Search Results

Search found 10804 results on 433 pages for 'attribute keys'.

Page 366/433 | < Previous Page | 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373  | Next Page >

• Adding a new target type to msbuild: How do I refer to the itemname in the task rules?

  - by jmucchiello

  I'm trying to add a task to build the COM proxy DLL after building the main DLL. So I created the following in a .target file: <Target Name="ProxyDLL" Inputs="$(IntDir)%(WHATGOESHERE)_i.c;$(IntDir)dlldata.c" Outputs="$(OutDir)%(WHATGOESHERE)ps.dll" AfterTargets="Link"> <CL Sources="$(IntDir)%(WHATGOESHERE)_i.c;$(IntDir)dlldata.c" /> </Target> And reference it from the .vcxproj file as <ItemGroup> <ProxyDLL Include="FTAccountant" /> </ItemGroup> So the FTAccountant.DLL file is created through the normal build process and then when attempts to compile the proxy stubs it creates these command lines: cl /c dir\_i.c dir\dlldata.c And of course it can't find _i.c. The first attempt, I put %(Filename) in the WHATGOESHERE space and I got this error: C:\ActivePay\Build\Proxy DLL.targets(6,3): error MSB4095: The item metadata %(Filename) is being referenced without an item name. Specify the item name by using %(itemname.Filename). So I changed it to %(itemname.Filename) and that is an empty string. How to get the value specified in the task's Include attribute and use it within the task?

  Read the article

• jquery animation headache

  - by OneNerd

  Doing some jquery animation. I have certain divs set up with an attribute of ani_seq='x' where x is 1 to 9, and then have a class assigned of 'animate'. I am using the following code, which works fine, and fades in each item in sequence: function my_animate( in_wrapper_id ) { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " .animate").hide(); // hide all items to be animated // animate all seq1 items -- $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='1']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='2']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='3']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='4']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='5']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='6']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='7']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='8']").fadeIn( 1000, function() { $j("#" + in_wrapper_id + " [ani_seq='9']").fadeIn( 1000 ); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); }); } The problem I have is, some items are not just fade-in. Some should slide in from the left or right. So, I can certainly write a custom function to do that. What I do not know how to do is set up the custom function so it works like the fadeIn() function in that it accepts a callback function that will be executed when the animation is done. For example, lets say I i have a function like this (not sure this is the proper format): function custom_animate ( in_time_in_ms, in_callback_function ) { // get class of element, and based on class perform either // a fade-in, or a slide-in from left, or a slide-in from right // then after animation is done, return control back to calling // function so it can resume } I would want to replace all of the fadeIn() calls in the first piece of code with custom_animate(), and then inside that function, determine what kind of animation to perform. Can anyone help? Thanks -

  Read the article

• Implementation of "Automatic Lightweight Migration" for Core Data (iPhone)

  - by RickiG

  Hi I would like to make my app able to do an automatic lightweight migration when I add new attributes to my core data model. In the guide from Apple this is the only info on the subject I could find: Automatic Lightweight Migration To request automatic lightweight migration, you set appropriate flags in the options dictionary you pass in addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:URL:options:error:. You need to set values corresponding to both the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption and the NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption keys to YES: NSError *error; NSURL *storeURL = <#The URL of a persistent store#>; NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *psc = <#The coordinator#>; NSDictionary *options = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption, [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption, nil]; if (![psc addPersistentStoreWithType:<#Store type#> configuration:<#Configuration or nil#> URL:storeURL options:options error:&error]) { // Handle the error. } My NSPersistentStoreCoordinator is initialized in this way: - (NSPersistentStoreCoordinator *)persistentStoreCoordinator { if (persistentStoreCoordinator != nil) { return persistentStoreCoordinator; } NSURL *storeUrl = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [[self applicationDocumentsDirectory] stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"FC.sqlite"]]; NSError *error = nil; persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSSQLiteStoreType configuration:nil URL:storeUrl options:nil error:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } return persistentStoreCoordinator; } I am having trouble seeing where and how I should add the Apple code to get the Automatic Lightweight Migration working?

