Search Results

Search found 31954 results on 1279 pages for 'dependency object'.

Page 371/1279 | < Previous Page | 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378  | Next Page >

  • sudo port install arm-elf-gcc3 fails with "No defined site for tag: gcc…"

    - by Scott Bayes
    Am trying to get the ARM plugin for Eclipse (http://sourceforge.net/projects/gnuarmeclipse/) going on iMac i7, OS 10.6.3, Xcode 3.2.2 (don't want to upgrade during my project). The plugin needs (IIRC) arm-elf-gcc3, which needs darwinports for "easy" install. Of course, probably due to leftovers when I moved from old MacBook to iMac, Darwin ports 1.8.2 wouldn't install till I built 1.7.1 from source and installed it. darwinports 1.8.1 appears to have been properly installed, but sudo port install arm-elf-gcc3 led to 5-10 minutes of dependencies installs, then the following, produced with port -d (starting from last dependency completion for brevity): DEBUG: Found Dependency: receipt exists for gettext DEBUG: Executing org.macports.main (arm-elf-gcc3) --- Fetching arm-elf-gcc3 DEBUG: Executing org.macports.fetch (arm-elf-gcc3) --- gcc-3.4.6.tar.bz2 doesn't seem to exist in /opt/local/var/macports/distfiles/gcc Error: No defined site for tag: gcc, using master_sites Error: Target org.macports.fetch returned: can't read "host": no such variable DEBUG: Backtrace: can't read "host": no such variable while executing "info exists seen($host)" (procedure "sortsites" line 25) invoked from within "sortsites fetch_urls" (procedure "portfetch::fetchfiles" line 49) invoked from within "portfetch::fetchfiles" (procedure "portfetch::fetch_main" line 16) invoked from within "$procedure $targetname" Warning: the following items did not execute (for arm-elf-gcc3): org.macports.activate org.macports.fetch org.macports.extract org.macports.checksum org.macports.patch org.macports.configure org.macports.build org.macports.destroot org.macports.install Error: Status 1 encountered during processing. (sorry if that's a mess, neither blockquote nor code sample tags seem to properly display cut/pasted text from Terminal.app in preview window). Can anyone advise me on how to get around this (or how to build/install arm-elf-gcc3 from source if necessary)? None of the darwinports FAQs or forums mentioned arm-elf-gcc3 anywhere that I saw.

    Read the article

  • Zend Studio Debugger returns Application Error

    - by Keyne
    When I run debug for my public/index.php I got an application error as output. I've seen that it occurs at this line: foreach($feed->findFeedEntries($entriesLimit) as $entry) If I put a breakpoint before this, all works as expected, I mean, the error is after the line above. If I remove findFeedEntries() method, I can perform debugging without erros. To clarify, this method is in my row object as described bellow: This is the error <?php class Model_DbTable_FeedEntries extends Zf_Db_Table { public function fetchNewEntries($feed_id) { $Feeds = new Model_DbTable_Feeds(); $Feed = $Feeds->getById($feed_id); // ERROR IS HERE! The colum doesn't exists! // And this is only on zend-debugger!!! var_dump($Feed->link) // ... } } I'm completely lost about what's happening, once my application has no errors, the problem is with zend-debugger. The error is: An error occurred Application error Exception information: Message: Specified column "link" is not in the row Stack trace: #0 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\FeedEntries.php(75): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->__get('link') #1 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\FeedEntries.php(50): Model_DbTable_FeedEntries->fetchNewEntries('1') #2 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\Row\Feed.php(15): Model_DbTable_FeedEntries->getAllByFeedId('1', 1) #3 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\modules\default\controllers\IndexController.php(41): Model_DbTable_Row_Feed->findFeedEntries(1) #4 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): IndexController->indexAction() #5 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('indexAction') #6 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #7 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #8 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #9 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\public\index.php(54): Zend_Application->run() #10 C:\Users\RAPOSO\AppData\Local\Temp\dummy.php(1): include('C:\Program File...') #11 {main} I've notice that when I get the row object my colums names are not right. Instead of have "title", "link", ... I have "feeds", "desenvolvimentistas" (projectname), and so on...

    Read the article

  • Conversion constructor vs. conversion operator: precedence

    - by GRB
    Reading some questions here on SO about conversion operators and constructors got me thinking about the interaction between them, namely when there is an 'ambiguous' call. Consider the following code: class A; class B { public: B(){} B(const A&) //conversion constructor { cout << "called B's conversion constructor" << endl; } }; class A { public: operator B() //conversion operator { cout << "called A's conversion operator" << endl; return B(); } }; int main() { B b = A(); //what should be called here? apparently, A::operator B() return 0; } The above code displays "called A's conversion operator", meaning that the conversion operator is called as opposed to the constructor. If you remove/comment out the operator B() code from A, the compiler will happily switch over to using the constructor instead (with no other changes to the code). My questions are: Since the compiler doesn't consider B b = A(); to be an ambiguous call, there must be some type of precedence at work here. Where exactly is this precedence established? (a reference/quote from the C++ standard would be appreciated) From an object-oriented philosophical standpoint, is this the way the code should behave? Who knows more about how an A object should become a B object, A or B? According to C++, the answer is A -- is there anything in object-oriented practice that suggests this should be the case? To me personally, it would make sense either way, so I'm interested to know how the choice was made. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to clone a Model using Entity Framework and ASP.Net Mvc 2

