Search Results

Search found 10804 results on 433 pages for 'attribute keys'.

Page 370/433 | < Previous Page | 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377  | Next Page >

• coredata using old file version on device

  - by Martin KS

  This is a follow on from my previous problems here. Resetting the simulator solved all my troubles before, and I've gone on to complete my App. I now have the exact same problem when installing the app onto my iPhone device. It picks up an old version of my database, which doesn't have the second entity in it, and crashes when I try to access the second entity: 2010-04-22 23:52:18.860 albumCloud[135:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'Image'' 2010-04-22 23:52:18.874 albumCloud[135:207] Stack: ( 843263261, 825818644, 820669213, 20277, 844154820, 16985, 14633, 844473760, 844851728, 862896011, 843011267, 843009055, 860901832, 843738160, 843731504, 11547, 11500 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' I have two questions: 1) How on earth do I delete my app thoroughly enough from my phone that it removes the old data? (I've so far tried regular app deletion, deleting and then holding home and power for a reboot, cursing at and threatening the app while running it... everything) 2) How do I prevent this happening when my application is in the App store, and I for some reason decide that I want to add another entity to the store, or another attribute to the existing entities? is there an "if x doesn't exist then create it" method?

  Read the article

• Downloading javascript Without Blocking

  - by doug

  The context: My question relates to improving web-page loading performance, and in particular the effect that javascript has on page-loading (resources/elements below the script are blocked from downloading/rendering). This problem is usually avoided/mitigated by placing the scripts at the bottom (eg, just before the tag). The code i am looking at is for web analytics. Placing it at the bottom reduces its accuracy; and because this script has no effect on the page's content, ie, it's not re-writing any part of the page--i want to move it inside the head. Just how to do that without ruining page-loading performance is the crux. From my research, i've found six techniques (w/ support among all or most of the major browsers) for downloading scripts so that they don't block down-page content from loading/rendering: (i) XHR + eval(); (ii) XHR + 'inject'; (iii) download the HTML-wrapped script as in iFrame; (iv) setting the script tag's 'async' flag to 'TRUE' (HTML 5 only); (v) setting the script tag's 'defer' attribute; and (vi) 'Script DOM Element'. It's the last of these i don't understand. The javascript to implement the pattern (vi) is: (function() { var q1 = document.createElement('script'); q1.src = 'http://www.my_site.com/q1.js' document.documentElement.firstChild.appendChild(q1) })(); Seems simple enough: inside this anonymous function, a script element is created, its 'src' element is set to it's location, then the script element is added to the DOM. But while each line is clear, it's still not clear to me how exactly this pattern allows script loading without blocking down-page elements/resources from rendering/loading?

  Read the article

• Conditional operator in Mako using Pylons

  - by Antoine Leclair

  In PHP, I often use the conditional operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

  Read the article

• jQuery .trigger() or $(window) not working in Google Chrome

  - by Jonathan

  I have this jQuery ajax navigation tabs plugin that I created using some help from CSS-Tricks.com and the jQuery hashchange event plugin (detects hash changes in browsers that don't support it). The code is little long to post it here but it goes something like this: Part 1) When a tab is clicked, it gets the href attribute of that tab and add it to the browsers navigation bar like '#tab_name': window.location.hash = $(this).attr("href"); Part 2) When the navigation bar changes (hash change), it gets the href change like this: window.location.hash.substring(1); (substring is to get only 'tab_name' without the '#'), and then call the ajax function to get the info to display. I want to automatically trigger the plugin to load the first tab when the page is accessed, so at the start of the code I put: if (window.location.hash === '') { // If no '#' is in the browser navigation bar window.location.hash = '#tab_1'; // Add #tab_1 to the navigation bar $(window).trigger('hashchange'); // Trigger a hashchange so 'Part 2' of the plugin calls the ajax function using the '#tab_1' added } The probles is that it works in FF but not in Chrome, I mean, everything works but it seems like the $(window).trigger('hashchange'); is not working because it doesnt get the first tab.. Any suggestions??

