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  • OpenCV and iPhone

    - by gn-mithun
    Hello, I am writing an application to create a movie file from a bunch of images on an iPhone. I am using OpenCv. I downloaded openCv static libraries for arm(iPhones native instruction architecture) and the libraries were generated just fine. There were no problems linking to them libraries. As a first step, i was trying to create a .avi file using one image, to see if it works. But cvCreateVideoWriter always returns me a NULL value. I did some searchin and i believe its due to the codec not being present. I am trying this on the iPhone simulator. this is what i do... (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIImage *anImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"1.jpg"]; IplImage *img_color = [self CreateIplImageFromUIImage:anImage]; //The image gets created just fine CvVideoWriter *writer = cvCreateVideoWriter("out.avi",CV_FOURCC('P','I','M','1'), 25,cvSize(320,480),1); //writer is always null int result = cvWriteFrame(writer, img_color); NSLog(@"\n%d",result); //hence this is also 0 all the time cvReleaseVideoWriter(&writer); } I am not sure about the the second parameter. What sort of codec or what exactly it does... I am a n00B in this. Any suggestions?

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  • updating system's time using .Net

    - by user62958
    I am trying to update my system time using the following: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] private struct SYSTEMTIME { public ushort wYear; public ushort wMonth; public ushort wDayOfWeek; public ushort wDay; public ushort wHour; public ushort wMinute; public ushort wSecond; public ushort wMilliseconds; } [DllImport("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "GetSystemTime", SetLastError = true)] private extern static void Win32GetSystemTime(ref SYSTEMTIME lpSystemTime); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "SetSystemTime", SetLastError = true)] private extern static bool Win32SetSystemTime(ref SYSTEMTIME lpSystemTime); public void SetTime() { TimeSystem correctTime = new TimeSystem(); DateTime sysTime = correctTime.GetSystemTime(); // Call the native GetSystemTime method // with the defined structure. SYSTEMTIME systime = new SYSTEMTIME(); Win32GetSystemTime(ref systime); // Set the system clock ahead one hour. systime.wYear = (ushort)sysTime.Year; systime.wMonth = (ushort)sysTime.Month; systime.wDayOfWeek = (ushort)sysTime.DayOfWeek; systime.wDay = (ushort)sysTime.Day; systime.wHour = (ushort)sysTime.Hour; systime.wMinute = (ushort)sysTime.Minute; systime.wSecond = (ushort)sysTime.Second; systime.wMilliseconds = (ushort)sysTime.Millisecond; Win32SetSystemTime(ref systime); } When I debug everything looks good and all the values are correct but when it calles the Win32SetSystemTime(ref systime) th actual time of system(display time) doesn't change and stays the same. The strange part is that when I call the Win32GetSystemTime(ref systime) it gives me the new updated time. Can someone give me some help on this?

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  • Setting a parameter as a list for an IN expression

    - by perilandmishap
    Whenever I try to set a list as a parameter for use in an IN expression I get an Illegal argument exception. Various posts on the internet seem to indicate that this is possible, but it's certainly not working for me. I'm using Glassfish V2.1 with Toplink. Has anyone else been able to get this to work, if so how? here's some example code: List<String> logins = em.createQuery("SELECT a.accountManager.loginName " + "FROM Account a " + "WHERE a.id IN (:ids)") .setParameter("ids",Arrays.asList(new Long(1000100), new Long(1000110))) .getResultList(); and the relevant part of the stack trace: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: You have attempted to set a value of type class java.util.Arrays$ArrayList for parameter accountIds with expected type of class java.lang.Long from query string SELECT a.accountManager.loginName FROM Account a WHERE a.id IN (:accountIds). at oracle.toplink.essentials.internal.ejb.cmp3.base.EJBQueryImpl.setParameterInternal(EJBQueryImpl.java:663) at oracle.toplink.essentials.internal.ejb.cmp3.EJBQueryImpl.setParameter(EJBQueryImpl.java:202) at com.corenap.newtDAO.ContactDaoBean.getNotificationAddresses(ContactDaoBean.java:437) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at com.sun.enterprise.security.application.EJBSecurityManager.runMethod(EJBSecurityManager.java:1011) at com.sun.enterprise.security.SecurityUtil.invoke(SecurityUtil.java:175) at com.sun.ejb.containers.BaseContainer.invokeTargetBeanMethod(BaseContainer.java:2920) at com.sun.ejb.containers.BaseContainer.intercept(BaseContainer.java:4011) at com.sun.ejb.containers.EJBObjectInvocationHandler.invoke(EJBObjectInvocationHandler.java:203) ... 67 more

