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  • SFINAE failing with enum template parameter

    - by zeroes00
    Can someone explain the following behaviour (I'm using Visual Studio 2010). header: #pragma once #include <boost\utility\enable_if.hpp> using boost::enable_if_c; enum WeekDay {MONDAY, TUESDAY, WEDNESDAY, THURSDAY, FRIDAY, SATURDAY, SUNDAY}; template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} source: bool b = goToWork<MONDAY>(); compiler this gives error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY!=6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' and error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY==6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' But if I change the function template parameter from the enum type WeekDay to int, it compiles fine: template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} Also the normal function template specialization works fine, no surprises there: template<WeekDay DAY> bool goToWork() {return true;} template<> bool goToWork<SUNDAY>() {return false;} To make things even weirder, if I change the source file to use any other WeekDay than MONDAY or TUESDAY, i.e. bool b = goToWork<THURSDAY>(); the error changes to this: error C2440: 'specialization' : cannot convert from 'int' to 'const WeekDay' Conversion to enumeration type requires an explicit cast (static_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast)

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  • Adding time zone hours difference to time

    - by Hwang
    I know there's a much better and correct way to do it, but i need a temporarily solutions. I need to add in extra hours to the time, and the day will change automatically too. How should I change the code below? package { public class getTime { private var today:Date=new Date(); private var hour:uint=today.getHours(); private var minute:uint=today.getMinutes(); private var month:uint=today.getMonth(); private var monthArray:Array=new Array('January','February','March','April','May','June','July','August','September','October','November','December'); private var time:String = getUSClockTime(today.getHours(), today.getMinutes()); public var dateNtime:String=(time+", " +today.getDate()+" "+monthArray[month]+" "+today.getFullYear());; public function getTime() { } private function getUSClockTime(hrs:uint, mins:uint):String { var modifier:String="PM"; var minLabel:String=doubleDigitFormat(mins); if (hrs>12) { hrs=hrs-12; } else if (hrs == 0) { modifier="AM"; hrs=12; } else if (hrs < 12) { modifier="AM"; } return (doubleDigitFormat(hrs) + ":" + minLabel + " " + modifier); } private function doubleDigitFormat(num):String { if (num<10) { return ("0" + num); } return num; } } }

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  • C# ErrorProvider Want to know if any are Active

    - by RcK
    I want to know if any ErrorProvider are active in my form. being able to find this out might help reduce my code.. I did find this thing here Counting ErrorProvider but incase someone knows a better way... so here goes. Ok so basically I have a WinForm which has many TextBoxes Now when user enters values I use Validating to perform validation and if it does not match Regex I set the ErrorProvider ON for that Control.. similarly if the user changes the value to a acceptable one I switch ErrorProvider OFF for that Control.. but when SAVE is clicked i have to do another check anyways incase the user did not listen to me and change the thing like he was supposed to and still clicked SAVE.. I dont want the thing crashing.. soo mm is there like a thing where I could say if ErrorProviders is not active then proceed with save else message box saying change it. [ANOTHER QUESTION] Umm When Validating it only Validates when the Control loses Focus... I kinda of want it to do validation when user stops typing.. I hope you get what I mean Like Email Address(textbox) when user is typing his/her name in I [DON'T] want it to do validation yet, but when user has finished entering is waiting for ErrorProvider to disappear(But it doesn't coz it only does that when control loses focus) 2 odd seconds after typing can i make the validation take place?

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  • jQuery show based on checkbox value at page load.