  Read the article

• ruby on rails one-to-many relationship

  - by fenec

  I would like to model a betting system relationship using the power of rails. so lets start with doing something very simple modelling the relationship from a user to a bet.i would like to have a model bet with 2 primary keys. here are my migrations enter code here class CreateBets < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bets do |t| t.integer :user_1_id t.integer :user_2_id t.integer :amount t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :bets end end class CreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :users do |t| t.string :name t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :users end end the models enter code here class Bet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user_1,:class_name=:User belongs_to :user_2,:class_name=:User end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_1) has_many :bets, :foreign_key =:user_2) end when i test here in the console my relationships I got an error enter code here u1=User.create :name="aa" = # u2=User.create :name="bb" = # b=Bet.create(:user_1=u1,:user_2=u2) *****error***** QUESTIONS: 1 How do I define the relationships between these tables correctly? 2 are there any conventions to name the attributes (ex:user_1_id...) thank you for your help

  Read the article

• how to automate the testing of a text based menu

  - by Reagan Penner

  Hi there, I have a text based menu running on a remote Linux host. I am using expect to ssh into this host and would like to figure out how to interact with the menus. Interaction involves arrowing up, down and using the enter and back arrow keys. For example, Disconnect Data Collection > Utilities > Save Changes When you enter the system Disconnect is highlighted. So simply pressing enter twice you can disconnect from the system. Second enter confirms the disconnect. The following code will ssh into my system and bring up the menu. If I remove the expect eof and try to send "\r" thinking that this would select the Disconnect menu option I get the following error: "write() failed to write anything - will sleep(1) and retry..." #!/usr/bin/expect set env(TERM) vt100 set password abc123 set ipaddr 162.116.11.100 set timeout -1 match_max -d 100000 spawn ssh root@$ipaddr exp_internal 1 expect "*password:*" send -- "$password\r" expect "Last login: *\r" expect eof I have looked at the virterm and term_expect examples but cannot figure out how to tweak them to work for me. If someone can point me in the right direction I would greatly appreciate it. What I need to know is can I interact with a text based menu system and what is the correct method for doing this, examples if any exist would be great. thanks, -reagan

  Read the article

• How do I tell nant to only call csc when there are cs files in to compile?

  - by rob_g

  In my NAnt script I have a compile target that calls csc. Currently it fails because no inputs are specified: <target name="compile"> <csc target="library" output="${umbraco.bin.dir}\Mammoth.${project::get-name()}.dll"> <sources> <include name="project/*.cs" /> </sources> <references> </references> </csc> </target> How do I tell NAnt to not execute the csc task if there are no CS files? I read about the 'if' attribute but am unsure what expression to use with it, as ${file::exists('*.cs')} does not work. The build script is a template for Umbraco (a CMS) projects and may or may not ever have .cs source files in the project. Ideally I would like to not have developers need to remember to modify the NAnt script to include the compile task when .cs files are added to the project (or exclude it when all .cs files are removed).

  Read the article

• DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

  - by Jammer

  I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

  Read the article

• Show users a list of unique items on Java Google App Engine

  - by James

  I've been going round in circles with what must be a very simple challenge but I want to do it the most efficient way from the start. So, I've watched Brett Slatkin's Google IO videos (2008 & 2009) about building scalable apps including http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AgaL6NGpkB8 and read the docs but as a n00b, I'm still not sure. I'm trying to build an app on GAEJ similar to the original 'hotornot' where a user is presented with an item which they rate. Once they rate it, they are presented with another one which they haven't seen before. My question is this; is it most efficient to do a query up front to grab x items (say 100) and put them in a list (stored in memcache?) or is it better to simply make a query for a new item after each rating. To keep track of the items a user has seen, I'm planning to keep those items' keys in a list property of the user's entity. Does that sound sensible? I've really got myself confused about this so any help would be much appreciated.

  Read the article

• How do I get jQuery's Uploadify plugin to work with ASP.NET MVC?

  - by KingNestor

  I'm in the process of trying to get the jQuery plugin, Uploadify, to work with ASP.NET MVC. I've got the plugin showing up fine: With the following javascript snippet: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileUpload').fileUpload({ 'uploader': '/Content/Flash/uploader.swf', 'script': '/Placement/Upload', 'folder': '/uploads', 'multi': 'true', 'buttonText': 'Browse', 'displayData': 'speed', 'simUploadLimit': 2, 'cancelImg': '/Content/Images/cancel.png' }); }); </script> Which seems like all is well in good. If you notice, the "script" attribute is set to my /Placement/Upload, which is my Placement Controller and my Upload Action. The main problem is, I'm having difficulty getting this action to fire to receive the file. I've set a breakpoint on that action and when I select a file to upload, it isn't getting executed. I've tried changing the method signature based off this article: public string Upload(HttpPostedFileBase FileData) { /* * * Do something with the FileData * */ return "Upload OK!"; } But this still doesn't fire. Can anyone help me write and get the Upload controller action's signature correctly so it will actually fire? I can then handle dealing with the file data myself. I just need some help getting the method action to fire.