    - by Picflight
    I have the following class: [MetadataType(typeof(PortalMetaData))] [System.Web.Mvc.Bind(Exclude = "PortalId")] public partial class Portal { public Portal() { this.Created = DateTime.Now; } } public class PortalMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Portal name is required")] [StringLength(50, ErrorMessage = "Portal name must be under 50 characters")] public object PortalName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Description is required")] public object Description { get; set; } } I have a corresponding Table in the database Portal I use the Portal table with a PortalController for the Site Admin to update the records in the Portal Table. I want another user with a different Role (AsstAdmin) to be able to update this table as well. To facilitate that I am thinking of creating a separate partial class that somehow links back to the Portal Model. This would allow me to display limited Fields for update by the AsstAdmin and I can display a different name for the Field as well. How can I accomplish this task? If I add the following class which inherits from Portal than I get an exception: Unable to cast object of type 'Project1.Mvc.Models.Portal' to type 'Prpject1.Mvc.Models.Site'. [MetadataType(typeof(SiteMetaData))] public class Site : Portal { public Site() { } } public class SiteMetaData { [Required(DisplayName = "Site Description")] public object Description { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • Ruby - Feedzirra and updates

    - by mplacona
    Hi, trying to get my head around Feedzirra here. I have it all setup and everything, and can even get results and updates, but something odd is going on. I came up with the following code: def initialize(feed_url) @feed_url = feed_url @rssObject = Feedzirra::Feed.fetch_and_parse(@feed_url) end def update_from_feed_continuously() @rssObject = Feedzirra::Feed.update(@rssObject) if @rssObject.updated? puts @rssObject.new_entries.count else puts "nil" end end Right, what I'm doing above, is starting with the big feed, and then only getting updates. I'm sure I must be doing something stupid, as even though I'm able to get the updates, and store them on the same instance variable, after the first time, I'm never able to get those again. Obviously this happens because I'm overwriting my instance variable with only updates, and lose the full feed object. I then thought about changing my code to this: def update_from_feed_continuously() feed = Feedzirra::Feed.update(@rssObject) if feed.updated? puts feed.new_entries.count else puts "nil" end end Well, I'm not overwriting anything and that should be the way to go right? WRONG, this means I'm doomed to always try to get updates to the same static feed object, as although I get the updates on a variable, I'm never actually updating my "static feed object", and newly added items will be appended to my "feed.new_entries" as they in theory are new. I'm sure I;m missing a step here, but I'd really appreciate if someone could shed me a light on it. I've been going through this code for hours, and can't get to grips with it. Obviously it should work fine, if I did something like: if feed.updated? puts feed.new_entries.count @rssObject = initialize(@feed_url) else Because that would reinitialize my instance variable with a brand new feed object, and the updates would come again. But that also means that any new update added on that exact moment would be lost, as well as massive overkill, as I'd have to load the thing again. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • When programatically creating a new IIS web site, how can I add it to an existing application pool?

    - by Ian Robinson
    I have successfully automated the process of creating a new IIS website, however the code I've written doesn't care about application pools, it just gets added to DefaultAppPool. However I'd like to add this newly created site to an existing application pool. Here is the code I'm using to create the new website. var w3Svc = new DirectoryEntry(string.Format("IIS://{0}/w3svc", webserver)); var newsite = new object[] { serverComment, new object[] { serverBindings }, homeDirectory }; var websiteId = w3Svc.Invoke("CreateNewSite", newsite); site.Invoke("Start", null); site.CommitChanges(); <update Although this is not directly related to the question, here are some sample values being used above. This might help someone understand exactly what the code above is doing more easily. webServer: "localhost" serverComment: "testing.dev" serverBindings: ":80:testing.dev" homeDirectory: "c:\inetpub\wwwroot\testing\" </update If I know the name of the application pool that I'd like this web site to be in, how can I find it and add this site to it? <update 2 I've added the following based on Mark's answer below. var appPool = new DirectoryEntry(string.Format("IIS://{0}/w3svc/AppPools/{1}", webServer, appPoolName)); site.Properties["AppPoolId"].Value = appPool; I seem to have moved passed the "RPC" error message I was initially receiving. Now this is the error message I'm receiving: Error: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x8000500C): Exception from HRESULT: 0x8000500C at System.DirectoryServices.Interop.UnsafeNativeMethods.IAds.PutEx(Int32 lnControlCode, String bstrName, Object vProp) at System.DirectoryServices.PropertyValueCollection.set_Value(Object value) at ProvisionIISWebsite.Query.CreateWebsite(String webServer, String serverComment, String serverBindings, String homeDirectory, String appPoolName) in C:\Users\irobinson\My Projects\ProvisionIISWebsite\Query.cs:line 104 at ProvisionIISWebsite.Query.Handle_GetData(EngineBase& caller, Boolean isSubQuery, String query, String filterField, String filterText, Debugger& debugWriter, Boolean isRendered, Int32 timeout, String customConnection) in C:\Users\irobinson\My Projects\ProvisionIISWebsite\Query.cs:line 36 </update 2

    Read the article

  • Capturing unhandled exceptions in .Net 2.0. Wrong event called.