    - by Jacob Huggart
    I have an ASP MVC web app and on one of the pages there is a set of Main checkboxes with sub-checkboxes underneath them. The sub-checkboxes should only show up when the corresponding main checkbox is checked. I have the following code that works just fine as long as none of the checkboxes are checked when the page loads. $("input[id$=Suffix]").change(function() { prefix = this.id; if (!$(this).hasClass("checked")) { $("tr[id^=" + prefix + "]").show(); $(this).addClass("checked"); } else { $("tr[id^=" + prefix + "]").hide(); $(this).removeClass("checked"); } }); Now I need to check a database for the values of the main checkboxes. I get the values, and can check the boxes on page load. But when the page comes up, the sub-checkboxes are not displayed when the main checkbox is checked. Also, if the main checkbox is checked when the page loads, the sub-checkboxes are only displayed when the main chcekbox is unchecked (obviously because the above function only acts on .change()). What do you all suggest I try? If you need further explanation feel free to ask. edit: btw, all of this is in $(document).ready()

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  • IList<Item> Collection Class accessing database

    - by Mike
    Hi, I have a database with Users. Users have Items. These Items can change actively. How do you access the items in a collection type format? For the user, I fill all the user properties at the time of instantiation. If I load the user's items at the time of the instantiation, and the items change, they will have old data. I was thinking, maybe I need an ItemCollection class and have that a field/property apart of the user class, that way to traverse all the user's items I could use a foreach loop. So, my question is, what is the best practice/best way of accessing the items from a database using some sort of collection? On accessing the particular Item, it needs to get the latest database information, and when the user does do a foreach loop, the latest item information must be available. I.e. What I'm trying to do Console.WriteLine(User.Items[3].ID); returns 5. //this updates the item information and saves it to the database. User.Items[3].ID = 13; //Add a new item to the database. User.Items.Add(new Item { id = 17}); foreach (Item item in User.Items) { //this would traverse all items in the database. //not some cached copy at the time of instantiation of the user. }

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  • How can I set drawable to a ListView in android

    - by sxingfeng
    I am writing a app for android 1.5. I want to use a complex listview to display my data. I want to show a ImageView of a drawable object in my List item. I learned from a demo: ------> listData.put("Img", listData.put("Img", R.drawable.XXX)); listData.put("Time", "100"); listItems.add(listData); It can display correctly, however, I want to change Img at runtime, The image maybe generated at run-time, so I change the code as follow, but it falls. Can anyone help me ? many thanks! protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.item_list); itemListView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.listview); ArrayList<HashMap<String, Object>> listItems = new ArrayList<HashMap<String, Object>>(); for(int i = 0;i <XXX.size(); ++i) { HashMap<String, Object> listData = new HashMap<String, Object>(); ---------> 1) listData.put("Img", new Drawable(XXX)); 2) listData.put("Time", "100"); 3) listItems.add(listData); } SimpleAdapter listItemAdapter = new SimpleAdapter(this, listItems, R.layout.listitem, new String[] { "Img", "Time"}, new int[] { R.id.listitem_img, R.id.listitem_time }); itemListView.setAdapter(listItemAdapter); listitem.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout android:layout_width="fill_parent" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:paddingBottom="4dip" android:paddingLeft="12dip" android:paddingRight="12dip"> <ImageView android:paddingTop="12dip" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/listitem_img" /> <TextView android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textSize="20dip" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/listitem_time" /> </LinearLayout>

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  • Binding event handlers to specific elements, using bubbling (JavaScript/jQuery)

    - by Bungle
    I'm working on a project that approximates the functionality of Firebug's inspector tool. That is, when mousing over elements on the page, I'd like to highlight them (by changing their background color), and when they're clicked, I'd like to execute a function that builds a CSS selector that can be used to identify them. However, I've been running into problems related to event bubbling, and have thoroughly confused myself. Rather than walk you down that path, it might make sense just to explain what I'm trying to do and ask for some help getting started. Here are some specs: I'm only interested in elements that contain a text node (or any descendant elements with text nodes). When the mouse enters such an element, change its background color. When the mouse leaves that element, change its background color back to what it was originally. When an element is clicked, execute a function that builds a CSS selector for that element. I don't want a mouseover on an element's margin area to count as a mouseover for that element, but for the element beneath (I think that's default browser behavior anyway?). I can handle the code that highlights/unhighlights, and builds the CSS selector. What I'm primarily having trouble with is efficiently binding event handlers to the elements that I want to be highlightable/clickable, and avoiding/stopping bubbling so that mousing over a (<p>) element doesn't also execute the handler function on the <body>, for example. I think the right way to do this is to bind event handlers to the document element, then somehow use bubbling to only execute the bound function on the topmost element, but I don't have any idea what that code looks like, and that's really where I could use help. I'm using jQuery, and would like to rely on that as much as possible. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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  • jquery question for events