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  • Reading numpy arrays outside of Python

    - by Abiel
    In a recent question I asked about the fastest way to convert a large numpy array to a delimited string. My reason for asking was because I wanted to take that plain text string and transmit it (over HTTP for instance) to clients written in other programming languages. A delimited string of numbers is obviously something that any client program can work with easily. However, it was suggested that because string conversion is slow, it would be faster on the Python side to do base64 encoding on the array and send it as binary. This is indeed faster. My question now is, (1) how can I make sure my encoded numpy array will travel well to clients on different operating systems and different hardware, and (2) how do I decode the binary data on the client side. For (1), my inclination is to do something like the following import numpy as np import base64 x = np.arange(100, dtype=np.float64) base64.b64encode(x.tostring()) Is there anything else I need to do? For (2), I would be happy to have an example in any programming language, where the goal is to take the numpy array of floats and turn them into a similar native data structure. Assume we have already done base64 decoding and have a byte array, and that we also know the numpy dtype, dimensions, and any other metadata which will be needed. Thanks.

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  • Assembly unavailable after Web.config change

    - by tags2k
    I'm using a custom framework that uses reflection to do a GetTypeByName(string fullName) on the fully-qualified type name that it gets from the database, to create an instance of said type and add it to the page, resulting in a standard modular kind of thing. GetTypeByName is a utility function of mine that simply iterates through Thread.GetDomain().GetAssemblies(), then performs an assembly.GetType(fullName) to find the relevant type. Obviously this result gets cached for future reference and speed. However, I'm experiencing some issues whereby if the web.config gets updated (and, in some scarier instances if the application pool gets recycled) then it will lose all knowledge of certain assemblies, resulting in the inability to render an instance of the module type. Debugging shows that the missing assembly literally does not exist in the current thread assemblies list. To get around this I added a second check which is a bit dirty but recurses through the /bin/ directory's DLLs and checks that each one exists in the assemblies list. If it doesn't, it loads it using Assembly.Load and fixing the context issue thanks to 'Solving the Assembly Load Context Problem'. This would work, only it seems that (and I'm aware this shouldn't be possible) some projects still have access to the missing assembly, for example my actual web project rather than the framework itself - and it then complains that duplicate references have been added! Has anyone ever heard of anything like this, or have any ideas why an assembly would simply drop out of existence on a config change? Short of a solution, what is the most elegant workaround to get all the assemblies in the bin to reload? It needs to be all in one "hit" so that the site visitors don't see any difference other than a small delay, so an app_offline.htm file is out of the question. Programatically renaming a DLL in the bin and then naming it back does work, but requires "modify" permissions for the IIS user account, which is insane. Thanks for any pointers the community can gather!

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  • How can I apply a style to existing tikz node on specific slides

    - by Eugene Pimenov
    This is what I'm trying to do \begin{tikzpicture} [node distance = 1cm, auto,font=\footnotesize, % STYLES every node/.style={node distance=1.3cm}, comment/.style={rectangle, inner sep= 5pt, text width=4cm, node distance=0.25cm, font=}, module/.style={rectangle, drop shadow, draw, fill=black!10, inner sep=5pt, text width=3cm, text badly centered, minimum height=0.8cm, font=\bfseries\footnotesize\sffamily,rounded corners}, selected/.style={fill=red!40}] \node [module] (nodeA) {node A}; \node [module, below of=nodeA] (nodeA) {node B}; \only<1>{ \node [comment, text width=6cm, right=0.25 of nodeA] {short description of Node A}; \node [comment, text width=6cm, right=0.25 of nodeB] {short description of Node B}; } \only<2>{ \node [selected] (nodeA) {}; \node [comment, text width=6cm, right=0.25 of nodeA] {long description of node A}; } \only<3>{ \node [selected] (nodeB) {}; \node [comment, text width=6cm, right=0.25 of nodeA] {long description of node B}; } \end{tikzpicture} The problem is \node [selected] (nodeB) {}; creates a new node, but I want it to apply the style for the existing node. Is there any way to do so? Of course I could have copies of every node in selected state and not-selected state, but I really want to have a normal solution.