  Read the article

• Problem adding a behaviors element to my WCF client config

  - by SteveChadbourne

  I'm trying to add a behaviors element to my client config file so I can specify maxItemsInObjectGraph. The error I get is: The element 'system.serviceModel' has invalid child element 'behaviors'. List of possible elements expected: 'bindings, client, extensions'. Here is my config: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_KernService" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceViewEventBehavior"> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647"/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost/KernMobile.WCF/KernService.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_KernService" contract="KernWcfService.KernService" name="BasicHttpBinding_KernService" behaviorConfiguration="ServiceViewEventBehavior" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> It's also complaining about the behaviorConfiguration attribute in the endpoint element. Any ideas? .Net 4.0 BTW.

  Read the article

• How can I get contentWindow for an Object element in IE7

  - by Scott Leis

  I have a HTML object element like this: <object title="Search results as XML" standby="Loading XML document..." type="text/xml" data="/__CA25761100195585.nsf/WebPrintListingXML?OpenAgent&date1=01/06/2009" width="100%" height="100%" border="0" name="resultIFrame" id="resultIFrame" Error: could not embed search results. </object I also have this javascript function (alert() calls added for debugging): function getFrameByName(fParent,fName) { var fArray=fParent.frames; if (!fName) return; if (fArray) { if (fArray.length) { for (var i=0; i<fArray.length; i++) { alert('loop '+i); if (fArray[i]) { if (fArray[i].name==fName) return fArray[i]; } } } } var tmp=document.getElementsByName(fName); if (tmp[0]) { alert('returning '+tmp[0]); if (!(tmp[0].contentWindow)) alert('contentWindow is null'); return tmp[0].contentWindow; } } And finally, this button is meant to print the content of the Object element: <input type="button" value="Print" name="printBtn" onclick="getFrameByName(window,'resultIFrame').print();" The button works perfectly in Firefox. Opera is good enough, though it prints the main document instead of just the object. IE7 gives the following error details: Line: 57 Char: 1 Error: 'undefined' is null or not an object Line 57 is where the button's "input" tag starts in the HTML source. Thanks to the alert('contentWindow is null') call in the JS function, I know that the object I'm getting in IE has no contentWindow property. I have tried changing the object tag to an iframe tag. This changes the JS behaviour, but causes other issues such as the height attribute being ignored and the content not displaying. Sticking with an object tag, how can I get this Object's window in IE7?

  Read the article

• Problems with Json Serialize Dictionary<Enum, Int32>

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, whenever i try to serialize the dictionary i get the exception: System.ArgumentException: Type 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2[[Foo.DictionarySerializationTest+TestEnum, Foo, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null],[System.Int32, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089]]' is not supported for serialization/deserialization of a dictionary, keys must be strings or object My Testcase is: public class DictionarySerializationTest { private enum TestEnum { A, B, C } public void SerializationTest() { Dictionary<TestEnum, Int32> data = new Dictionary<TestEnum, Int32>(); data.Add(TestEnum.A, 1); data.Add(TestEnum.B, 2); data.Add(TestEnum.C, 3); JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); String result = serializer.Serialize(data); // Throws } public void SerializationStringTest() { Dictionary<String, Int32> data = new Dictionary<String, Int32>(); data.Add(TestEnum.A.ToString(), 1); data.Add(TestEnum.B.ToString(), 2); data.Add(TestEnum.C.ToString(), 3); JavaScriptSerializer serializer = new JavaScriptSerializer(); String result = serializer.Serialize(data); // Succeeds } } Of course i could use .ToString() whenever i enter something into the Dictionary but since it's used quite often in performance relevant methods i would prefer using the enum. My only solution is using .ToString() and converting before entering the performance critical regions but that is clumsy and i would have to change my code structure just to be able to serialize the data. Does anyone have an idea how i could serialize the dictionary as <Enum, Int32>? I use the System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer for serialization.