  Read the article

• Efficient Method for Preventing Hotlinking via .htaccess

  - by Michael Robinson

  I need to confirm something before I go accuse someone of ... well I'd rather not say. The problem: We allow users to upload images and embed them within text on our site. In the past we allowed users to hotlink to our images as well, but due to server load we unfortunately had to stop this. Current "solution": The method the programmer used to solve our "too many connections" issue was to rename the file that receives and processes image requests (image_request.php) to image_request2.php, and replace the contents of the original with <?php header("HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error") ; ?> Obviously this has caused all images with their src attribute pointing to the original image_request.php to be broken, and is also the wrong code to be sending in this case. Proposed solution: I feel a more elegant solution would be: In .htaccess If the request is for image_request.php Check referrer If referrer is not our site, send the appropriate header If referrer is our site, proceed to image_request.php and process image request What I would like to know is: Compared to simply returning a 500 for each request to image_request.php: How much more load would be incurred if we were to use my proposed alternative solution outlined above? Is there a better way to do this? Our main concern is that the site stays up. I am not willing to agree that breaking all internally linked images is the best / only way to solve this. I refuse to tell our users that because of something WE changed they must now manually change the embed code in all their previously uploaded content.

  Read the article

• Raw types and subtyping

  - by Dmitrii

  We have generic class SomeClass<T>{ } We can write the line: SomeClass s= new SomeClass<String>(); It's ok, because raw type is supertype for generic type. But SomeClass<String> s= new SomeClass(); is correct to. Why is it correct? I thought that type erasure was before type checking, but it's wrong. From Hacker's Guide to Javac When the Java compiler is invoked with default compile policy it performs the following passes: parse: Reads a set of *.java source files and maps the resulting token sequence into AST-Nodes. enter: Enters symbols for the definitions into the symbol table. process annotations: If Requested, processes annotations found in the specified compilation units. attribute: Attributes the Syntax trees. This step includes name resolution, type checking and constant folding. flow: Performs data ow analysis on the trees from the previous step. This includes checks for assignments and reachability. desugar: Rewrites the AST and translates away some syntactic sugar. generate: Generates Source Files or Class Files. Generic is syntax sugar, hence type erasure invoked at 6 pass, after type checking, which invoked at 4 pass. I'm confused.

  Read the article

• JSF how to temporary disable validators to save draft

  - by Swiety

  I have a pretty complex form with lots of inputs and validators. For the user it takes pretty long time (even over an hour) to complete that, so they would like to be able to save the draft data, even if it violates rules like mandatory fields being not typed in. I believe this problem is common to many web applications, but can't find any well recognised pattern how this should be implemented. Can you please advise how to achieve that? For now I can see the following options: use of immediate=true on "Save draft" button doesn't work, as the UI data would not be stored on the bean, so I wouldn't be able to access it. Technically I could find the data in UI component tree, but traversing that doesn't seem to be a good idea. remove all the fields validation from the page and validate the data programmaticaly in the action listener defined for the form. Again, not a good idea, form is really complex, there are plenty of fields so validation implemented this way would be very messy. implement my own validators, that would be controlled by some request attribute, which would be set for standard form submission (with full validation expected) and would be unset for "save as draft" submission (when validation should be skipped). Again, not a good solution, I would need to provide my own wrappers for all validators I am using. But as you see no one is really reasonable. Is there really no simple solution to the problem?

  Read the article

• A question about DOM parser used with Python

  - by fixxxer

  I'm using the following python code to search for a node in an XML file and changing the value of an attribute of one of it's children.Changes are happening correctly when the node is displayed using toxml().But, when it is written to a file, the attributes rearrange themselves(as seen in the Source and the Final XML below). Could anyone explain how and why this happen? Python code: #!/usr/bin/env python import xml from xml.dom.minidom import parse dom=parse("max.xml") #print "Please enter the store name:" for sku in dom.getElementsByTagName("node"): if sku.getAttribute("name") == "store": sku.childNodes[1].childNodes[5].setAttribute("value","Delhi,India") print sku.toxml() xml.dom.ext.PrettyPrint(dom, open("new.xml", "w")) a part of the Source XML: <node name='store' node_id='515' module='mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue' config_builder='' inherant='false' description='Configurable Value'> <match> <property name='1' value='point'/> <property name='2' value='0'/> <property name='val' value='Store# 09204 Staten Island, NY'/> <property name='3' value='str'/> </match> </node> Final XML : <node config_builder="" description="Configurable Value" inherant="false" module="mpx.lib.node.simple_value.SimpleValue" name="store" node_id="515"> <match> <property name="1" value="point"/> <property name="2" value="0"/> <property name="val" value="Delhi,India"/> <property name="3" value="str"/> </match> </node>