    - by SoMoS
    Hello, I'm investigating a bit about how the unhandled exceptions are managed in .Net and I'm getting unexpected results that I would like to share with you to see what do you think about. The first one is pretty simple to see. I wrote this code to do the test, just a button that throws an Exception on the same thread that created the Form: Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Throw New Exception() End Sub Private Sub UnhandledException(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As UnhandledExceptionEventArgs) MsgBox(String.Format("Exception: {0}. Ending: {1}. AppDomain: {2}", CType(e.ExceptionObject, Exception).Message, e.IsTerminating.ToString(), AppDomain.CurrentDomain.FriendlyName)) End Sub Private Sub UnhandledThreadException(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs) MsgBox(String.Format("Exception: {0}. AppDomain: {1}", e.Exception.Message(), AppDomain.CurrentDomain.FriendlyName)) End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load AddHandler AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException, AddressOf UnhandledException AddHandler Application.ThreadException, AddressOf UnhandledThreadException End Sub End Class When I execute the code inside the Visual Studio the UnhandledException is called as expected but when I execute the application from Windows the UndhanledThreadException is called instead. ¿?¿?¿¿?¿? Someone has any idea of what can be happening here? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Safari flash wmode not working - anything wrong with this embed?

    - by hfidgen
    I've got a problem with this embed in Safari. It works just fine on all other browsers, IE6 included. The problem is that the embed seems to jump to the very top layer, ignoring all z-index or positioning statements. This is important, because several html design features are overlayed on the flash. This embed was written to work with swfobject, but still doesnt work when: swfobject disabled wmode = transparent/opaque/removed entirely Is this a problem with safari or the code? And if it's the code then what does safari do differently to all the other browsers? Bah. Thanks for any help ;) <object id="Flash_Banner" classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" width="950" height="400" title=""> <param name="movie" value="ui.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="wmode" value="opaque" /> <!--[if !IE]>--> <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="ui.swf" width="950" height="400" title=""> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <param name="wmode" value="opaque" /> <!--<![endif]--> <div id="banner_slider"><img src="images/banners/case.jpg" width="950" height="400" alt="" /></div> <!--[if !IE]>--> </object> <!--<![endif]--> </object>

    Read the article

  • How do I use Powershell to print a list of hyperlinks that appear in a Word document?

    - by dwwilson66
    I asked this question last week, and my script cannot find any hyperlinks to change. Now I'm backing up and trying to simply open a single document and list the hyperlinks within. I've verified that the document includes hyperlinks to a number of anchors in the same document, and two hyperlinks to documents in the same directory. However, either Powershell isn't finding links in the doc or I'm outputting the list to the console improperly. Here's my bare-bones code $word = New-Object -ComObject Word.Application $doc ="R:\path\Reporting_Emergency_Or_Hazardous_Situation_-_BC_CC.doc" $hyperlinks = @($doc.Hyperlinks) $hyperlinks $word.quit() or, for line 4 Write-Host $hyperlinks or, again for line 4 $hyperlinks | % {Write-Host $_.address} No errors, just blank results. Not even an object reference to the $hyperlinks array. When I modify line 4 to % $address in $hyperlinks { Write-Host $._address } I get the following error...but it's unclear if I'm trying to read a null array? or if the value is blank. ForEach-Object : Cannot bind parameter 'Process'. Cannot convert the "in" value of type "System.String" to type "System.Management.Automation.ScriptBlock". At F:\path\HyperLinkScrub.ps1:46 char:2 + % <<<< $address in $hyperlinks { + CategoryInfo : InvalidArgument: (:) [ForEach-Object], ParameterBindingException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : CannotConvertArgumentNoMessage,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.ForEachObjectCommand What am I missing here? I've verified that the Word doc has hyperlinks, and ultimately, I'm trying to diagnose if my script isn't looking for them properly, or if I'm not outputting them to the console properly.

