Search Results

Search found 10804 results on 433 pages for 'attribute keys'.

Page 366/433 | < Previous Page | 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373  | Next Page >

• Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

  - by Chris R

  I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

  Read the article

• Sort a List<T> using query expressions - LINQ C#

  - by Dan Yack

  I have a problem using Linq to order a structure like this : public class Person { public int ID { get; set; } public List<PersonAttribute> Attributes { get; set; } } public class PersonAttribute { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string Value { get; set; } } A person might go like this: PersonAttribute Age = new PersonAttribute { ID = 8, Name = "Age", Value = "32" }; PersonAttribute FirstName = new PersonAttribute { ID = 9, Name = "FirstName", Value = "Rebecca" }; PersonAttribute LastName = new PersonAttribute { ID = 10, Name = "LastName", Value = "Johnson" }; PersonAttribute Gender = new PersonAttribute { ID = 11, Name = "Gender", Value = "Female" }; I would like to use LINQ projection to sort a list of persons ascending by the person attribute of my choice, for example, sort on Age, or sort on FirstName. I am trying something like string mySortAttribute = "Age" PersonList.OrderBy(p => p.PersonAttribute.Find(s => s.Name == mySortAttribute).Value); But the syntax is failing me. Any clues? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• FIFO dequeueing in python?

  - by Aaron Ramsey

  hello again everybody— I'm looking to make a functional (not necessarily optimally efficient, as I'm very new to programming) FIFO queue, and am having trouble with my dequeueing. My code looks like this: class QueueNode: def __init__(self, data): self.data = data self.next = None def __str__(self): return str(self.data) class Queue: def__init__(self): self.front = None self.rear = None self.size = 0 def enqueue(self, item) newnode = QueueNode(item) newnode.next = None if self.size == 0: self.front = self.rear = newnode else: self.rear = newnode self.rear.next = newnode.next self.size = self.size+1 def dequeue(self) dequeued = self.front.data del self.front self.size = self.size-1 if self.size == 0: self.rear = None print self.front #for testing if I do this, and dequeue an item, I get the error "AttributeError: Queue instance has no attribute 'front'." I guess my function doesn't properly assign the new front of the queue? I'm not sure how to fix it though. I don't really want to start from scratch, so if there's a tweak to my code that would work, I'd prefer that—I'm not trying to minimize runtime so much as just get a feel for classes and things of that nature. Thanks in advance for any help, you guys are the best.

  Read the article

• How to exit grid with ctrl-TAB when grid is on a tabpage (onkeydown works when grid not on tabpage)

  - by Charles Hankey

  winforms .net 3.5 Ultrawingrid 9.2 In my subclass of Ultrawingrid.Ultragrid : Protected Overrides Sub OnKeyDown(ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventArgs) If e.KeyCode = Windows.Forms.Keys.Tab andalso e.control = True then SetFocusToNextControl(True) End if Mybase.OnKeyDown(e) End Sub This works fine. But when the grid is dropped on a TabControl tabpage, the ctrl-tab looks very different to the sub above. e.keycode is seen as controlkey {17} I realize that by default cntrl-Tab moves between tabpages. I need to override this behavior. My thought is I probably need a subclass of the tabControl which will pass the keycombo through just as the form does but I confess to being clueless as to how to accomplish that. I tried to override the onkeydown of a tabcontrol subclass and just issuing a return and not and base call to onkeydown if the ctrl-tab combo was pressed but it seemed to see the e.keycode as controlkey as well. FWIW I tried a different combination like ctrl-E and got pretty much the same result with focus disappearing from the grid but not going anywhere I could detect. The sub still saw the e.control as controlkey. Oddly, ctrl-X, ctrl-A etc all work in the grid and a ctrl-Delete combo I put in the subclass for deleting a row works fine. Once again - grid directly on form and it all works. I'm definitely over my head on this one. Guidance much appreciated. vb or c# fine. TIA

  Read the article

• What is the best database structure for this scenario?