  Read the article

• With Google Website Optimizer's multivariate testing, can I vary multiple css classes on a single di

  - by brahn

  I would like to use Google Website Optimizer (GWO)'s multivariate tests to test some different versions of a web page. I can change from version to version just by varying some class tags on a div, i.e. the different versions are of this form: <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar2">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar2">content</div> In the ideal, I would be able to use GWO section code in place of each class, and google would just swap in the appropriate tags (foo1 or foo2, bar1 or bar2). However, naively doing this results in horribly malformed code because I would be trying to put <script> tags inside the div's class attribute: <div id="testing" class=" <script>utmx_section("foo-class")</script>foo1</noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class")</script>bar1</noscript> "> content </div> And indeed, the browser chokes all over it. My current best approach is just to use a different div for each variable in the test, as follows: <script>utmx_section("foo-class-div")</script> <div class="foo1"> </noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class-div")</script> <div class="bar1"> </noscript> content </div> </div> So testing multiple variables requires layer of div-nesting per variable, and it all seems rather awkward. Is there a better approach that I could use in which I just vary the classes on a single div?

  Read the article

• When is someone else's code I use from the internet "mine"?

  - by robault

  I'm building a library from methods that I've found on the internet. Some are free to use or modify with no requirements, others say that if I leave a comment in the code it's okay to use, others say when I use the code I have to attribute the use of someone's code in my application (in the credits for my app I guess). What I've been doing is reorganizing classes, renaming methods, adding descriptions (code comments), renaming the parameters and names inside the methods to something meaningful, optimizing loops if applicable, changing return types, adding try/catch/throw blocks, adding parameter checks and cleaning up resources in the methods. For example; I didn't come up with the algorithm for blurring a Bitmap but I've taken the basic example of iterating through the pixels and turned it into a decent library method (applying the aforementioned modifications). I understand how to go about building it now myself but I didn't actually hit the keystrokes to make it and I couldn't have come up with it before learning from their example. What about code people get in answers on Stackoverflow or examples from Codeproject? At what point can I drop their requirements because at n% their code became mine? FWIW I intend on using the libraries to create products that I will sell.

  Read the article

• Binding, Prefixes and generated HTML

  - by Vman

  MVC newbie question re binders. Supposing I have two strongly typed partial actions that happen to have a model attributes with the same name, and are rendered in the same containing page i.e.: Class Friend {string Name {get; set ;} DateTime DOB {get; set ;}} Class Foe {string Name {get; set ;} string ReasonForDislike {get; set ;}} Both partials will have a line: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Name) %> And associated controller actions: public ActionResult SaveFriend(Friend friend) public ActionResult SaveFoe(Foe foe) My problem is that both will render on my containing page with the same id (of course, bad for lots of reasons). I’m aware of the [Bind] attribute that allows me add a prefix, resulting in code: public ActionResult SaveFriend([Bind(Prefix = “friend”)] Friend friend) <%= Html.TextBox("friend.Name", Model. Name) %> //Boo, no TextBoxFor :( But this still doesn’t cut it. I can just about tolerate the loss of the strongly typed TextBoxFor helpers but I’ve yet to get clientside validation to work with prefixes: I’ve tried: <%= Html.ValidationMessage("friend.Name") %> ...and every other variant I can think of. I seem to need the model to be aware of the prefix in both directions but bind only applies when mapping the inbound request. It seems (to me) a common scenario but I’m struggling to find examples out there. What am I missing! Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Silverlight 3 + Java WebService

  - by Heko

  Hello! I have a Silverlight 3 project, and I need to call a Java WebService - the bindings are ok (SOAP 1.1 and basicHttpBinding): ClientConfig File: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None"> <transport> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </transport> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="myAddress" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpBinding" contract="SkyInfoServiceReference.SkyinfoTestInterface" name="SkyinfoTestInterfaceExport2_SkyinfoTestInterfaceHttpPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I call a method on client I get this Policy error: An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI '...'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. I know about those 2 policy XML filesbut Java EE service which I'm trying to call is hosted on a IBM WebSphere Process Server to which I don't have access. Does anybody know how to work around this policy exception?