    - by OM The Eternity
    I have to copy the text from one text box to another using checkbox through jquery I have applied jquery event in my code, it works partially correct.. code is as follows: <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery.js" ></script> </head> <body> <form> <input type="text" name="startdate" id="startdate" value=""/> <input type="text" name="enddate" id="enddate" value=""/> <input type="checkbox" name="checker" id="checker" /> </form> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#startdate").change(function(o){ if($("#checker").is(":checked")){ $("#enddate").val($("#startdate").val()); } }); }); </script> </body> </html> this code works as follows, I always have checkbox checked by default hence whenever i insert the start date and then tab, the start date gets copied to enddate. My Problem but now if uncheck the checkbox and change the start date and then recheck the check box, the start date is not copied, Now what should be done in this situation.. please help me....

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  • iPhone - ModalViewController not raising to top of the screen

    - by Oliver
    Hello, I have a UIImagePickerController that is shown [self presentModalViewController:self.picker animated:NO]; Then later on the code, I allow the user to display a preference panel : PreferencesController *nextWindow = [[[PreferencesController alloc] initWithNibName:@"Preferences" bundle:nil] autorelease]; UINavigationController* navController = [[[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:nextWindow] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:navController animated:YES]; At this point, the new controller raises on the screen, but don't go to the top. Some space is left "transparent" at the top (I can see the camera view behind), and the bottom of the view is hidden out of the screen. The space I am talking about is about a status bar height. The status bar is not present on the screen. The navigation controller is hidden : self.navigationController.navigationBarHidden = YES; There is a toolbar at the top of the view. Nothing special into the view. The height of the view is defined at 480. All simulated element are set off in IB. The autoresize properties are all set on. I had a previous xib (I rebuilt it from scratch) that worked very well. I don't see what I missed on this one (I have only changed the xib, that replaces the previous one). I've cleaned the cache to be sure there was nothing left. No change... I've deleted everything in the new view to prevent some conflicts. No change... What did I miss ? How could I remove this empty space ?

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  • Adding changes from one Mercurial repository to another

    - by Patrik Hägne
    When changing the VCS for my project FakeItEasy from SVN to Mercurial on Google Code I was a bit too eager (I'm funny like that). What I did was just checking the latest version out of SVN and then commiting that checkout as the first revision of the new Mercurial repo. This obviously has the effect that all history is lost. Later when getting a bit better acustomed to Mercurial I realized that there is such a thing as a "convert extension" that allows you to convert a SVN repo into a Mercurial repo. Now what I want to do is to convert the old SVN repo and then have all change sets from the currently existing Mercurial repo imported into this converted repo except the very first commit to Mercurial. I've converted the SVN repo to a local Mercurial repo but now is when I'm stuck. I thought I'd be able to use the convert extension to bring the current Mercurial repository into the converted one and having a splice map remove the first commit but I can not seem to get this to work. I've also tried to just use convert without splice map to get all change sets from the current Mercurial repo into the converted one and the rebase the second version in the current to the last commit from the old SVN repository but I can't get that to work either. To make this clearer lets say I have these two repositories: A: revA1-revA2 B: revB1-revB2-revB3 (Where revB1 is actually a copy of revA2) Now I want to combine these two into the new repository containing this: C: revA1-revA2-revB2-revB3

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  • Django sphinx works only after app restart.