  Read the article

• Using JQuery to traverse DOM structure, finding a specific <table> element located after HTML 'comme

  - by Shadow

  I currently have a website source code (no control over the source) which contains certain content that needs to be manipulated. This would be simple on the surface, however there is no unique ID attribute on the tag in question that can uniquely identify it, and therefore allow for further traversal. Here is a snippet of the source code, surrounding the tag in question. ... <td width="100%"> <!--This table snaps the content columns(one or two)--> <table border="0" width="100%"> ... Essentially, the HTML comment stuck out as an easy way to gain access to that element. Using the JQuery comment add-on from this question, and some help from snowlord comment below, I have been able to identify the comment and retrieve the following output using the 'dump' extension. $('td').comments().filter(":contains('This table snaps the content columns(one or two)')").dump(); returns; jQuery Object { 0 = DOMElement [ nodeName: DIV nodeValue: null innerHTML: [ 0 = String: This table snaps the content columns(one or two) ] ] } However I am not sure how to traverse to the sibling element in the DOM. This should be simple, but I haven't had much selector experience with JQuery. Any suggestions are appreciated.

  Read the article

• database structure

  - by jindalsyogesh

  I have a table named ActivityRecording. This table currently has 500,000 records. I need to add a lot of new inputs that relates to activityrecording table. The relation of activityrecording with these new input fields is 1 to 0,1. So, what's going to happen on screen is when user fills the ActivityRecording data, he will then be taken to a new page and this page will show a form based on the user's input (from a dropdown named service) in activityrecording. There will 6 different kinds of form (each form will have 7-8 inputs which includes textareas of size 5kb, textboxes and checkboxes). So, for one activityrecording user will fill one out of 6 forms. There are two ways I know (there could be more), I can design the data structure: Add all the inputs from all these 6 forms into the activityrecording table. So, columns belonging to 5 of these forms will be null in this table, only columns belonging to one of the forms will have values The other way would be add 6 new tables (one for each form) and add 6 foreign key columns to activityrecording table. So, out of 6 foreign keys, 5 will be null and one will actually point to a table Which approach is a better data structure design? Please take into consideration that number of rows in this table are 500,000 and are expected to grow at a faster rate now.

  Read the article

• Using twig variable to dynamically call an imported macro sub-function

  - by Chausser

  I am attempting if use a variable to call a specific macro name. I have a macros file that is being imported {% import 'form-elements.html.twig' as forms %} Now in that file there are all the form element macros: text, textarea, select, radio etc. I have an array variable that gets passed in that has an elements in it: $elements = array( array( 'type'=>'text, 'value'=>'some value', 'atts'=>null, ), array( 'type'=>'text, 'value'=>'some other value', 'atts'=>null, ), ); {{ elements }} what im trying to do is generate those elements from the macros. they work just fine when called by name: {{ forms.text(element.0.name,element.0.value,element.0.atts) }} However what i want to do is something like this: {% for element in elements %} {{ forms[element.type](element.name,element.value,element.atts) }} {% endfor %} I have tried the following all resulting in the same error: {{ forms["'"..element.type.."'"](element.name,element.value,element.atts) }} {{ forms.(element.type)(element.name,element.value,element.atts) }} {{ forms.{element.type}(element.name,element.value,element.atts) }} This unfortunately throws the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'LogicException' with message 'Attribute "value" does not exist for Node "Twig_Node_Expression_GetAttr".' in Twig\Environment.php on line 541 Any help or advice on a solution or a better schema to use would be very helpful.

  Read the article

• Checking for nil in view in Ruby on Rails

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I've been working with Rails for a while now and one thing I find myself constantly doing is checking to see if some attribute or object is nil in my view code before I display it. I'm starting to wonder if this is always the best idea. My rationale so far has been that since my application(s) rely on user input unexpected things can occur. If I've learned one thing from programming in general it's that users inputting things the programmer didn't think of is one of the biggest sources of run-time errors. By checking for nil values I'm hoping to sidestep that and have my views gracefully handle the problem. The thing is though I typically for various reasons have similar nil or invalid value checks in either my model or controller code. I wouldn't call it code duplication in the strictest sense, but it just doesn't seem very DRY. If I've already checked for nil objects in my controller is it okay if my view just assumes the object truly isn't nil? For attributes that can be nil that are displayed it makes sense to me to check every time, but for the objects themselves I'm not sure what is the best practice. Here's a simplified, but typical example of what I'm talking about: controller code def show @item = Item.find_by_id(params[:id]) @folders = Folder.find(:all, :order => 'display_order') if @item == nil or @item.folder == nil redirect_to(root_url) and return end end view code <% if @item != nil %> display the item's attributes here <% if @item.folder != nil %> <%= link_to @item.folder.name, folder_path(@item.folder) %> <% end %> <% else %> Oops! Looks like something went horribly wrong! <% end %> Is this a good idea or is it just silly?