    Read the article

  • Null Reference getting REMOTE_ADDR

    - by Josh
    I have an ASMX web service running under IIS7 in classic mode. This service has the following code: try { env.ExternalIP = HttpContext.Current.Request.ServerVariables["REMOTE_ADDR"]; } catch (Exception ex) { LogWriter.WriteError(ex); env.ExternalIP="000.000.000.000"; } This results in the following stack trace. I only modified the names of usercode call stack here to protect the innocent: Message: An Exception of type: NullReferenceException occured in method: GetAdditionalServerVar ExceptionMsg: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. ===Stack Trace=== at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetAdditionalServerVar(Int32 index) at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetServerVariable(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.AddServerVariableToCollection(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.FillInServerVariablesCollection() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Populate() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Get(String name) at System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection.get_Item(String name) at MyService.MyMethod() I'm at a loss here as this is very basic plain vanilla code. EDIT This gets even stranger. I have added some basic code just wondering what server variables I can get at this point. This fails with the same exception when I try and get all the keys: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetAdditionalServerVar(Int32 index) at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetServerVariable(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.AddServerVariableToCollection(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.FillInServerVariablesCollection() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Populate() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.get_AllKeys() at MyService.MyHelper() When I was looking at the framework code looks like this could happen when the array which caches the server variables isn't populated and it looks like this occurs when there a null pointer to some Context...which seems like a fairly core piece of the framework code. I suppose it's time to burn up one of our support tickets with Microsoft.

    Read the article

  • Having trouble with instantiating objects in PHP & Ajax custom shopping cart

    - by Phil
    This is my first time playing with both ajax and objects, so please go easy on me I have 3 pages that make up the tester shopping cart. 1) page with 'add' 'remove' buttons and ajax code to call the PHP functions on page 2. this is the actual user page with the HTML output. 2) page with PHP cart function calls, receives $_GET requests from ajax on page 1 and calls functions of the cart object from page 3, returns results to page 1. 3) page with cart object definition. Here's the problem I believe I'm having. Currently I have 'session_start()' on pgs 1 & 2, and the cart definition (pag 3) on pgs 1 & 2. I only define '$_SESSION[cart]= new Cart' on page 2. However, it seems like each time i hit an ajax function (eg each time pg 2 reloads) it seems like it's rewriting $_SESSION['cart'] over again, thus it's always empty at each new click (even tho it displays results of that click) However, if i don't define '$_SESSION[cart] = new Cart' on pg 2, i get an error: Fatal error: main() [function.main]: The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Cart" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in /home3/foundloc/public_html/booka/carti.php on line 17 Any suggestions? How can i stop re-creating my cart each time my page 2 (php cart function page) is called by ajax?

    Read the article

  • How do I create a named temporary file on windows in Python?

    - by Chris B.
    I've got a Python program that needs to create a named temporary file which will be opened and closed a couple times over the course of the program, and should be deleted when the program exits. Unfortunately, none of the options in tempfile seem to work: TemporaryFile doesn't have a visible name NamedTemporaryFile creates a file-like object. I just need a filename. I've tried closing the object it returns (after setting delete = False) but I get stream errors when I try to open the file later. SpooledTemporaryFile doesn't have a visible name mkstemp returns both the open file object and the name; it doesn't guarantee the file is deleted when the program exits mktemp returns the filename, but doesn't guarantee the file is deleted when the program exits I've tried using mktemp1 within a context manager, like so: def get_temp_file(suffix): class TempFile(object): def __init__(self): self.name = tempfile.mktemp(suffix = '.test') def __enter__(self): return self def __exit__(self, ex_type, ex_value, ex_tb): if os.path.exists(self.name): try: os.remove(self.name) except: print sys.exc_info() return TempFile() ... but that gives me a WindowsError(32, 'The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process'). The filename is used by a process my program spawns, and even though I ensure that process finishes before I exit, it seems to have a race condition out of my control. What's the best way of dealing with this? 1 I don't need to worry about security here; this is part of a testing module, so the most someone nefarious could do is cause our unit tests to spuriously fail. The horror!

    Read the article

  • SVG animation along path with Raphael

    - by Toby Hede
    I have a rather interesting issue with SVG animation. I am animating along a circular path using Raphael obj = canvas.circle(x, y, size); path = canvas.circlePath(x, y, radius); path = canvas.path(path); //generate path from path value string obj.animateAlong(path, rate, false); The circlePath method is one I have created myself to generate the circle path in SVG path notation: Raphael.fn.circlePath = function(x , y, r) { var s = "M" + x + "," + (y-r) + "A"+r+","+r+",0,1,1,"+(x-0.1)+","+(y-r)+" z"; return s; } So far, so good. This all works. I have my object (obj) animating along the circular path. BUT: The animation only works if I create the object at the same X, Y coords as the path itself. If I start the animation from any other coordinates (say, half-way along the path) the object animates in a circle of the correct radius, however it starts the animation from the object X,Y coordinates, rather than along the path as it is displayed visually. Ideally I would like to be able to stop/start the animation - the same problem occurs on restart. When I stop then restart the animation, it animates in a circle starting from the stopped X,Y.

    Read the article

  • jstl taglib not found, where have I gone wrong?

