I move the remoteobject declaration and function call into a custom component (that is declared within main.mxml), the remote function on java-side no longer gets called, no breakpoints triggered, no errors, silence. How could this be? No spelling errors, or anything like that. What can I do to figure it out? mxml code: < mx:RemoteObject id="myService" destination="remoteService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" > < /mx:RemoteObject > function call is just 'myService.getlist();' when I move it to a custom component, I import mx.core.Application; so the compiler doesn't yell my child component: child.mxml <mx:Panel xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.core.Application; public function init():void { helloWorld.sayHello(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:RemoteObject id="helloWorld" destination="helloService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" /> <mx:Label text="{helloWorld.sayHello.lastResult}" /> </mx:Panel> my main.mxml: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" xmlns:test="main.flex.*" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var home:String; [Bindable] public var uName:String; public function init():void { //passed in by wrapper html home = Application.application.parameters.appHome; uName = Application.application.parameters.uName; } ]]> </mx:Script> <test:child /> </mx:Application>

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  • ASP.NET-MVC Page: image logo is not displaying while sending the email

    - by Rita
    Hi I have a page that sends an email on ASP.NET MVC Page. All the Text is displaying but the image is not displaying. Any workaround. Appreciate your responses. Here is my code: MailMessage mailMsg = new MailMessage(); mailMsg.IsBodyHtml = true; mailMsg.From = new MailAddress(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["Email.Sender"]); mailMsg.To.Add(new MailAddress(email)); mailMsg.Subject = "Test mail to display the Logo in the email"; mailMsg.Body = " Test mail to display the Logo in the email; mailMsg.Body += Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine + "<html><body><img src=cid:companylogo/><br></body></html>"; //Insert Logo string logoPath = Server.MapPath(Links.Content.images.Amgen_MedInfo_Logo_jpg); // logo is placed in images folder LinkedResource logo = new LinkedResource(logoPath); logo.ContentId = "companylogo"; // done HTML formatting in the next line to display logo AlternateView aView = AlternateView.CreateAlternateViewFromString(mailMsg.Body, new System.Net.Mime.ContentType("text/html")); aView.LinkedResources.Add(logo); mailMsg.AlternateViews.Add(aView); mailMsg.IsBodyHtml = true; SmtpClient smtpClient = new SmtpClient(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["SMTP"]); smtpClient.Send(mailMsg);

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  • WCF Callback Faulted - what happens to the session?

    - by RemotecUk
    Just trying to get my head around what can happen when things go wrong with WCF. I have an implementation of my service contract declared with an InstanceContextMode of PerSession... [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] The calls happen as follows: My client calls the server and calls GetServerUTC() to return the current UTC time of the server. This is a one way call and the server will call the client back when its ready (trivial in this instance to simply return the current time!) The server calls back to the client and for test purposes in the callback implementation on the client I throw an exception. This goes unhandled in the client (for test purposes) and the client crashes and closes down. On the server I handle the faulted event handler on the ICommunicationObject... obj.Faulted += new EventHandler(EventService_Faulted); Questions... Will this kill off the session for the current connection on the server. I presume I am free to do what I want in this method e.g. logging or something, but should I do anything specific here to terminate the session or will WCF handle this? From a best practise view point what should I do when the callback is faulted? Does it mean "something has happened in your client" and thats the end of that or is there something I a missing here? Additionally, are there any other faulted handlers I should be handling. Ive done a lot of reading on WCF and it seems sort of vague on what to do when something goes wrong. At present I am implementing a State Machine on my client which will manage the connection and determine if a user action can happen dependant on if a connection exists to the server - or is this overkill. Any tips would be really appreciated ;)

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  • Header Setup in SOAP with ASP.NET 3.5 WCF

    - by Adam
    I'm pretty new to SOAP so go easy on me. I'm trying to setup a SOAP service that accepts the following header format: <soap:Header> <wsse:Security> <wsse:UsernameToken wsu:Id='SecurityToken-securityToken'> <wsse:Username>Username</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password>Password</wsse:Password> <wsu:Created>Timestamp</wsu:Created> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security> </soap:Header> The application I'm incorporating this service into is an ASP.NET 3.5 web application and I've already setup a SOAP endpoint using WCF. I've setup a basic service to make sure the WCF works and it works fine (disregarding the header). I heard that the above format follows WS-Security so I added WSHttpBinding in the web.config: <service name="Nexternal.Service.XMLTools.VNService" behaviorConfiguration="VNServiceBehavior"> <!--The first endpoint would be picked up from the confirg this shows how the config can be overriden with the service host--> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="Nexternal.Service.XMLTools.IVNService"/> </service> I downloaded a test harness (soapUI) and pasted in a test message with the above header and it came back with a 400 Bad Request error. ...for what it's worth, I'm running Visual Studio 2008 using IIS7. I feel like I'm going in circles so any help would be awesome. Thanks in advance.