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  • When is someone else's code I use from the internet "mine"?

    - by robault
    I'm building a library from methods that I've found on the internet. Some are free to use or modify with no requirements, others say that if I leave a comment in the code it's okay to use, others say when I use the code I have to attribute the use of someone's code in my application (in the credits for my app I guess). What I've been doing is reorganizing classes, renaming methods, adding descriptions (code comments), renaming the parameters and names inside the methods to something meaningful, optimizing loops if applicable, changing return types, adding try/catch/throw blocks, adding parameter checks and cleaning up resources in the methods. For example; I didn't come up with the algorithm for blurring a Bitmap but I've taken the basic example of iterating through the pixels and turned it into a decent library method (applying the aforementioned modifications). I understand how to go about building it now myself but I didn't actually hit the keystrokes to make it and I couldn't have come up with it before learning from their example. What about code people get in answers on Stackoverflow or examples from Codeproject? At what point can I drop their requirements because at n% their code became mine? FWIW I intend on using the libraries to create products that I will sell.

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  • How can I improve this search usability?

    - by Craig Whitley
    This is the first real programming attempt of mine, and theres some major flaws. It's a learning project, and I'm currently re-writing the entire thing as my php is is really messy. I really want to get an idea on how I can improve the actual usability and accesibility of the site at the same time though - so I know how to implement it correctly. The website is basically a comparison website for gameserver hosting. As I mentioned, its a learning project and I don't actually expect any revenue from it. At the moment theres only test data in it, so in the game input box select either 'Battlefied Bad Company 2' or 'Call of Duty 4: Modern Warfare' and ignore the actual search results. http://www.laglessfrag.com I wasn't really sure how to work the search functionality. Basically when you click a game in the drop down box, it sends an ajax request and finds all the locations available to that specific game in the database. After selecting the country theres another ajax to find all the citys available to the game in that country - which gives me the two unique identifiers I need to create the search results. One major and fundamental flaw is that without javascript enabled, the site ceases to function. I'll overcome that in the next re-write, but without the ajax functionality stopping the user 'going wrong' - how can I implement a search that requires two fields without creating extra steps in new pages after form submissions? I'm also no designer so my whole layout and css is a bit rubbish, but this was mainly a learning project as I'm interested in applications / programming rather than design. It's also slow as its on shared hosting, but if I can get it to work correctly then I'm not impartial to chucking a bit of money at it for faster hosting and maybe a bit of advertising and seeing where it goes (if anywhere!). Any info appreciated.

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  • Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

    - by brady
    I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

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  • AnyCPU/x86/x64 for C# application and it's C++/CLI dependency

    - by Soonts
    I'm Windows developer, I'm using Microsoft visual studio 2008 SP1. My developer machine is 64 bit. The software I'm currently working on is managed .exe written in C#. Unfortunately, I was unable to solve the whole problem solely in C#. That's why I also developed a small managed DLL in C++/CLI. Both projects are in the same solution. My C# .exe build target is "Any CPU". When my C++ DLL build target is "x86", the DLL is not loaded. As far as I understood when I googled, the reason is C++/CLI language, unlike other .NET languages, compiles to the native code, not managed code. I switched the C++ DLL build target to x64, and everything works now. However, AFAIK everything will stop working as soon as my client will install my product on a 32-bit OS. I have to support Windows Vista and 7, both 32 and 64 bit versions of each of them. I don't want to fall back to 32 bits. That 250 lines of C++ code in my DLL is only 2% of my codebase. And that DLL is only used in several places, so in the typical usage scenario it's not even loaded. My DLL implements two COM objects with ATL, so I can't use "/clr:safe" project setting. Is there way to configure the solution and the projects so that C# project builds "Any CPU" version, the C++ project builds both 32 bit and 64 bit versions, then in the runtime when the managed .EXE is starting up, it uses either 32-bit DLL or 64-bit DLL depending on the OS? Or maybe there's some better solution I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