    - by James.Elsey
    I'm trying to add Google Maps onto my JSPs by using the googlemaps jstl taglib. I've added this into my maven pom <dependency> <groupId>com.lamatek</groupId> <artifactId>googlemaps</artifactId> <version>0.98c</version> <scope>provided<>/scope </dependency> This then included the googlemaps-0.98c library under my project libraries in NetBeans, I right clicked and selected Manually install artifact and located the googlemaps.jar file I had downloaded. I've then added this into my taglibs file <%@taglib prefix="googlemaps" uri="/WEB-INF/googlemaps" %> And have then included this where I actually want to show a map on my jsp <googlemaps:map id="map" width="250" height="300" version="2" type="STREET" zoom="12"> <googlemaps:key domain="localhost" key="xxxx"/> <googlemaps:point id="point1" address="74 Connors Lane" city="Elkton" state="MD" zipcode="21921" country="US"/> <googlemaps:marker id="marker1" point="point1"/> </googlemaps:map> But when I load up my application, I get the following error. org.apache.jasper.JasperException: /jsp/dashboard.jsp(1,1) /jsp/common/taglibs.jsp(6,56) PWC6117: File "/WEB-INF/googlemaps" not found root cause org.apache.jasper.JasperException: /jsp/common/taglibs.jsp(6,56) PWC6117: File "/WEB-INF/googlemaps" not found Have I missed something simple? I'm unable to spot what I've done wrong so far.. Thanks

    Read the article

  • libdb4.6-dev vs libdb4.7-dev

    - by routinet
    I want to install PHP 5.3 on Ubuntu Intrepid. To install apxs, I need to install libaprutil1-dev, which depends on libdb4.6-dev. When I look at installing that, apt-get wants to remove the currently installed libdb-dev and libdb4.7-dev. Any advice on how to proceed? [root@server:/usr/local] #> apt-get -s install libaprutil1-dev Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done Some packages could not be installed. This may mean that you have requested an impossible situation or if you are using the unstable distribution that some required packages have not yet been created or been moved out of Incoming. Since you only requested a single operation it is extremely likely that the package is simply not installable and a bug report against that package should be filed. The following information may help to resolve the situation: The following packages have unmet dependencies: libaprutil1-dev: Depends: libdb4.6-dev but it is not going to be installed E: Broken packages [root@server:/usr/local] #> apt-get -s install libdb4.6-dev Reading package lists... Done Building dependency tree Reading state information... Done The following packages were automatically installed and are no longer required: debhelper libltdl7-dev po-debconf intltool-debian libtool courier-ssl gettext libgdbm-dev libzip1 html2text autotools-dev libmail-sendmail-perl Use 'apt-get autoremove' to remove them. Suggested packages: db4.6-doc The following packages will be REMOVED: libdb-dev libdb4.7-dev The following NEW packages will be installed: libdb4.6-dev 0 upgraded, 1 newly installed, 2 to remove and 54 not upgraded. Remv libdb-dev [4.7.25.2ubuntu1] Remv libdb4.7-dev [4.7.25-3] Inst libdb4.6-dev (4.6.21-10 Ubuntu:8.10/intrepid) Conf libdb4.6-dev (4.6.21-10 Ubuntu:8.10/intrepid)

    Read the article

  • WF 4.0 can't get to resume workflow on the staging/production environment

    - by Yasmine Atta Hajjaj
    I have developed various registeration workflows using WF4.0. Each work flow has various bookmarks. I am using the registeration wf for an asp.net application. I tested the asp.net application locally and it is working fine( Starting WF, Persisting to db and resuming bookmarks). When I try to test it on the staging server, everything goes messy. I can no longer resume wfs and I get an error message : System.Runtime.DurableInstancing.InstancePersistenceCommandException was unhandled by user code Message=The execution of the InstancePersistenceCommand named {urn:schemas-microsoft-com:System.Activities.Persistence/command}LoadWorkflow was interrupted by an error. Source=System.Runtime.DurableInstancing StackTrace: at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.DurableInstancing.InstancePersistenceContext.OuterExecute(InstanceHandle initialInstanceHandle, InstancePersistenceCommand command, Transaction transaction, TimeSpan timeout) at System.Runtime.DurableInstancing.InstanceStore.Execute(InstanceHandle handle, InstancePersistenceCommand command, TimeSpan timeout) at System.Activities.WorkflowApplication.PersistenceManager.Load(TimeSpan timeout) at System.Activities.WorkflowApplication.LoadCore(TimeSpan timeout, Boolean loadAny) at System.Activities.WorkflowApplication.Load(Guid instanceId, TimeSpan timeout) at System.Activities.WorkflowApplication.Load(Guid instanceId) at CEO_StartUpCEORegisterationTest.LoadInstance(Guid wfInstanceId) in c:\Users\Kunoichi\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\CMERegistrationSystem\RegistrationPortal\CEO\StartUpCEORegisterationTest.aspx.cs:line 64 at CEO_StartUpCEORegisterationTest.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in c:\Users\Kunoichi\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\CMERegistrationSystem\RegistrationPortal\CEO\StartUpCEORegisterationTest.aspx.cs:line 44 at System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) at System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) InnerException: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException Message=Index 'NCIX_KeysTable_SurrogateInstanceId' on table 'KeysTable' (specified in the FROM clause) does not exist. Source=.Net SqlClient Data Provider ErrorCode=-2146232060 Class=16 LineNumber=211 Number=308 Procedure=LoadInstance Server= State=1 StackTrace: at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) at System.Activities.DurableInstancing.SqlWorkflowInstanceStoreAsyncResult.SqlCommandAsyncResultCallback(IAsyncResult result) I know that this is quite verbose. But I have been banging my head against the wall for more than a week. I did search and all I came to know was to work on ms dtc. I enabled it on the staging server , I installed application server on the staging server and I am still getting the same error. I would appreciate if anyone could help with the problem. Thanks in advance :)