    - by Lhiash
    Hi, I've set up django-sphinx in my project, which works perfectly only for some time. Later it always returns empty result set. Surprisingly restarting django app fixes it. And search works again but again only for short time (or very limiter number of queries). Heres my sphinx.conf: source src_questions { # data source type = mysql sql_host = xxxxxx sql_user = xxxxxx #replace with your db username sql_pass = xxxxxx #replace with your db password sql_db = xxxxxx #replace with your db name # these two are optional sql_port = xxxxxx #sql_sock = /var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock # pre-query, executed before the main fetch query sql_query_pre = SET NAMES utf8 # main document fetch query sql_query = SELECT q.id AS id, q.title AS title, q.tagnames AS tags, q.html AS text, q.level AS level \ FROM question AS q \ WHERE q.deleted=0 \ # optional - used by command-line search utility to display document information sql_query_info = SELECT title, id, level FROM question WHERE id=$id sql_attr_uint = level } index questions { # which document source to index source = src_questions # this is path and index file name without extension # you may need to change this path or create this folder path = /home/rafal/core_index/index_questions # docinfo (ie. per-document attribute values) storage strategy docinfo = extern # morphology morphology = stem_en # stopwords file #stopwords = /var/data/sphinx/stopwords.txt # minimum word length min_word_len = 3 # uncomment next 2 lines to allow wildcard (*) searches min_infix_len = 1 enable_star = 1 # charset encoding type charset_type = utf-8 } # indexer settings indexer { # memory limit (default is 32M) mem_limit = 64M } # searchd settings searchd { # IP address on which search daemon will bind and accept # optional, default is to listen on all addresses, # ie. address = 0.0.0.0 address = 127.0.0.1 # port on which search daemon will listen port = 3312 # searchd run info is logged here - create or change the folder log = ../log/sphinx.log # all the search queries are logged here query_log = ../log/query.log # client read timeout, seconds read_timeout = 5 # maximum amount of children to fork max_children = 30 # a file which will contain searchd process ID pid_file = searchd.pid # maximum amount of matches this daemon would ever retrieve # from each index and serve to client max_matches = 1000 } and heres my search part from views.py: content = Question.search.query(keywords) if level: content = content.filter(level=level)#level is array of integers There are no errors in any logs, it just isnt returning any results. All help would be most appreciated.

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  • How do you replicate changes from one excel sheet to another in two separate excel apps?

    - by incognick
    This is all in C# .NET Excel Interop Automation for Office 2007. Say you create two excel apps and open the same workbook for each application: app = new Excel.ApplicationClass(); app2 = new Excel.ApplicationClass(); string fileLocation = "myBook.xslx"; workbook = app.Workbooks.Open(fileLocation, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); workbook2 = app2.Workbooks.Open(fileLocation, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); Now, I want to replicate any changes that occur in workbook2, into workbook. I figured out I can hook up the SheetChanged event to capture cell changes: app.SheetChange += new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.AppEvents_SheetChangeEventHandler(app_SheetChange); void app_SheetChange(object Sh, Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Range Target) { Excel.Worksheet sheetReadOnly = (Excel.Worksheet)Sh; string changedRange = Target.get_Address(missing, missing, Excel.XlReferenceStyle.xlA1, missing, missing); Console.WriteLine("The value of " + sheetReadOnly.Name + ":" + changedRange + " was changed to = " + Target.Value2); Excel.Worksheet sheet = workbook.Worksheets[sheetReadOnly.Index] as Excel.Worksheet; Excel.Range range = sheet.get_Range(changedRange, missing); range.Value2 = Target.Value2; } How do you capture calculate changes? I can hook onto the calculate event but the only thing that is passed is the sheet, not the cells that were updated. I tried forcing an app.Calculate() or app.CalculateFullRebuild() but nothing updates in the other application. The change event does not get fired when formulas change (i.e. a slider control causes a SheetCalculate event and not a SheetChange event) Is there a way to see what formulas were updated? Or is there an easier way to sync two workbooks programmatically in real time?