  - by Ricketts

  I have a database that is holding real estate MLS (Multiple Listing Service) data. Currently, I have a single table that holds all the listing attributes (price, address, sqft, etc.). There are several different property types (residential, commercial, rental, income, land, etc.) and each property type share a majority of the attributes, but there are a few that are unique to that property type. My question is the shared attributes are in excess of 250 fields and this seems like too many fields to have in a single table. My thought is I could break them out into an EAV (Entity-Attribute-Value) format, but I've read many bad things about that and it would make running queries a real pain as any of the 250 fields could be searched on. If I were to go that route, I'd literally have to pull all the data out of the EAV table, grouped by listing id, merge it on the application side, then run my query against the in memory object collection. This also does not seem very efficient. I am looking for some ideas or recommendations on which way to proceed. Perhaps the 250+ field table is the only way to proceed. Just as a note, I'm using SQL Server 2012, .NET 4.5 w/ Entity Framework 5, C# and data is passed to asp.net web application via WCF service. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• How to check if JavaScript object is JSON

  - by Wei Hao

  I have a nested JSON object that I need to loop through, and the value of each key could be a String, JSON array or another JSON object. Depending on the type of object, I need to carry out different operations. Is there any way I can check the type of the object to see if it is a String, JSON object or JSON array? I tried using typeof and instanceof but both didn't seem to work, as typeof will return an object for both JSON object and array, and instanceof gives an error when I do obj instanceof JSON. To be more specific, after parsing the JSON into a JS object, is there any way I can check if it is a normal string, or an object with keys and values (from a JSON object), or an array (from a JSON array)? For example: JSON var data = {"hi": {"hello": ["hi1","hi2"] }, "hey":"words" } JavaScript var jsonObj = JSON.parse(data); var level1 = jsonObj.hi; var text = jsonObj.hey; var arr = level1.hello; //how to check if level1 was formerly a JSON object? //how to check if arr was formerly a JSON array? //how to check if text is a string?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

  Read the article

• XmlAttribute/XmlText cannot be used to encode complex type

  - by Conrad C

  I want to serialize a class Ticket into xml. I get the error :"XmlAttribute/XmlText cannot be used to encode complex type" because of my customfield class. This is how the xml for customfields should look like ( the attribute array is nesseray but I don't understand how to create it): <custom_fields type="array"> <custom_field name="Standby Reason" id="6"> <value/> </custom_field> <custom_field name="Close Date" id="84"> Class Ticket public class Ticket { [XmlElement("custom_fields")] public CustomFields Custom_fields { get; set; } Class CustomFields [Serializable] public class CustomFields { [XmlAttribute("array")] public List<CustomField> custom_field { get; set; } Class CustomField [Serializable] public class CustomField { [XmlIgnore] public string Name { get; set; } [XmlElement] public int Id { get; set; } [XmlElement] public string Value { get; set; }

  Read the article

• I can't figure out why this fps counter is inaccurate.

  - by rmetzger

  I'm trying to track frames per second in my game. I don't want the fps to show as an average. I want to see how the frame rate is affected when I push keys and add models etc. So I am using a variable to store the current time and previous time, and when they differ by 1 second, then I update the fps. My problem is that it is showing around 33fps but when I move the mouse around really fast, the fps jumps up to 49fps. Other times, if I change a simple line of code elsewhere not related to the frame counter, or close the project and open it later, the fps will be around 60. Vsync is on so I can't tell if the mouse is still effecting the fps. Here is my code which is in an update function that happens every frame: FrameCount++; currentTime = timeGetTime (); static unsigned long prevTime = currentTime; TimeDelta = (currentTime - prevTime) / 1000; if (TimeDelta > 1.0f) { fps = FrameCount / TimeDelta; prevTime = currentTime; FrameCount = 0; TimeDelta = 0; } Here are the variable declarations: int FrameCount; double fps, currentTime, prevTime, TimeDelta, TimeElapsed; Please let me know what is wrong here and how to fix it, or if you have a better way to count fps. Thanks!!!!!! I am using DirectX 9 btw but I doubt that is relevant, and I am using PeekMessage. Should I be using an if else statement instead? Here is my message processing loop: MSG msg; ZeroMemory (&msg, sizeof (MSG)); while (msg.message != WM_QUIT) { if (PeekMessage(&msg, NULL, 0, 0, PM_REMOVE)) { TranslateMessage (&msg); DispatchMessage (&msg); } Update (); RenderFrame (); }