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  • Problems when data save on database by Hibernate

    - by alex
    Hi; I'm trying do save data to database by help of Hibernate , in Java. But when i run codes , i had lot of problems. Can anyone help me about that? Thanks... My code: package org.ultimania.model; import org.hibernate.Session; import org.hibernate.SessionFactory; import org.hibernate.Transaction; import org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration; public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) { Session session = null; SessionFactory sessionFactory = new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); session = sessionFactory.openSession(); Transaction transaction = session.getTransaction(); BusinessCard card = new BusinessCard(); card.setId(1); card.setName("Özgür"); card.setDescription("Aciklama"); try{ transaction.begin(); session.save(card); transaction.commit(); } catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } finally{ session.close(); } } } Problems : SLF4J: Failed to load class "org.slf4j.impl.StaticLoggerBinder". SLF4J: See http://www.slf4j.org/codes.html#StaticLoggerBinder for further details. Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/slf4j/impl/StaticLoggerBinder at org.slf4j.LoggerFactory.getSingleton(LoggerFactory.java:223) at org.slf4j.LoggerFactory.bind(LoggerFactory.java:120) at org.slf4j.LoggerFactory.performInitialization(LoggerFactory.java:111) at org.slf4j.LoggerFactory.getILoggerFactory(LoggerFactory.java:269) at org.slf4j.LoggerFactory.getLogger(LoggerFactory.java:242) at org.slf4j.LoggerFactory.getLogger(LoggerFactory.java:255) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.(Configuration.java:152) at org.ultimania.model.Test.main(Test.java:14) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.slf4j.impl.StaticLoggerBinder at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) ... 8 more

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  • jboss Resteasy for java 5

    - by Anand
    Is there a resteasy version that runs on jdk 5 enviroment? I tried to compile my code in java 5 but it didnot work saying version problem. Is there a solution here? type Exception report message description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request. exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Error instantiating servlet class org.jboss.resteasy.plugins.server.servlet.HttpServletDispatcher org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:117) org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:174) org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:879) org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11BaseProtocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.processConnection(Http11BaseProtocol.java:665) org.apache.tomcat.util.net.PoolTcpEndpoint.processSocket(PoolTcpEndpoint.java:528) org.apache.tomcat.util.net.LeaderFollowerWorkerThread.runIt(LeaderFollowerWorkerThread.java:81) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool$ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:689) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) root cause java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError: Bad version number in .class file (unable to load class javax.ws.rs.core.UriInfo) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClassInternal(WebappClassLoader.java:1964) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClass(WebappClassLoader.java:933) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1405) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1284) java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) java.lang.Class.getDeclaredConstructors0(Native Method) java.lang.Class.privateGetDeclaredConstructors(Class.java:2357) java.lang.Class.getConstructor0(Class.java:2671) java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:321) java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:303) org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:117) org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:174) org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:879) org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11BaseProtocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.processConnection(Http11BaseProtocol.java:665) org.apache.tomcat.util.net.PoolTcpEndpoint.processSocket(PoolTcpEndpoint.java:528) org.apache.tomcat.util.net.LeaderFollowerWorkerThread.runIt(LeaderFollowerWorkerThread.java:81) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool$ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:689) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.5.31 logs.