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  • inverse relation to multiple inheriting classes in django

    - by Ofri Raviv
    Here are my schematic models: class Law(models.Model): ... class Bill(models.Model): ... # data for a proposed law, or change of an existing law class PrivateBill(Bill): ... # data for a Bill that was initiated by a parliament member class GovernmentBill(Bill): ... # data for a Bill that was initiated by the government It is possible and likely that in the future I (or maybe someone else) would want to add more Bill types. Every Bill should point to a Law (indicating what law this bill is going to change) and my question is: What is the best way to implement this? If I add the ForeignKey(Law) to Bill, I'll have a relation from every Bill to Law, but a Law would only have an inverse relation to Bills (bill_set), and not a different inverse relation to each type of bill. Of course I'll be able to filter each type of bill to get only the ones pointing to a specific Law, but this is something I think I'll need to use often, so I think having privatebill_set, governmentbill_set etc would make the code more readable. Another possible solution is to add the foreign key to each of the inheriting classes (this would give me a privatebill_set, governmentbill_set, futurebill_set), but that seems hairy because I would be relying on future programmers to remember to add that relation. How would you solve this?

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  • WPF tree data binding

    - by Am
    Hi, I have a well defined tree repository. Where I can rename items, move them up, down, etc. Add new and delete. The data is stored in a table as follows: Index Parent Label Left Right 1 0 root 1 14 2 1 food 2 7 3 2 cake 3 4 4 2 pie 5 6 5 1 flowers 8 13 6 5 roses 9 10 7 5 violets 11 12 Representing the following tree: (1) root (14) (2) food (7) (8) flowers (13) (3) cake (4) (5) pie (6) (9) roeses (10) (11) violets (12) or root food cake pie flowers roses violets Now, my problem is how to represent this in a bindable way, so that a TreeView can handle all the possible data changes? Renaming is easy, all I need is to make the label an updatble field. But what if a user moves flowers above food? I can make the relevant data changes, but they cause a complete data change to all other items in the tree. And all the examples I found of bindable hierarchies are good for non static trees.. So my current (and bad) solution is to reload the displayed tree after relocation change. Any direction will be good. Thanks

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  • Using FluentNHibernate with .Net4

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. First I met a problem which required that I set a [SecurityCritical] attribute. Fine - I fixed this. But the reason this was exposed was because an exception was thrown in the first place. And the exception thrown was the following - when calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." This is what I saw in my own project when moving to VS2010. I have tried changing Fluent to use the x64 variant of SQLite, but this doesn't change anything. Does it sound like it might be related to mixing of 32bit and 64bit assemblies? I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite - on a 64bit machine - successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • aspnet_compiler -fixednames does not work?

    - by Terrence
    I am unable to get the -fixednames switch to create dlls for the cs code behind files. The files in the bin folder are compiled aspx pages, but the code behind files are all compiled into one large websitename.dll file. Here is my command with switches. aspnet_compiler -v / -p E:\Source\DotNet4\mysolution\website -f -d -fixednames E:\Source\DotNet4\CompiledWebSite This produces many files in the bin folder. website.dll and website.pdb (contains code behind) myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll (compiled aspx layout ui) I have tested this over and over to make sure I am not missing anything. The test is place a label on myform1.aspx, and in the codebehind populate the label with some text. Compile the website with the above switches and deploy the website. Make a change to the myform1 codebehind and change the label text. Compile and only deploy the myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll to the website. Result: label is still the same. Now deploy the website.dll and pdb and the label changes. Can anyone tell me how to get -fixednames to create sinle dlls for codebehind?