    Read the article

  • Creating Array of settings names and values using ADO.NET Entities

    - by jordan.baucke
    I'm using an ADO.NET Entities (.edmx) data-model along with MVC2 to build an application. I have a DB table where I want to store settings for method that run elsewhere. MVC2 allows me to create a view, editor, etc. to update this table which is great, but now when I want to do simple assignments based on column titles I'm a bit confused. For example, I would like to easily build an array that I could offset into the record's value based on it's "Title" Column: var entities = new ManagerEntities(); Setting[] settings = entities.settings.ToArray(); This returns something like: Settings[0].[SettingTitle][SettingValue] However, I would like to more easily index into the value than having to loop through all the returned settings, when they're already index. string URL_ID_NEED = [NeededUrl][http://www.url.com] Am I missing something relatively simple? Thanks! ========================= *Update* ========================= Ok, I think I've got a solution, but I'm wondering why this would be so complicated, and if I'm just not thinking of the right context for ADO.NET objects, here's what I did: public string GetSetting(string SettingName) { var entities = new LabelManagerEntities(); IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, object>> entityKeyValues = new KeyValuePair<string, object>[] { new KeyValuePair<string, object>("SettingTitle", SettingName) }; EntityKey key = new EntityKey("LabelManagerEntities.Settings", entityKeyValues); // Get the object from the context or the persisted store by its key. Setting settingvalue = (Setting)entities.GetObjectByKey(key); return settingvalue.SettingValue.ToString(); } This method handles the job of querying the Entities by "Key" to get back the correct value as a returned string (which I can than strip out the " ", or or cast to an integer, etc. etc.,) Am I just duplicating functionality that already exists in ADO.NET's design patterns (I'm pretty new to it) -- or is this a reasonable solution?

    Read the article

  • TimoutException occurs over a network but not locally

    - by Gibsnag
    I have a program with three WCF services and when I run them locally (i.e: Server and Clients are all on localhost) everything works. However when I test them across a network I get a TimoutException on two services but not the other. I've disabled the firewalls on all the machines involved in the test. I can both ping the server and access the wsdl "You have created a service" webpage from the client The service that works uses a BasicHttpBinding with streaming and the two which don't work use WSDualHttpBinding. The Services that use WSDualHttpBinding both have CallbackContracts. I apologise for the vagueness of this question but I'm not really sure what code to include or where to even start looking for the solution to this. Non-working bindings: public static Binding CreateHTTPBinding() { var binding = new WSDualHttpBinding(); binding.MessageEncoding = WSMessageEncoding.Mtom; binding.MaxBufferPoolSize = 2147483647; binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = 2147483647; binding.Security.Mode = WSDualHttpSecurityMode.None; return binding; } Exception Stack Trace: Unhandled Exception: System.TimeoutException: The open operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestor.ThrowTimeoutException() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestor.Request(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientReliableSession.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientReliableDuplexSessionChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOpenOnce.System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.ICallOnce.Call(ServiceChannel channel, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOnceManager.CallOnce(TimeSpan timeout, CallOnceManager cascade) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EnsureOpened(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at IDemeService.Register() at DemeServiceClient.Register() at DemeClient.Client.Start() at DemeClient.Program.Main(String[] args)

    Read the article

  • How to set binding in xaml to my own variable

    - by Victor
    Hello. I have an object in the code: public class UserLogin { bool _IsUserLogin = false; public bool IsUserLogin { get { return _IsUserLogin; } set { _IsUserLogin = value; } } public UserLogin() { _IsUserLogin = false; } } .... public static UserLogin LoginState; ..... LoginState = new UserLogin(); And I need to set bindings to Button.IsEnabled property. I.e. when user not login yet - some buttons are disabled. How can this been done? I have try in xaml: <Button DataContext="LoginState" IsEnabled="{Binding Path=IsUserLogin}"> but, this dos't work and OutputWindow says: System.Windows.Data Error: 39 : BindingExpression path error: 'IsUserLogin' property not found on 'object'. I also have try to set Button.DataContext property to LoginState in the code, but have XamlParseException. I also read this one [http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1829758/wpf-binding-in-xaml-to-an-object-created-in-the-code-behind][1] but still can't set bindings. [1]: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1829758/wpf-binding-in-xaml-to-an-object-created-in-the-code-behind. Please help!

    Read the article

  • c# asp.net How to return a usercontrol from a handeler ashx?