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  • Code Golf: Rotating Maze

    - by trinithis
    Code Golf: Rotating Maze Make a program that takes in a file consisting of a maze. The maze has walls given by '#'. The maze must include a single ball, given by a 'o' and any number of holes given by a '@'. The maze file can either be entered via command line or read in as a line through standard input. Please specify which in your solution. Your program then does the following: 1: If the ball is not directly above a wall, drop it down to the nearest wall. 2: If the ball passes through a hole during step 1, remove the ball. 3: Display the maze. 4: If there is no ball in the maze, exit. 5: Read a line from the standard input. Given a 1, rotate the maze counterclockwise. Given a 2, rotate the maze clockwise. Rotations are done by 90 degrees. It is up to you to decide if extraneous whitespace is allowed. If the user enters other inputs, repeat this step. 6: Goto step 1. You may assume all input mazes are closed. Note, a hole effectively acts as a wall in this regard. You may assume all input mazes have no extraneous whitespace. The shortest source code by character count wins. Example mazes: ###### #o @# ###### ########### #o # # ####### # ###@ # ######### ########################### # # # # @ # # # # ## # # ####o#### # # # # # # ######### # @ ######################

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  • firefox lead dot in cookie issue

    - by Jon
    Hi all, We are having an annoying issue with Firefox and cookies. We have the following domains: sub1.mydomain.com sub2.mydomain.com sub3.mydomain.com otherdomain.com We have converting our framework to be multilingual and providing a drop down to change the language at any point during site. The code base is shared across all the domains above. We can not set a cookie across all "mydomain.com" sites, they have to be on each of the sub domains. To get this to work we set a JavaScript cookie when the users chooses a new language. When the page posts back to the server the code picks this up and sets the users preferences to that new language code, (this is all C# and ASP.NET). We have to set the host to be "subX.mydomain.com" and the path to be "/" in the cookie so that it is just for the subdomain and all parts of that domain. This works great on all browsers apart from FireFox. It seems that firefox will pre append a DOT to the beginning of domain so ".subX.mydomain.com". When the code posts back with FireFox the cookie is always null. Has anyone had this situation, (I imagine it is not al that uncommon). I have read a lot of people saying, remove the domain from the cookie, but that can not work for us as we have multiple subdomains that need their own cookie values. Thanks

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  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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  • iPhone and OpenCV

    - by gn-mithun
    Hello, I am writing an application to create a movie file from a bunch of images on an iPhone. I am using OpenCv. I downloaded openCv static libraries for arm(iPhones native instruction architecture) and the libraries were generated just fine. There were no problems linking to them libraries. As a first step, i was trying to create a .avi file using one image, to see if it works. But cvCreateVideoWriter always returns me a NULL value. I did some searchin and i believe its due to the codec not being present. I am trying this on the iPhone simulator. this is what i do... (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIImage *anImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"1.jpg"]; IplImage *img_color = [self CreateIplImageFromUIImage:anImage]; //The image gets created just fine CvVideoWriter *writer = cvCreateVideoWriter("out.avi",CV_FOURCC('P','I','M','1'), 25,cvSize(320,480),1); //writer is always null int result = cvWriteFrame(writer, img_color); NSLog(@"\n%d",result); //hence this is also 0 all the time cvReleaseVideoWriter(&writer); } I am not sure about the the second parameter. What sort of codec or what exactly it does... I am a n00B in this. Any suggestions?

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  • How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

    - by mikep
    Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

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  • Controller with unknown number of parameters?

    - by StackPointer
    Greetings! I'm doing a Form on ASP.NET MVC 2, in my view I have a TextBox for the name, and two buttons. One of the buttons is for submit, and the other one have a function in JS, that add's another textbox, and a drop down list. In the post controller action method, how do I get all the parameters? Here is the View Code: <body> <div> <%using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> New Insurance Type Name: <%=Html.TextBox("InsuranceName") %> <div id="InsuranceDetails"/> </div> <div id="Buttons"> <input type="button" onclick="AddFieldForm()" value="Add Field" /> <p /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <%} %> </div> </body>

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  • Silverlight 3 data-binding child property doesn't update