  Read the article

• Problem: writing parameter values to data driven MSTEST output

  - by Shubh

  Hi, I am trying to extract some information about the parameter variants used in an MSTEST data driven test case from trx file. Currently, For data driven tests, I get the output of same testcase with different inputs as a sequence of tags , but there is no info about the value of the variants. Example: Suppose we have a [data driven]TestMethod1() and the data rows contain variations a and b. There are two variations a=1,b=2 for which the test passes and a=3,b=4 for which the test fails. If we can output the info that it was a=1,b=2 which passed and a=3 b=4 which failed in the trx file; the output will be meaningful. Better information about test case runs from the output file alone(without any dependencies). Investigating the test failure without rerunning the whole set If the data rows change in data source(now a=1,b=2 pass and a=5,b=6 fail) , easy to decipher that the errors are different; although the fail sequence is still the same(row 0 pass row 1 fail but now row1 is different) Has any of you gone through a similar problem? What did you follow? I tried to put the parameter value information in the Description attribute of TestMethod, it didnt work. Any other methods you think can work too? thanks, Shubhankar

  Read the article

• Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

  - by Brent Ramerth

  I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Styling individual radio buttons in drupal form

  - by Andrew

  I have this group of radio buttons in which each of individual button has of its own position set through style attribute. I would like to how can I archive the same by using drupal form api. I found how to style as whole but, not as individual control within group. Here's how my html code look like - <input type="radio" name="base_location" checked="checked" value="0" style="margin-left:70px;float:left;"/><span style="float:left;">District</span> <input type="radio" name="base_location" value="1" style="margin-left:50px;float:left;"/><span style="float:left;">MRT</span> <input type="radio" name="base_location" value="2" style="margin-left:60px;float:left;"/><span style="float:left;">Address</span> And this is the drupal code I'm stuck at - $form['base_location'] = array( '#type' => 'radios', '#title' => t('base location'), '#default_value' => variable_get('search_type', 0), '#options' => array( '0'=>t('District'), '1'=>t('MRT'), '2'=>t('Address')), '#description' => t('base location'), I'm aware of #type=radio existence. However, I do not know how to group all my radio buttons together in this regard. If I use same array key for all of them, they would collide each other. If I don't, they aren't seen as part of the same group. I thank you in advance.

  Read the article

• Ternary operator

  - by Antoine Leclair

  In PHP, I often use the ternary operator to add an attribute to an html element if it applies to the element in question. For example: <select name="blah"> <option value="1"<?= $blah == 1 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> One </option> <option value="2"<?= $blah == 2 ? ' selected="selected"' : '' ?>> Two </option> </select> I'm starting a project with Pylons using Mako for the templating. How can I achieve something similar? Right now, I see two possibilities that are not ideal. Solution 1: <select name="blah"> % if blah == 1: <option value="1" selected="selected">One</option> % else: <option value="1">One</option> % endif % if blah == 2: <option value="2" selected="selected">Two</option> % else: <option value="2">Two</option> % endif </select> Solution 2: <select name="blah"> <option value="1" % if blah == 1: selected="selected" % endif >One</option> <option value="2" % if blah == 2: selected="selected" % endif >Two</option> </select> In this particular case, the value is equal to the variable tested (value="1" = blah == 1), but I use the same pattern in other situations, like <?= isset($variable) ? ' value="$variable" : '' ?>. I am looking for a clean way to achieve this using Mako.

  Read the article

• Decrypting a string in C# 3.5 which was encrypted with openssl in php 5.3.2

  - by panny

  Hi everyone, maybe someone can clear me up. I have been surfing on this a while now. I used openssl from console to create a root certificate for me (privatekey.pem, publickey.pem, mycert.pem, mycertprivatekey.pfx). See the end of this text on how. The problem is still to get a string encrypted on the PHP side to be decrypted on the C# side with RSACryptoServiceProvider. Any ideas? PHP side I used the publickey.pem to read it into php: $server_public_key = openssl_pkey_get_public(file_get_contents("C:\publickey.pem")); // rsa encrypt openssl_public_encrypt("123", $encrypted, $server_public_key); and the privatekey.pem to check if it works: openssl_private_decrypt($encrypted, $decrypted, openssl_get_privatekey(file_get_contents("C:\privatekey.pem"))); Coming to the conclusion, that encryption/decryption works fine on the php side with these openssl root certificate files. C# side In same manner I read the keys into a .net C# console program: X509Certificate2 myCert2 = new X509Certificate2(); RSACryptoServiceProvider rsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); try { myCert2 = new X509Certificate2(@"C:\mycertprivatekey.pfx"); rsa = (RSACryptoServiceProvider)myCert2.PrivateKey; } catch (Exception e) { } string t = Convert.ToString(rsa.Decrypt(rsa.Encrypt(test, false), false)); coming to the point, that encryption/decryption works fine on the c# side with these openssl root certificate files. key generation on unix 1) openssl req -x509 -nodes -days 3650 -newkey rsa:1024 -keyout privatekey.pem -out mycert.pem 2) openssl rsa -in privatekey.pem -pubout -out publickey.pem 3) openssl pkcs12 -export -out mycertprivatekey.pfx -in mycert.pem -inkey privatekey.pem -name "my certificate"