  Read the article

• How to eliminate duplicate nodes bases on values of multiple attributes?

  - by JayRaj

  Hello All, How can I eliminate duplicate nodes based on values of multiple (more than 1) attributes? Also the attribute names are passed as parameters to the stylesheet. Now I am aware of the Muenchian method of grouping that uses a <xsl:key> element. But I came to know that XSLT 1.0 does not allow paramters/variables in <xsl:key>. Is there another method(s) to achieve duplicate nodes removal? It is fine if it not as efficient as the Munechian method. Update from previus question: XML: <data id = "root"> <record id="1" operator1='xxx' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="2" operator1='abc' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="3" operator1='abc' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="4" operator1='xxx' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="5" operator1='xxx' operator2='lkj' operator3='tyu'/> <record id="6" operator1='xxx' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="7" operator1='abc' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="8" operator1='abc' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="9" operator1='xxx' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> <record id="10" operator1='rrr' operator2='yyy' operator3='zzz'/> </data>

  Read the article

• Routing problem with calling a new method without an ID

  - by alkaloids

  I'm trying to put together a form_tag that edits several Shift objects. I have the form built properly, and it's passing on the correct parameters. I have verified that the parameters work with updating the objects correctly in the console. However, when I click the submit button, I get the error: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in ShiftsController#update_individual Couldn't find Shift without an ID My route for the controller it is calling looks like this looks like this: map.resources :shifts, :collection => { :update_individual => :put } The method in ShiftsController is this: def update_individual Shift.update(params[:shifts].keys, params[:shifts].values) flash[:notice] = "Schedule saved" end The relevant form parts are these: <% form_tag( update_individual_shifts_path ) do %> ... (fields for...) <%= submit_tag "Save" %> <% end %> Why is this not working? If I browse to the url: "http://localhost:3000/shifts/update_individual/5" (or any number that corresponds to an existing shift), I get the proper error about having no parameters set, but when I pass parameters without an ID of some sort, it errors out. How do I make it stop looking for an ID at the end of the URL?

  Read the article

• PHP: Post ASPX form that uses 'WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions' with cUrl

  - by Oliver Cooper

  I am trying to post an ASPX form which uses SharePoint with PHP. Posting data works with standard forms, I just can't seem to get this form working. I did notice an onclick attribute on the submit button: onclick="javascript:WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions("ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$btnSaveTask", "", true, "", "", false, false))" I have never used ASPX and have no idea what this is. It is not an authentication problem or something wrong with the url as it returns the webpage (which contains the form) fine. Here is my PHP code: function add($username, $password){ $data = array( 'ctl00$PlaceHolderSearchArea$ctl01$ctl00' => 'https://keystone.stpeters.sa.edu.au', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderSearchArea$ctl01$ctl04' => '0', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$DateStart$DateStartDate' => '9/05/2012', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$DateDue$DateDueDate' => '10/05/2012', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$Title' => 'test again', 'ctl00$PlaceHolderMain$btnSaveTask' => 'OK', '__spText1' => '', '__spText2' => '' ); $curl_handle = curl_init(); $fullurl = "https://keystone.stpeters.sa.edu.au/_layouts/StPeters.Keystone/MyTasks/MyTaskDetail.aspx?id=0&IsDlg=1"; // $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPAUTH, CURLAUTH_ANY); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, "$username:$password"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $fullurl); $returned = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $returned; }