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  • PHP syntax for referencing self with late static binding

    - by Chris
    When I learned PHP it was pretty much in procedural form, more recently I've been trying to adapt to the OOP way of doing things. Hoever the tutorials I've been following were produced before PHP 5.3 when late static binding was introduced. What I want to know is how do I reference self when calling a function from a parent class. For example these two methods were written for a User class which is a child of DatabaseObject. Right now they're sitting inside the User class, but, as they're used in other child classes of DatabaseObject I'd like to promote them to be included inside DatabaseObject. public static function find_all() { global $database; $result_set = self::find_by_sql("select * from ".self::$table_name); return $result_set; } and: protected function cleaned_attributes() { global $database; $clean_attributes = array(); foreach($this->attributes() as $key => $value) { $clean_attributes[$key] = $database->escape_value($value); } return $clean_attributes; } So I have three questions: 1) How do I change the self:: reference when I move it to the parent. Is it static:: or something similar? 2) When calling the function from my code do I call it in the same way, as a function of the child class eg User::find_all() or is there a change there also? 3) Is there anything else I need to know before I start chopping bits up?

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  • How do I use text in one cell to trigger row to be copied on another sheet in Excel?

    - by Brian Eby
    I provide all of the cut lists for our cabinet manufacturing in Excel. I tally all parts for the entire job on the first worksheet in an Excel file, and then filter the rows based on the "Material" column, and manually copy/paste each row in to its own material-specific worksheet (example: I filter "Materials" column for "Maple Ply", and then copy all "Maple Ply" rows to the "Maple Ply" worksheet). Then the material specific worksheets are sent to the shop floor for cutting. This is time consuming, and if I need to change any data in the first page, I have to go and manually update the copied row in its material-specific page. Is there any way to make each material page "look" for its material, and automatically populate itself with any row that has the appropriate material in the material column (example: any time I enter "Maple Ply" in the material column of sheet one, that row is automatically copied to the "Maple Ply" worksheet)? If so, could this link be dynamic, rather than just a copy, so that if I change a cell in a particular row on sheet one, that data is also updated on the material-specific worksheet copy? Thank you, Brian

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  • jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

    - by ILMV
    So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

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  • Business entity: private instance VS single instance

    - by taoufik
    Suppose my WinForms application has a business entity Order, the entity is used in multiple views, each view handles a different domain or use-case in the application. As an example, one managing orders, the other one digging into one order and displaying additional data. If I'd use nHibernate (or any other ORM) and use one session/dataContext per view (or per db action), I'd end up getting two different instances for the same Order (let's say orderId = 1). Although functionally the same entity, they are technically two different instances. Yes, I could implement Equals/GetHashcode to make them "seem" the same. Why would you go for a single instance per entity vs private instances per view or per use-case? Having single instances has the advantage of sharing INotifyPropertyChanged events, and sharing additional (non-persistent) data. Having a private instance in each view would give you the flexibility of the undo functionality on a view level. In the example above, I'd allow the user to change order details, and give them the flexibility to not save the change. Here, synchronisation between the view/use-case happens on a data persistence level. What would your argument be?

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  • Database sharing/versioning

    - by DarkJaff
    Hi everyone, I have a question but I'm not sure of the word to use. My problem: I have an application using a database to stock information. The database can ben in access (local) or in a server (SQL Server or Oracle). We support these 3 kind of database. We want to give the possibility to the user to do what I think we can call versioning. Let me explain : We have a database 1. This is the master. We want to be able to create a database 2 that will be the same thing as database 1 but we can give it to someone else. They each work on each other side, adding, modifying and deleting records on this very complex database. After that, we want the database 1 to include the change from database 2, but with the possibility to dismiss some of the change. For you information, ou application is already multiuser so why don't we just use this multi-user and forget about this versionning? It's because sometimes, we need to give a copy of the database to another company on another site and they can't connect on our server. They work on their side and then, we want to merge. Is there anyone here with experience with this type of requirement? We have a lot of ideas but most of them require a LOT of work, massive modification to the database or to the existing queries. This is a 2 millions and growing C++ app, so rewriting it is not possible! Thanks for any ideas that you may give us! J-F