  Read the article

• Visual Studio + Database Edition + CDC = Deploy Fail

  - by Ben

  Hi All, I've got a database using change data capture (CDC) that is created from a Visual Studio database project (GDR2). My problem is that I have a stored procedure that is analyzing the CDC information and then returning data. How is that a problem you ask? Well, the order of operation is as follows. Pre-deployment Script Tables Indexes, keys, etc. Procedures Post-deployment Script Inside the post-deployment script is where I enable CDC. Here-in lies the problem. The procedure that is acting on the CDC tables is bombing because they don't exist yet! I've tried to put the call to sys.sp_cdc_enable_table in the script that creates the table, but it doesn't like that. Error 102 TSD03070: This statement is not recognized in this context. C:...\Schema Objects\Schemas\dbo\Tables\Foo.table.sql 20 1 Foo Is there a better/built-in way to enable CDC such that it's references are available when the stored procedures are created? Is there a way to run a script after tables are created but before other objects are created? How about a way to create the procedure dependencies be damned? Or maybe I'm just doing things that shouldn't be done?!?! Now, I have a work around. Comment out the sproc body Deploy (CDC is created) Uncomment sproc Deploy Everything is great until the next time I update a CDC tracked table. Then I need to comment out the 'offending' procedure. Thanks for reading my question and thanks for your help!

  Read the article

• Dynamic Method Creation

  - by TJMonk15

  So, I have been trying to research this all morning, and have had no luck. I am trying to find a way to dynamically create a method/delegate/lambda that returns a new instance of a certain class (not known until runtime) that inherits from a certain base class. I can guarantee the following about the unknown/dynamic class It will always inherit from one known Class (Row) It will have atleast 2 constructors (one accepting a long, and one accepting an IDataRecord) I plan on doign the following: Finding all classes that have a certain attribute on them Creating a delegate/method/lambda/whatever that creates a new instance of the class Storing the delegate/whatever along with some properties in a struct/class Insert the struct into a hashtable When needed, pull the info out of the hashtable and calling the delegate/whatever to get a new instance of the class and returning it/adding it to a list/etc. I need help only with #2 above!!! I have no idea where to start. I really just need some reference material to get me started, or some keywords to throw into google. This is for a compact/simple to use ORM for our office here. I understand the above is not simple, but once working, should make maintaining the code incredibly simple. Please let me know if you need any more info! And thanks in advance! :)

  Read the article

• Windows 8 Data Binding Bug - OnPropertyChanged Updates Wrong Object

  - by Andrew

  I'm experiencing some really weird behavior with data binding in Windows 8. I have a combobox set up like this: <ComboBox VerticalAlignment="Center" Margin="0,18,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Right" Height="Auto" Width="138" Background="{StaticResource DarkBackgroundBrush}" BorderThickness="0" ItemsSource="{Binding CurrentForum.SortValues}" SelectedItem="{Binding CurrentForum.CurrentSort, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Right" Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource SortValueConverter}}"/> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> Inside of a page with the DataContext set to a statically located ViewModel. When I change that ViewModel's CurrentForm attribute, who's property is implemented like this... public FormViewModel CurrentForm { get { return _currentForm; } set { _currentForm = value; if (!_currentForm.IsLoaded) { _currentSubreddit.Refresh.Execute(null); } RaisePropertyChanged("CurrentForm"); } } ... something really strange happens. The previous FormViewModel's CurrentSort property is changed to the new FormViewModel's current sort property. This happens as the RaisePropertyChanged event is called, through a managed-to-native transition, with native code invoking the setter of CurrentSort of the previous FormViewModel. Does that sound like a bug in Win8's data binding? Am I doing something wrong?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377  | Next Page >