  Read the article

• Apply the REL attibute automatically to posts using jQuery

  - by Couto

  Edited: I mean grouping as giving the same REL attibute to all IMGs in the same post, but each post has different REL as the example at the end of this question. So, I need to do the following: <div id="Blog1" class="widget Blog"> <div class="blog-posts hfeed"> <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> <a name="8829400899632947948"/> <div class="post-body entry-content"> <div id="8829400899632947948"> <div class="separator"> <a imageanchor="1" href="/images/outta.png"> <img src="/images/outta.png"/></a></div></div> <div style="clear: both;"/> </div> <div class="post-footer"> </div></div></div></div> I'm using jQuery and Colorbox. The first two DIVs are posts containers. I need to group the IMGs in each <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> using the REL attribute, like: 1 - Post 1.1 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.2 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.3 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.4 - IMG - REL="group0" 2 - Post 2.1 - IMG - REL="group1" 3 - Post 3.1 - IMG - REL="group2" 3.2 - IMG - REL="group2" I've tryied HAS, PARENT > CHILDREN and CHILDREN() from jQuery and REL: from Colorbox, but it seems I'm lacking somewhere in logic. Could someone help me?

  Read the article

• How to check if JavaScript object is JSON

  - by Wei Hao

  I have a nested JSON object that I need to loop through, and the value of each key could be a String, JSON array or another JSON object. Depending on the type of object, I need to carry out different operations. Is there any way I can check the type of the object to see if it is a String, JSON object or JSON array? I tried using typeof and instanceof but both didn't seem to work, as typeof will return an object for both JSON object and array, and instanceof gives an error when I do obj instanceof JSON. To be more specific, after parsing the JSON into a JS object, is there any way I can check if it is a normal string, or an object with keys and values (from a JSON object), or an array (from a JSON array)? For example: JSON var data = {"hi": {"hello": ["hi1","hi2"] }, "hey":"words" } JavaScript var jsonObj = JSON.parse(data); var level1 = jsonObj.hi; var text = jsonObj.hey; var arr = level1.hello; //how to check if level1 was formerly a JSON object? //how to check if arr was formerly a JSON array? //how to check if text is a string?

  Read the article

• Comparing all values within a List against each other

  - by Kave

  I am a bit stuck here and can't think further. public struct CandidateDetail { public int CellX { get; set; } public int CellY { get; set; } public int CellId { get; set; } } var dic = new Dictionary<int, List<CandidateDetail>>(); How can I compare each CandidateDetail item against other CandidateDetail items within the same dictionary in the most efficient way? Example: There are three keys for the dictionary: 5, 6 and 1. Therefore we have three entries. now each of these key entries would have a List associated with. In this case let say each of these three numbers has exactly two CandidateDetails items within the list associated to each key. This means in other words we have two 5, two 6 and two 1 in different or in the same cells. I would like to know: if[5].1stItem.CellId == [6].1stItem.CellId = we got a hit. That means we have a 5 and a 6 within the same Cell if[5].2ndItem.CellId == [6].2ndItem.CellId = perfect. We found out that the other 5 and 6 are together within a different cell. if[1].1stItem.CellId == ... Now I need to check the 1 also against the other 5 and 6 to see if the one exists within the previous same two cells or not. Could a Linq expression help perhaps? I am quite stuck here... I don't know...Maybe I am taking the wrong approach. I am trying to solve the "Hidden pair" of the game Sudoku. :) http://www.sudokusolver.eu/ExplainSolveMethodD.aspx Many Thanks, Kave

  Read the article

• can i know the Thread runnable class attributes in java?