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  • Updating nullability of columns in SQL 2008

    - by Shaul
    I have a very wide table, containing lots and lots of bit fields. These bit fields were originally set up as nullable. Now we've just made a decision that it doesn't make sense to have them nullable; the value is either Yes or No, default No. In other words, the schema should change from: create table MyTable( ID bigint not null, Name varchar(100) not null, BitField1 bit null, BitField2 bit null, ... BitFieldN bit null ) to create table MyTable( ID bigint not null, Name varchar(100) not null, BitField1 bit not null, BitField2 bit not null, ... BitFieldN bit not null ) alter table MyTable add constraint DF_BitField1 default 0 for BitField1 alter table MyTable add constraint DF_BitField2 default 0 for BitField2 alter table MyTable add constraint DF_BitField3 default 0 for BitField3 So I've just gone in through the SQL Management Studio, updating all these fields to non-nullable, default value 0. And guess what - when I try to update it, SQL Mgmt studio internally recreates the table and then tries to reinsert all the data into the new table... including the null values! Which of course generates an error, because it's explicitly trying to insert a null value into a non-nullable column. Aaargh! Obviously I could run N update statements of the form: update MyTable set BitField1 = 0 where BitField1 is null update MyTable set BitField2 = 0 where BitField2 is null but as I said before, there are n fields out there, and what's more, this change has to propagate out to several identical databases. Very painful to implement manually. Is there any way to make the table modification just ignore the null values and allow the default rule to kick in when you attempt to insert a null value?

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  • Android: Determine when app is being finalized

    - by Matt
    Hi all, I posted a question yesterday about determining when an app is being finalized vs destroyed for screen orientation change. Thanks to the answers I received I was able to resolve my problem with the screen orientation change. However, I am still running into a roadblock. This app I am working on logs into a website with an HttpClient. As long as the app remains in memory the HttpClient will retain the cookies from logging in. However, once it is killed, it would need to log in again. My question: How can I determine when the app is being killed from memory so I can set a boolean to false telling the app it has been removed from memory so the next time it starts it will read this and determine is must log in again? Or is it possible to serialize an HttpClient and put that in the savedInstanceState bundle? May extract the cookies from the client and put those in the savedInstanceState bundle? Is there something I'm completely missing here maybe? Any help or a point in the right direction is greatly appreciated because this one has me stumped. Thank you!

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  • Just messed up a server misusing chown, how to execute it correctly?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    Hi! I'm moving from an old shared host to a dedicated server at MediaTemple. The server is running Plesk CP, but, as far as I can tell, there's no way via the Interface to do what I want to do. On the old shared host, running cPanel, I creative a .zip archive of all the website's files. I downloaded this to my computer, then uploaded it with FTP to the new host account I'd set up. Finally, I logged in via SSH, navigated to the directory the zip was stored in (something like var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ and ran the unzip command on the file sitearchive.zip. This extracted everything just the fine. The site appeared to work just fine. The problem: When I tried to edit a file through FTP, I got Error - 160: Permission Denied. When I Get Info for the file I'm trying to edit, it says the owner and group is swimwir1. I attemped to use chown at this point to change owner - and yes, as you may be able to tell, I'm a little inexperienced in SSH ;) luckily the server was new, since the command I ran - chown -R newuser / appeared to mess a load of stuff up. The reason I used / on the end rather than /var/www/vhosts/mysite.com/httpdocs/ was because I'd already cded into their, so I presumed the / was relative to where I was working. This may be the case, I have no idea, either way - Plesk was no longer accessible, although Apache and things continued to work. I realised my mistake, and deciding it wasn't worth the hassle of 1) being an amateur and 2) trying to fix it, I just reprovisioned the server to start afresh. So - what do I do to change the owner of these files correctly? Thanks for helping out a confused beginner! Jack

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  • Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

    - by John Galt
    On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

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