    - by sonofpirate
    I have a Silverlight control that has my root ViewModel object as it's data source. The ViewModel exposes a list of Cards as well as a SelectedCard property which is bound to a drop-down list at the top of the view. I then have a form of sorts at the bottom that displays the properties of the SelectedCard. My XAML appears as (reduced for simplicity): <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Cards}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedCard, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.Name}" /> <ListBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.PendingTransactions}" /> </StackPanel> I would expect the TextBlock and ListBox to update whenever I select a new item in the ComboBox, but this is not the case. I'm sure it has to do with the fact that the TextBlock and ListBox are actually bound to properties of the SelectedCard so it is listening for property change notifications for the properties on that object. But, I would have thought that data-binding would be smart enough to recognize that the parent object in the binding expression had changed and update the entire binding. It bears noting that the PendingTransactions property (bound to the ListBox) is lazy-loaded. So, the first time I select an item in the ComboBox, I do make the async call and load the list and the UI updates to display the information corresponding to the selected item. However, when I reselect an item, the UI doesn't change! For example, if my original list contains three cards, I select the first card by default. Data-binding does attempt to access the PendingTransactions property on that Card object and updates the ListBox correctly. If I select the second card in the list, the same thing happens and I get the list of PendingTransactions for that card displayed. But, if I select the first card again, nothing changes in my UI! Setting a breakpoint, I am able to confirm that the SelectedCard property is being updated correctly. How can I make this work???

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  • Default Button after dispose and setVisible

    - by DaDaDom
    Hi, given the following code: public class DialogTest implements ActionListener { public static void main(String[] args) {DialogTest g = new DialogTest();} public DialogTest() { JButton b1 = new JButton("Button A"); b1.addActionListener(this); JDialog d = new JDialog(); d.setDefaultCloseOperation(JDialog.DISPOSE_ON_CLOSE); JPanel p = new JPanel(); p.add(b1); d.add(p); d.getRootPane().setDefaultButton(b1); d.pack(); d.setVisible(true); d.dispose(); d.pack(); d.setVisible(true); } public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) {System.out.println("hello");} } Shouldn't pressing the Enter key write something to the console? According to the docs (http://java.sun.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/awt/Window.html#dispose()): The Window and its subcomponents can be made displayable again by rebuilding the native resources with a subsequent call to pack or show. The states of the recreated Window and its subcomponents will be identical to the states of these objects at the point where the Window was disposed Is this intended behaviour?

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  • Help regarding Android NDK

    - by Siva Kumar
    I am a beginner in using Android NDK. I am using Eclipse and I installed cygwin to build the c file to generate the .so file But while building the c file in cygwin I am always getting the error make: ***No rule to make target 'file.c' ... .Stop I tried building different C codes but for every file it says the same error .. Here is the source code: public class ndktest extends Activity { static { System.loadLibrary("ndkt"); } private native void helloLog(String logThis); @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); helloLog("this is to test log file"); } } file.c void Java_com_ndktest_helloLog(JNIEnv * env, jobject this, jstring logThis) { jboolean isCopy; const char * szLogThis = (*env)->GetStringUTFChars(env, logThis, &isCopy); (*env)->ReleaseStringUTFChars(env, logThis, szLogThis); } And here is my Android.mk LOCAL_PATH := $(call my-dir) include $(CLEAR_VARS) LOCAL_LDLIBS := -llog LOCAL_MODULE := ndkt LOCAL_SRC_FILES := file.c include $(BUILD_SHARED_LIBRARY) I searched for the solution for the cause of error ... but nothing works for me. Can anyone tell me where I am making the mistake ? Thanks, Siva Kumar

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  • PPR in tr:selectOneChoice does not work

    - by Nhut Le
    Hi, I have a simple testing page that test my PPR on a selectOneChoice component. when select a value from selectOnechoice 1, the selected value will display on a output label and also reset the selected value and the other selectOneChoice. However, it prints the selected values to the label correctly but it can't set the selected value for the other selectOneChoice. and Here are my page and my value change event method. <tr:form id="nhutForm"> <tr:selectOneChoice id="one" value="#{nhutTestBean.one}" autoSubmit="true" immediate="true" valueChangeListener="#{nhutTestBean.onMyValueChanged}"> <tr:selectItem label="0" value="0"/> <tr:selectItem label="1" value="1"/> <tr:selectItem label="2" value="2"/> <tr:selectItem label="3" value="3"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:selectOneChoice id="two" value="#{nhutTestBean.two}" partialTriggers="one"> <f:selectItems value="#{nhutTestBean.myList}"/> </tr:selectOneChoice> <tr:outputText id="nhutTextBox" value="hello: #{nhutTestBean.output}" partialTriggers="one"/></tr:form> and my valueChangeEvent method: public void onMyValueChanged(ValueChangeEvent event) { this.setOutput((String)event.getNewValue()); this.setTwo((String)event.getNewValue()); } One thing I realize is that it calls my setTwo twice, the first the set the correct values, but the second time set it to null so that nothing would be selected for the two drop down box. please help. thank you so much.