  - by dori naji

  probability this question have been asked before but i cant find anything in my searching mechanism. I am trying to create a multiple threads, in an array list but i want to retrieve them from an arraylist and filter them by the attribute of w1 i used in my code. any ideas ? w1 = new FirstWorker(ProductsList, OrdersList, s); FirstWorkerThread = new Thread(w1); ThreadArrayList.add(FirstWorkerThread); //I know i cant do the code below but i want to do that how ? for(Thread x : ThreadArrayList){ x.ProductsList } this is FirstWorker class import java.lang.String; import java.util.HashMap; /* * To change this template, choose Tools | Templates and open the template in * the editor. */ /** * * @author Dimitris */ public class FirstWorker extends Thread implements Runnable { private OrderList orderlist; private ProductList productlist; private String Worker; boolean Stop; private int speed = 1000; public FirstWorker(ProductList productlist, OrderList orderlist, String Worker) { this.productlist = productlist; this.orderlist = orderlist; this.Worker = Worker; this.Stop = true; } public void run() { if (Stop == true) { try { Thread.sleep(100); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } while (orderlist.returnLengthofOrder() != 0) { if (Thread.interrupted()) { System.out.println("I am in the thread inturrupt"); // We've been interrupted: no more crunching. return; } if (orderlist.getDone() == true) { } else if (orderlist.getDone() == false) { orderlist.setDoneTrue(); orderlist.Purchased(Worker); orderlist.setDoneFalse(); try { Thread.sleep(this.speed); } catch (InterruptedException e) { return; } } } } } public void setWork() { Stop = false; } public void setSpeed(int speed) { this.speed = speed; } }

  Read the article

• Parent CSS (jQuery)

  - by Glister

  There is <dl> with padding-top <dl style="padding-top: 150px;"> <dt>text</dt> <dd><img width="150" height="150" src="..." /></dd> <dt>text 2</dt> <dd><img width="150" height="250" src="..." /></dd> <dt>text 3</dt> <dd><img width="150" height="350" src="..." /></dd> </dl> The difference between images - height. Trying to write a script, which will change a height of the <dl>, when <dd> is clicked. Height should be taken from the height attribute of the dd img. Tryed this, but it doesn't work: $("#posters dd").click(function(){ var parent_padding = $(this).find("img").attr("height"); $(this).parent().css({"padding-top":parent_padding}); }); Thanks.

  Read the article

• populate textboxs with xml node attributes

  - by Doug

  I have Data.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <data> <album> <slide title="Autum Leaves" description="Leaves from the fall of 1986" source="images/Autumn Leaves.jpg" thumbnail="images/Autumn Leaves_thumb.jpg" /> <slide title="Creek" description="Creek in Alaska" source="images/Creek.jpg" thumbnail="images/Creek_thumb.jpg" /> </album> </data> I'd like to be able to edit the attributes of each Slide node via GridView (that has a "Select" column added.) And so far I have: protected void GridView1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int selectedIndex = GridView1.SelectedIndex; LoadXmlData(selectedIndex); } private void LoadXmlData(int selectedIndex) { XmlDocument xmldoc = new XmlDocument(); xmldoc.Load(MapPath(@"..\photo_gallery\Data.xml")); XmlNodeList nodelist = xmldoc.DocumentElement.ChildNodes; XmlNode xmlnode = nodelist.Item(selectedIndex); titleTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["title"].InnerText; descriptionTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["description"].InnerText; sourceTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["source"].InnerText; thumbTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["thumbnail"].InnerText; The code for LoadXmlData is just a guess on my part - I'm new to working with xml in this way. I'd like have the user to slected the row from the gridview, then populate a set of text boxes with each slide attributed for updating back to the Data.xml file. The error I'm getting is "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" at the line: titleTextBox.Text = xmlnode.Attributes["@title"].InnerText; - so I'm not reaching the attribute "title" of the slide node. Thanks for any ideas you may have.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to group records belonging to an entity in dbunit?

  - by Joshua

  Our JPA entity model auto-generates primary key identifiers for user, user_address tables. Would it be possible to group these entities given below via dbunit, so that I don't need to provide neither the primary key as well as the foreign key reference from user_address.user_id. It is getting very hard to maintain these keys (i.e. I would prefer to group the primary record 'user' and the child records 'user_address' so that dbunit can group them automatically by looking up the entity metadata). Is it achievable? <user id="1" first_name="Josh" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address id="1" user_id="1" address="Main St" city="Los Angeles"/> I would prefer something like this <!-- First user --> <user first_name="Josh" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address address="Main St" city="Los Angeles"/> <!-- Second user --> <user first_name="Mary" creation_date="2009-07-11 15:45:28"/> <user_address address="Taylors St" city="San Jose"/>

  Read the article

• Why are my Flex resource bundles not being loaded?