  Read the article

• nhibernate fluent repository pattern insert problem

  - by voam

  I am trying to use Fluent NHibernate and the repository pattern. I would like my business layer to not be knowledgeable of the data persistence layer. Ideally I would pass in an initialized domain object to the insert method of the repository and all would be well. Where I run into problems is if the object being passed in has a child object. For example say I want to insert an a new order for a customer, and the customer is a property of the order object. I would like to do something like this: Customer c = new Customer; c.CustomerId = 1; Order o = new Order; o.Customer = c; repository.InsertOrder(o); The problem is that using NHiberate the CustomerId field is only privately settable so I can not set it directly like this. so what I have ended up doing is have my repository have an interface of Order InsertOrder(int customerId) where all the foreign keys get passed in as parameters. Somehow this just doesn't seem right. The other approach was to use the NHibernate session variable to load a customer object in my business model and then have the order passed in to the repository but this defeats my persistence ignorance ideal. Should I throw this persistence ignorance out the window or am I missing something here? Thanks

  Read the article

• Fastest way to modify a decimal-keyed table in MySQL?

  - by javanix

  I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

  Read the article

• Fastest way to convert a list of doubles to a unique list of integers?

  - by javanix

  I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

  Read the article

• Symfony 1.3: how to force as inline the choices generated by renderLabel()

  - by user248959

  Hi, this line: <li><?php echo $form['genero']->renderLabel() ?></li> is generating <li> <label for="usuario_genero">Genero</label> <ul class="radio_list"> <li> <!-- this li doesn't have any id--> <input type="radio" checked="checked" id="usuario_genero_0" value="0" name="usuario[genero]">&nbsp;<label for="usuario_genero_0">Chico</label> </li> <li> <!-- this li doesn't have any id--> <input type="radio" id="usuario_genero_1" value="1" name="usuario[genero]">&nbsp;<label for="usuario_genero_1">Chica</label> </li> </ul> </li> I'd like to force the choices as inline, but the li's generated don't have the 'id' attribute. What should i do? Regards Javi

  Read the article

• Store variables during loop and use in it another template

  - by krisvandenbergh

  Is there a way to store a variable/param during a for-each loop in a sort of array, and use it in another template, namely <xsl:template match="Foundation.Core.Classifier.feature">. All the classname values that appear during the for-each should be stored. How would you implement that in XSLT? Here's my current code. <xsl:for-each select="Foundation.Core.Class"> <xsl:for-each select="Foundation.Core.ModelElement.name"> <xsl:param name="classname"> <xsl:value-of select="Foundation.Core.ModelElement.name"/> </xsl:param> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:apply-templates select="Foundation.Core.Classifier.feature" /> </xsl:for-each> Here's the template in which the classname parameters should be used. <xsl:template match="Foundation.Core.Classifier.feature"> <xsl:for-each select="Foundation.Core.Attribute"> <owl:DatatypeProperty rdf:ID="{Foundation.Core.ModelElement.name}"> <rdfs:domain rdf:resource="$classname" /> </owl:DatatypeProperty> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> The input file can be found at http://krisvandenbergh.be/uml_pricing.xml

  Read the article

• Counting elements and reading attributes with .net2.0 ?

  - by Prix

  I have an application that is on .net 2.0 and I am having some difficult with it as I am more use to linq. The xml file look like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <updates> <files> <file url="files/filename.ext" checksum="06B9EEA618EEFF53D0E9B97C33C4D3DE3492E086" folder="bin" system="0" size="40448" /> <file url="files/filename.ext" checksum="CA8078D1FDCBD589D3769D293014154B8854D6A9" folder="" system="0" size="216" /> <file url="files/filename.ext" checksum="CA8078D1FDCBD589D3769D293014154B8854D6A9" folder="" system="0" size="216" /> </files> </updates> The file is downloaded and readed on the fly: XmlDocument readXML = new XmlDocument(); readXML.LoadXml(xmlData); Initially i was thinking it would go with something like this: XmlElement root = doc.DocumentElement; XmlNodeList nodes = root.SelectNodes("//files"); foreach (XmlNode node in nodes) { ... im reading it ... } But before reading them I need to know how many they are to use on my progress bar and I am also clueless on how to grab the attribute of the file element in this case. How could I count how many "file" ELEMENTS I have (count them before entering the foreach ofc) and read their attributes ? I need the count because it will be used to update the progress bar. Overall it is not reading my xml very well.