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  • WPF TextBlock Binding to DependencyProperty

    - by Bill Campbell
    Hi, I have what I believe to be about one of the most simple cases of attempting to bind a view to a dependencyproperty in the view model. It seems that the initial changes are reflected in the view but other changes to the DP do not update the view's TextBlock. I'm probably just missing something simple but I just can't see what it is. Please take a look... My XAML has a status bar on the bottom of the window. I want to bind to the DP "VRAStatus". <StatusBar x:Name="sbar" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Background="LightBlue" Opacity="0.4" DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" > <StatusBarItem> <TextBlock x:Name="statusBar" Text="{Binding VRAStatus}" /> </StatusBarItem> <StatusBarItem> <Separator Style="{StaticResource StatusBarSeparatorStyle}"/> </StatusBarItem> </StatusBar> My viewmodel has the DP defined: public string VRAStatus { get { return (string)GetValue(VRAStatusProperty); } set { SetValue(VRAStatusProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for VRAStatus. public static readonly DependencyProperty VRAStatusProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("VRAStatus", typeof(string), typeof(PenskeRouteAssistViewModel),new PropertyMetadata(string.Empty)); Then, in my code I set the DP: VRAStatus = "Test Message..."; Is there something obvious here that I am missing? In my constructor for the viewmodel I set the DP like this: VRAStatus = "Ready"; I never get the Test Message to display. Please Help. thanks in advance! Bill

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  • Linq to SQL Problem System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager

    - by luckyluke
    I have a really tricky thing going up here. My project has around 100 tables and they are all mapped by LINQ. Everything works fine in a dev and test environment. These enviroments are MS Win 2008 r2 servers with SQL 2008 sp1 databases. IIS and SQL are on a different machines. Now on production enviroment which is MS Win 2003 x64 web farm + geoclustered SQL 2008 IT DOES not work. All I get is the exception System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager3.TryCreateKeyFr>om Values(Object[] values, MultiKey& k) at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.IdentityCache2.Find(Object[] keyValues) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.GetOtherItem(MetaAssociation assoc, Object instance) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.BuildEdgeMaps() at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at System.Data.Linq.DataContext.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at ERS.IIMP.Services.ExposuresSrv.Update(Int32 ExpID, Int32 AssID) Services\ExposuresSrv.cs` My question is What the hell. They have precisely the same DBML, the DB has exactly THE SAME structure (when I get the DB from prod to TEST and mount it eveything works just great), the binaries on the WEB Server are the same. I seriously do not know what to do.... Did anyone found that Linq works on one env and does not on the second?? I mam really lost here. I really hope You can help me:)

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  • How to use Java varargs with the GWT Javascript Native Interface? (aka, "GWT has no printf()")

    - by markerikson
    I'm trying to quickly learn GWT as part of a new project. I found out that GWT doesn't implement Java's String.format() function, so there's no printf()-like functionality. I knew that some printf() implementations exist for Javascript, so I figured I could paste one of those in as a GWT Javascript Native Interface function. I ran into problems, and decided I'd better make sure that the varargs values were being passed in correctly. That's where things got ugly. First, some example code: // From Java, call the JSNI function: test("sourceString", "params1", "params2", "params3"); .... public static native void test(Object... params) /*-{ // PROBLEM: this kills GWT! // alert(params.length); // returns "function" alert(typeof(params)); // returns "[Ljava.lang.Object;@b97ff1" alert(params); }-*/; The GWT docs state that "calling a varargs JavaScript method from Java will result in the callee receiving the arguments in an array". I figured that meant I could at least check params.length, but accessing that throws a JavascriptException wrapped in an UmbrellaException, with no real information. When I do "typeof(params)", it returns "function". As if that weren't odd enough, if I check the string value of params, it returns what appears to be a string version of a Java reference. So, I guess I'm asking a few different questions here: 1) How do GWT/JSNI varargs actually work, and do I need to do something special to pass in values? 2) What is actually going on here? 3) Is there any easier way to get printf()-style formatting in a GWT application?

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  • In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

    - by Navi
    I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

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  • Retrieve Flash file post in ASP.NET

    - by Quandary
    Question: In ASP.NET, I retrieve a JPEG-file as Flash post data like this Sub ProcessRequest(ByVal context As HttpContext) Implements IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain" ' Retrieve a bytearray from the post buffer Dim myBuffer As Byte() = context.Request.BinaryRead(Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length)) System.IO.File.WriteAllBytes("c:\temp\test.jpg", myBuffer) End Sub In Flash, I send it to an asp.net handler like this var jpgSource:BitmapData = cPrint.TakeSnapshot(MovieClip(cGlobals.ccPlanZoomView)); var bmpThisBitmap:Bitmap = new Bitmap(jpgSource); var nQuality:Number = 100; var jpgEncoder:JPGEncoder = new JPGEncoder(nQuality); var jpgStream:ByteArray = jpgEncoder.encode(jpgSource); var header:URLRequestHeader = new URLRequestHeader ("Content-type", "application/octet-stream"); // Make sure to use the correct path to jpg_encoder_download.php var strFileName:String="test.jpg"; var jpgURLRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/raumplaner_new/raumplaner_new/cgi-bin/SavePDF.ashx"); //var scriptVars:URLVariables = new URLVariables(); //scriptVars.fn = strFileName; //var myarr:Array= new Array(); //myarr.push(jpgStream); //scriptVars.Files = myarr; jpgURLRequest.requestHeaders.push(header); jpgURLRequest.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; //jpgURLRequest.data = scriptVars; jpgURLRequest.data = jpgStream; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.BINARY; loader.load(jpgURLRequest); It works but I want to send a few additional variables along, via scriptVars (commented out here). How do I retrieve the JPEG file in that case ? Because if I use parameters, there is no more BinaryRead... Aspecially, how would I read an array of jpeg files (several files) ?

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