    - by Justin808
    I want to return the HTML output of the control from a handler. My code looks like this: <%@ WebHandler Language="C#" Class="PopupCalendar" % using System; using System.IO; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public class PopupCalendar : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest (HttpContext context) { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; System.Web.UI.Page page = new System.Web.UI.Page(); UserControl ctrl = (UserControl)page.LoadControl("~/Controls/CalendarMonthView.ascx"); page.Form.Controls.Add(ctrl); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); HtmlTextWriter tw = new HtmlTextWriter(stringWriter); ctrl.RenderControl(tw); context.Response.Write(stringWriter.ToString()); } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } I'm getting the error: Server Error in '/CMS' Application. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Source Error: Line 14: System.Web.UI.Page page = new System.Web.UI.Page(); Line 15: UserControl ctrl = (UserControl)page.LoadControl("~/Controls/CalendarMonthView.ascx"); Line 16: page.Form.Controls.Add(ctrl); Line 17: Line 18: StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); How can I return the output of a Usercontrol via a handler?

    Read the article

  • .NET COM Interop on Windows 7 64Bit gives me a headache

    - by Kevin Stumpf
    Hey guys, .NET COM interop so far always has been working quite nicely. Since I upgraded to Windows 7 I don't get my .NET COM objects to work anymore. My COM object is as easy as: namespace Crap { [ComVisible(true)] [Guid("2134685b-6e22-49ef-a046-74e187ed0d21")] [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class MyClass : IMyClass { public MyClass() {} public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("Finally got in here."); } } } namespace Crap { [Guid("1234685b-6e22-49ef-a046-74e187ed0d21")] public interface IMyClass { } } assembly is marked ComVisible as well. I register the assembly using regasm /codebase /tlb "path" registers successfully (admin mode). I tried regasm 32 and 64bit. Both time I get the error "ActiveX component cant create object Crap.MyClass" using this vbscript: dim objReg Set objReg = CreateObject("Crap.MyClass") MsgBox typename(objReg) fuslogvw doesn't give me any hints either. That COM object works perfectly on my Vista 32 Bit machine. I don't understand why I haven't been able to google a solution for that problem.. am I really the only person that ever got into that problem? Looking at OleView I see my object is registered successfully. I am able to create other COM objects as well.. it only does not work with my own ones. Thank you, Kevin

    Read the article

  • Filter a wpf collectionviewsource in VB?

    - by Johnny Westlake
    Hi, I want to filter a collectionviewsource using a filter I've written, but I'm not sure how I can apply the filter to it? Here is my collection view source: <Grid.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Source="{Binding Path=Query4, Source={x:Static Application.Current}}"> <CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> <scm:SortDescription PropertyName="ContactID" Direction="Descending"/> </CollectionViewSource.SortDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> </Grid.Resources> I have implemented a filter as such: Private Sub WorkerFilter(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As FilterEventArgs) Dim value As Object = CType(e.Item, System.Data.DataRow)("StaffSection") If (Not value Is Nothing) And (Not value Is DBNull.Value) Then If (value = "Builder") Or (value = "Office Staff") Then e.Accepted = True Else e.Accepted = False End If End If End Sub So how can I get the CollectionViewSource filtered by the filter on load? Could you please give all hte code I need (only a few lines I figure) as I'm quite new to coding. Thanks guys EDIT: For the record, <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myCollectionView" Filter="WorkerFilter" ... /> gives me the error: Failed object initialization (ISupportInitialize.EndInit). 'System.Windows.Data.BindingListCollectionView' view does not support filtering. Error at object 'myCollectionView'

    Read the article

  • Django queryset not returning the same values as the generated sql

    - by HRCerqueira
    Hello guys, I have the following queryset: subscribers = User.objects.values('email', 'username').filter( Q(subscription_settings__new_question='i') | Q(subscription_settings__new_question_watched_tags='i', marked_tags__id__in=question.tags.values('id'), tag_selections__reason='good') ).exclude(id=question.author.id) The problem is that when I evaluate the query I get only the values that are filtered by the first Q object (even if I reverse the order of the objects). So lets say that I was expecting the user A, B, C and D, where A and B are filtered by the first Q object and C and D by the second. But the queryset only returns A and B. I used the django debug toolbar to see the query that was actually being executed (and then I used a direct print statement like "print subscriber.query.as_sql()" just to be sure) and then evaluated the query directly using psql (I'm using postgres by the way), and I get the results I expect. Here's the query btw: SELECT "auth_user"."email", "auth_user"."username" FROM "auth_user" LEFT OUTER JOIN "forum_markedtag" ON ("auth_user"."id" = "forum_markedtag"."user_id") INNER JOIN "forum_defaultsubscriptionsetting" ON ("auth_user"."id" = "forum_defaultsubscriptionsetting"."user_id") WHERE ((("forum_markedtag"."reason" = E'good' AND "forum_defaultsubscriptionsetting"."new_question_watched_tags" = E'i' AND "forum_markedtag"."tag_id" IN (SELECT U0."id" FROM "tag" U0 INNER JOIN "question_tags" U1 ON (U0."id" = U1."tag_id") WHERE U1."question_id" = 64 )) OR "forum_defaultsubscriptionsetting"."new_question" = E'i' ) AND NOT ("auth_user"."id" = 10 )) Thanks in advance EDIT: I tried to break the queryset into two, one that uses the first Q object as the filter and another one with the second Q object, and although the second queryset produces the correct sql that returns the correct values when evaluated directly, it still doesn't return nothing when evaluated as a django queryset. heres the alternative code: subscribers = User.objects.values('email', 'username').filter( subscription_settings__new_question='i').exclude(id=question.author.id) subscribers2 = User.objects.values('email', 'username').filter( subscription_settings__new_question_watched_tags='i', marked_tags__id__in=question.tags.values('id'), tag_selections__reason='good').exclude(id=question.author.id)