  Read the article

• In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

  - by Bytecode Ninja

  In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Hiding Opetions of a Selection with JQuery

  - by Syed Abdul Rahman

  Okay, let's start with an example. <select id = "selection1">     <option value = "1" id = "1">Number 1</option>     <option value = "2" id = "2">Number 2</option>     <option value = "3" id = "3">Number 3</option> </select> Now from here, we have a dropdown with 3 options. What I want to do now is to hide an option. Adding style = "display:none" will not help. The option would not appear in the dropdownlist, but using the arrow keys, you can still select it. Essentially, it does exactly what the code says. It isn't displayed, and it stops there. A JQuery function of $("1").hide() will not work. Plus, I don't only want to hide the option, I want to completely remove it. Any possibility on doing so? Do I have to use parent/sibling/child elements? If so, I'm still not sure how. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Microsoft products such as Visual Studio 2010 does not require to enter serial number

  - by MainMa

  Hi, I am member of WebsiteSpark and was member of DreamSpark. Both programs enable to download software and provide serial keys to use. Some software like Windows Server has an ISO file to download and a serial number displayed on the website which I must enter during installation. Some other software does not have any serial key. For example, when I downloaded Visual Studio 2010, there was just a link to an ISO file. During installation, there was no such a field as serial number (whereas Visual Studio 2008 had this field at the beginning of installation process). There is the same thing with SQL Server 2008 and Microsoft Expression Studio 3. Even when I've downloaded the public trial RTM version of Windows Seven Enterprise, there were no serial number to enter. I don't think that such expensive products as SQL Server 2008 Enterprise are delivered without serials and online validation, so I suppose that the serial is embedded into the product itself, either in installation binaries or in a separate config file, so is already in the ISO I download so I do not have to enter it. So my question is, how it is done technically? Is each 2 GBs ISO generated on-demand on the server to embed a serial each time this ISO is requested? I suppose that if it is done, it has a huge impact on servers performance (no caching, no streaming...), so what may be the techniques used behind? I want to implement the same feature in a product I intend to ship (to simplify installation by avoiding to ask to enter serial number), but I really don't see how to do it with low impact on server performance.

  Read the article

• How do I simulate "In" using Linq2Sql

  - by flipdoubt

  I often find myself with a list of disconnected Linq2Sql objects or keys that I need to re-select from a Linq2Sql data-context to update or delete in the database. If this were SQL, I would use IN in the SQL WHERE clause, but I am stuck with what to do in Linq2Sql. Here is a sample of what I would like to write: public void MarkValidated(IList<int> idsToValidate) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate).ToList(); foreach(var item in items) item.Validated = DateTime.Now; _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Or: public void DeleteItems(IList<int> idsToDelete) { using(_Db.NewSession()) // Instatiates new DataContext { // ThatAreIn <- this is where I am stuck var items = _Db.Items.ThatAreIn(idsToValidate); _Db.Items.DeleteAllOnSubmit(items); _Db.SubmitChanges(); } // Disposes of DataContext } Can I get this done in one trip to the database? If so, how? Is it possible to send all those ints to the database as a list of parameters and is that more efficient than doing a foreach over the list to select each item one at a time?