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  • How to update application files using patching?

    - by Marek
    I am not interested in any auto update solution, such as ClickOnce or the MS Updater Block. For anyone feeling the urge to ask why not: I am already using these and there is nothing wrong with them, I would just like to learn about any efficient alternatives. I would like to publish patches = small differences that will modify existing files of the deployment with the smallest possible delta. Not only code needs to be patched, but also resource files. Patching the running code can be accomplished by maintaining two separate synchronized copies of the deployment (no on the fly changes to the running executable are required). The application itself can be xcopy deployed (to avoid MSI auto-correcting the modified files or breaking ClickOnce signatures). I would like to learn how to handle different versions of patches (e.g. there is a patch issued that fixes one error and later another patch that fixes another error (in the same file) - users may have any combination of these and there comes a third patch - in text files, this may be easy to implement, but how about executable files? (native Win32 code vs. .NET, any difference?) If the first problem is too hard to solve or unsolvable for executables, I would like to at least learn if there is a solution that implements simple patching with serial revisions - in order to install revision 5, user must have all previous revisions installed to ensure validity of the deployment. Are there any existing solutions to accomplish this? NOTE: There are a few questions on SO that may seem like duplicates, but none with a good answer. This question is about the Windows platform, preferably .NET.

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  • Meaning of Execute_priv on mysql.db table

    - by Ben Reisner
    I created user 'restriceduser' on my mysql server that is 'locked down'. The mysql.user table has a N for all priveledges for that account. The mysql.db table has Y for only Select, Insert, Update, Delete, Create, Drop; all other privileges are N for that account. I tried to create a stored procedure and then grant him access to run only that procedure, no others, but it does not work. The user receives: Error: execute command denied to user 'restricteduser'@'%' for routine 'mydb.functionname' The stored procedure: CREATE DEFINER = 'restriceduser'@'%' FUNCTION `functionname`(sIn MEDIUMTEXT, sformat MEDIUMTEXT) RETURNS int(11) NOT DETERMINISTIC CONTAINS SQL SQL SECURITY DEFINER COMMENT '' BEGIN .... END; The grant statement I tried: GRANT EXECUTE ON PROCEDURE mydb.functionname TO 'restricteduser'@'%'; I was able to work around by modifying his mysql.db entry with update mysql.db set execute_priv='Y' where user='restricteduser' This seems to be more then I want, because it opens up permissions for him to run any stored procedure in that database, while I only wanted him to have permissions to run the designated function. Does anyone see where my issue may lie?

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  • array or list into Oracle using cfprocparam

    - by Travis
    I have a list of values I want to insert into a table via a stored procedure. I figured I would pass an array to oracle and loop through the array but I don't see how to pass an array into Oracle. I'd pass a list but I don't see how to work with the list to turn it into an array using PL/SQL (I'm fairly new to PL/SQL). Am I approaching this the wrong way? Using Oracle 9i and CF8. TIA! EDIT Perhaps I'm thinking about this the wrong way? I'm sure I'm not doing anything new here... I figured I'd convert the list to an associative array then loop the array because Oracle doesn't seem to work well with lists (in my limited observation). I'm trying to add a product, then add records for the management team. -- product table productName = 'foo' productDescription = 'bar' ... ... etc -- The managementteam table just has the id of the product and id of the users selected from a drop down. The user IDs are passed in via a list like "1,3,6,20" How should I go about adding the records to the management team table?

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