    Read the article

  • SMO restore of SQL database doesn't overwrite

    - by Tom H.
    I'm trying to restore a database from a backup file using SMO. If the database does not already exist then it works fine. However, if the database already exists then I get no errors, but the database is not overwritten. The "restore" process still takes just as long, so it looks like it's working and doing a restore, but in the end the database has not changed. I'm doing this in Powershell using SMO. The code is a bit long, but I've included it below. You'll notice that I do set $restore.ReplaceDatabase = $true. Also, I use a try-catch block and report on any errors (I hope), but none are returned. Any obvious mistakes? Is it possible that I'm not reporting some error and it's being hidden from me? Thanks for any help or advice that you can give! function Invoke-SqlRestore { param( [string]$backup_file_name, [string]$server_name, [string]$database_name, [switch]$norecovery=$false ) # Get a new connection to the server [Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server]$server = New-SMOconnection -server_name $server_name Write-Host "Starting restore to $database_name on $server_name." Try { $backup_device = New-Object("Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.BackupDeviceItem") ($backup_file_name, "File") # Get local paths to the Database and Log file locations If ($server.Settings.DefaultFile.Length -eq 0) {$database_path = $server.Information.MasterDBPath } Else { $database_path = $server.Settings.DefaultFile} If ($server.Settings.DefaultLog.Length -eq 0 ) {$database_log_path = $server.Information.MasterDBLogPath } Else { $database_log_path = $server.Settings.DefaultLog} # Load up the Restore object settings $restore = New-Object Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Restore $restore.Action = 'Database' $restore.Database = $database_name $restore.ReplaceDatabase = $true if ($norecovery.IsPresent) { $restore.NoRecovery = $true } Else { $restore.Norecovery = $false } $restore.Devices.Add($backup_device) # Get information from the backup file $restore_details = $restore.ReadBackupHeader($server) $data_files = $restore.ReadFileList($server) # Restore all backup files ForEach ($data_row in $data_files) { $logical_name = $data_row.LogicalName $physical_name = Get-FileName -path $data_row.PhysicalName $restore_data = New-Object("Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.RelocateFile") $restore_data.LogicalFileName = $logical_name if ($data_row.Type -eq "D") { # Restore Data file $restore_data.PhysicalFileName = $database_path + "\" + $physical_name } Else { # Restore Log file $restore_data.PhysicalFileName = $database_log_path + "\" + $physical_name } [Void]$restore.RelocateFiles.Add($restore_data) } $restore.SqlRestore($server) # If there are two files, assume the next is a Log if ($restore_details.Rows.Count -gt 1) { $restore.Action = [Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.RestoreActionType]::Log $restore.FileNumber = 2 $restore.SqlRestore($server) } } Catch { $ex = $_.Exception Write-Output $ex.message $ex = $ex.InnerException while ($ex.InnerException) { Write-Output $ex.InnerException.message $ex = $ex.InnerException } Throw $ex } Finally { $server.ConnectionContext.Disconnect() } Write-Host "Restore ended without any errors." }

    Read the article

  • Cannot update a single field using Linq to Sql

    - by KallDrexx
    I am having a hard time attempting to update a single field without having to retrieve the whole record prior to saving. For example, in my web application I have an in place editor for the Name and Description fields of an object. Once you edit either field, it sends the new field (with the object's ID value) to the web server. What I want is the webserver to take that value and ID and only update the one field. There are only two ways google tells me to do this: 1) When I get the value I want to change, the value and the ID, retrieve the record from the database, update the field in the c# object, and then send it back to the server. I don't like this method because not only does it include a completely unnecessary database read call (which includes two tables due to the way my schema is). 2) Set UpdateCheck for all the fields (but the primary keys) to UpdateCheck.Never. This doesn't work for me (I think) due to my mapping layer between the Linq to Sql and my Entity/ViewModel layer. When I convert my entity into the linq to sql db object it seems to be updating those fields regardless of the UpdateCheck setting. This might be just because of integers, since not setting an int means it is a zero (and no, I can't use int? instead). Are there any other options that I have?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378  | Next Page >