  Read the article

• Maximum number of characters using keystrokes A, Ctrl+A, Ctrl+C and Ctrl+V

  - by munda

  This is an interview question from google. I am not able to solve it by myself. Can somebody shed some light? Write a program to print the sequence of keystrokes such that it generates the maximum number of character 'A's. You are allowed to use only 4 keys: A, Ctrl+A, Ctrl+C and Ctrl+V. Only N keystrokes are allowed. All Ctrl+ characters are considered as one keystroke, so Ctrl+A is one keystroke. For example, the sequence A, Ctrl+A, Ctrl+C, Ctrl+V generates two A's in 4 keystrokes. Ctrl+A is Select All Ctrl+C is Copy Ctrl+V is Paste I did some mathematics. For any N, using x numbers of A's , one Ctrl+A, one Ctrl+C and y Ctrl+V, we can generate max ((N-1)/2)2 number of A's. For some N M, it is better to use as many Ctrl+A's, Ctrl+C and Ctrl+V sequences as it doubles the number of A's. The sequence Ctrl+A, Ctrl+V, Ctrl+C will not overwrite the existing selection. It will append the copied selection to selected one.

  Read the article

• Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

  - by Vman

  MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• NoClassDefFoundError without any class name

  - by Safder

  Hello, I am trying to run a java task from ant. I am trying to run the "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher" class. I keep on getting the "NoClassDefFoundError" without any class name being specified. I am also getting a "ClassNotFoundException" along with that displaying a message "Could not find the main class: . Program will exit". Here's a snippet of the error [java] Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: [java] Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) [java] at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) [java] at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) [java] Could not find the main class: . Program will exit. [java] Java Result: 1 Now I am trying to run an ant class from an ant jar and i specifiy the classpath where this class file resides using the "classpathref" attribute, however I still get this message. I checked the ant jar to check the Manifest and the "main" class is specified properly (it's "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher") . I have exhausted all my resources. Please help ! ! ! ps: My environment is Eclipse on Ubuntu 9.04

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

  Read the article

• ClassCleanup in MSTest is static, but the build server uses nunit to run the unit tests. How can i a

  - by Kettenbach

  Hi All, MSTest has a [ClassCleanup()] attribute, which needs to be static as far as I can tell. I like to run through after my unit tests have run,and clean up my database. This all works great, however when I go to our build server and use our Nant build script, it seems like the unit tests are run with NUnit. NUnit doesn't seem to like the cleanup method to be static. It therefore ignores my tests in that class. What can I do to remedy this? I prefer to not use [TestCleanUp()] as that is run after each test. Does anyone have any suggestions? I know [TestCleanup()] aids in decoupling, but I really prefer the [ClassCleanup()] in this situation. Here is some example code. ////Use ClassCleanup to run code after all tests have run [ClassCleanup()] public static void MyFacadeTestCleanup() { UpdateCleanup(); } private static void UpdateCleanup() { DbCommand dbCommand; Database db; try { db = DatabaseFactory.CreateDatabase(TestConstants.DB_NAME); int rowsAffected; dbCommand = db.GetSqlStringCommand("DELETE FROM tblA WHERE biID=@biID"); db.AddInParameter(dbCommand, "biID", DbType.Int64, biToDelete); rowsAffected = db.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); Debug.WriteLineIf(rowsAffected == TestConstants.ONE_ROW, string.Format("biId '{0}' was successfully deleted.", biToDelete)); } catch (SqlException ex) { } finally { dbCommand = null; db = null; biDelete = 0; } } Thanks for any pointers and yes i realize I'm not catching anything. I need to get passed this hurdle first. Cheers, ~ck in San Diego

  Read the article

• Hadoop/MapReduce: Reading and writing classes generated from DDL

  - by Dave

  Hi, Can someone walk me though the basic work-flow of reading and writing data with classes generated from DDL? I have defined some struct-like records using DDL. For example: class Customer { ustring FirstName; ustring LastName; ustring CardNo; long LastPurchase; } I've compiled this to get a Customer class and included it into my project. I can easily see how to use this as input and output for mappers and reducers (the generated class implements Writable), but not how to read and write it to file. The JavaDoc for the org.apache.hadoop.record package talks about serializing these records in Binary, CSV or XML format. How do I actually do that? Say my reducer produces IntWritable keys and Customer values. What OutputFormat do I use to write the result in CSV format? What InputFormat would I use to read the resulting files in later, if I wanted to perform analysis over them?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373  | Next Page >