  - by Chris R

  I have an Actionscript module in the flex source folder filterModules, which is one of two additional source folders in my project (the main source folder is reports, but I'm not dealing with anything in there right now). Here's the MXML content that references the resources. ... This array is assigned to the dataProvider field of a ComboBox. It's not bound using the bindings, presumably for reasons that made sense to the original developer, and it'd be nontrivial to change the class to make that happen. I additionally have a resource property file in a folder resources/en_US and I have the source folder resources/{locale} in the project source settings. My additional compiler options are -locale en_US. The resource property file is resources/en_US/labels.properties (All paths are relative to the flash builder project root) and contains (amongst other things) these keys: metric.q3 = Overall Satisfaction metric.q5 = Personnel metric.q9a = Issue Resolution metric.q42 = Visit Duration Sat metric.q34 = Visit Duration I have written some FlexUnit tests that run in my local Flash Player that exercise these resources -- they check that every label is represented in the metrics array, for example, so I know that the resource file is loaded when run locally. However, when I copy the module .swf file over to my server, the combo box to which the array is assigned is empty. I copy the .swf like so, if it matters: rsync -rlDv --inplace -T /tmp ~/projects/flex_reports/bin-debug/rankingFilter.swf HOSTNAME:WEBROOT/flashPath/ Why is this? I am not able to debug the remote module because our surrounding site sets up a lot of context and makes some database calls to determine which module to load. I'm hoping to get some pointers on why resource bundles might not show up. I'd understand it if the array was present with wrong labels, but the array is instead completely empty, which is pretty odd.

  Read the article

• I can't figure out why this fps counter is inaccurate.

  - by rmetzger

  I'm trying to track frames per second in my game. I don't want the fps to show as an average. I want to see how the frame rate is affected when I push keys and add models etc. So I am using a variable to store the current time and previous time, and when they differ by 1 second, then I update the fps. My problem is that it is showing around 33fps but when I move the mouse around really fast, the fps jumps up to 49fps. Other times, if I change a simple line of code elsewhere not related to the frame counter, or close the project and open it later, the fps will be around 60. Vsync is on so I can't tell if the mouse is still effecting the fps. Here is my code which is in an update function that happens every frame: FrameCount++; currentTime = timeGetTime (); static unsigned long prevTime = currentTime; TimeDelta = (currentTime - prevTime) / 1000; if (TimeDelta > 1.0f) { fps = FrameCount / TimeDelta; prevTime = currentTime; FrameCount = 0; TimeDelta = 0; } Here are the variable declarations: int FrameCount; double fps, currentTime, prevTime, TimeDelta, TimeElapsed; Please let me know what is wrong here and how to fix it, or if you have a better way to count fps. Thanks!!!!!! I am using DirectX 9 btw but I doubt that is relevant, and I am using PeekMessage. Should I be using an if else statement instead? Here is my message processing loop: MSG msg; ZeroMemory (&msg, sizeof (MSG)); while (msg.message != WM_QUIT) { if (PeekMessage(&msg, NULL, 0, 0, PM_REMOVE)) { TranslateMessage (&msg); DispatchMessage (&msg); } Update (); RenderFrame (); }

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

  Read the article

• nhibernate fluent repository pattern insert problem

  - by voam

  I am trying to use Fluent NHibernate and the repository pattern. I would like my business layer to not be knowledgeable of the data persistence layer. Ideally I would pass in an initialized domain object to the insert method of the repository and all would be well. Where I run into problems is if the object being passed in has a child object. For example say I want to insert an a new order for a customer, and the customer is a property of the order object. I would like to do something like this: Customer c = new Customer; c.CustomerId = 1; Order o = new Order; o.Customer = c; repository.InsertOrder(o); The problem is that using NHiberate the CustomerId field is only privately settable so I can not set it directly like this. so what I have ended up doing is have my repository have an interface of Order InsertOrder(int customerId) where all the foreign keys get passed in as parameters. Somehow this just doesn't seem right. The other approach was to use the NHibernate session variable to load a customer object in my business model and then have the order passed in to the repository but this defeats my persistence ignorance ideal. Should I throw this persistence ignorance out the window or am I missing something here? Thanks

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373  | Next Page >