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  • Jquery button.click bug?

    - by Chris
    I have the following home-grown jquery plugin: (function($) { $.fn.defaultButton = function(button) { var field = $(this); var target = $(button); if (field.attr('type').toLowerCase() != 'text') return; field.keydown(function (e) { if ((e.which || e.keyCode) == 13) { console.log('enter'); target.click(); return false; } }); } })(jQuery); I'm using it like so: $('#SignUpForm input').defaultButton('#SignUpButton'); $('#SignUpButton').click(function(e) { console.log('click'); $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: '<%=ResolveUrl("~/WebServices/ForumService.asmx/SignUp")%>', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', dataType: 'json', data: JSON.stringify({ email: $('#SignUpEmail').val(), password: $('#SignUpPassword').val() }), success: function(msg) { $.modal.close(); } }); }); The first time, it works. The second time, nothing happens. I see enter and click the first time in the firebug log, but the second time I only see the enter message. It's almost like the button's click handler is being unregistered somehow. Any thoughts?

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  • when does factory girl create objects in db?

    - by Pavel K.
    i am trying to simulate a session using factory girl/shoulda (it worked with fixtures but i am having problems with using factories). i have following factories (user login and email both have 'unique' validations): Factory.define :user do |u| u.login 'quentin' u.email '[email protected]' end Factory.define :session_user, :class => Session do |u| u.association :user, :factory => :user u.session_id 'session_user' end and here's the test class MessagesControllerTest < ActionController::TestCase context "normal user" do setup do @request.session[:user_id]=Factory(:user).id @request.session[:session_id]=Factory(:session_user).session_id end should "be able to access new message creation" do get :new assert_response :success end end end but when i run "rake test:functionals", i get this test result 1) Error: test: normal user should be able to access new message creation. (MessagesControllerTest): ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed: Account name already exists!, Email already exists! which means that record already exists in db when i am referring to it in test setup. is there something i don't understand here? does factory girl create all factories in db on startup? rails 2.3.5/shoulda/factory girl

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  • Paypal sandbox account in dotnet: "IPN Response invalid"

    - by Sam
    I am integrating Paypal with my website. I use a sandbox account, one buyer account and one seller account. I downloaded the code below from Paypal: string strSandbox = "https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr"; HttpWebRequest req = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(strSandbox); //Set values for the request back req.Method = "POST"; req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; byte[] param = Request.BinaryRead(HttpContext.Current.Request.ContentLength); string strRequest = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(param); strRequest += "&cmd=_notify-validate"; req.ContentLength = strRequest.Length; //for proxy //WebProxy proxy = new WebProxy(new Uri("http://url:port#")); //req.Proxy = proxy; //Send the request to PayPal and get the response StreamWriter streamOut = new StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream(), System.Text.Encoding.ASCII); streamOut.Write(strRequest); streamOut.Close(); StreamReader streamIn = new StreamReader(req.GetResponse().GetResponseStream()); string strResponse = streamIn.ReadToEnd(); streamIn.Close(); if (strResponse == "VERIFIED") { //check the payment_status is Completed //check that txn_id has not been previously processed //check that receiver_email is your Primary PayPal email //check that payment_amount/payment_currency are correct //process payment } else if (strResponse == "INVALID") { //log for manual investigation } else { //log response/ipn data for manual investigation } When I add this snippet in my pageload event of my success page, I show the IPN response as INVALID, but amount is paid successfully. Why is this? Paypal's docs are not clear.

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  • findViewById returns null for EditText

    - by jayesh
    public class MainActivity extends Activity { private EditText editText; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); editText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.etext); if(editText == null) { Log.v("editText", "booohooo"); } else { Log.v("editText", "Success"); } final Button button = (Button) findViewById(R.id.gobutton); button.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { if(editText != null) { Log.v("editText", "is not NULL"); } else { Log.v("editText", "is NULL :("); } // Perform action on click if(editText != null) { editText.getText(); } else { Log.v("editText", "is NULL"); } Log.v("url", editText.getText().toString().trim()); Intent browserIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse(editText.getText().toString().trim())); startActivity(browserIntent); } }); } } <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <TextView android_id="@+id/websiteurlheading" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Enter web site URL" /> <EditText android_id="@+id/etext" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@id/websiteurlheading" /> <Button android:id="@+id/gobutton" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Enter" /> </LinearLayout> Any help is appreciated.

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  • jQuery: Traversing AJAX response in Chrome/Safari

    - by jitzo
    I'm trying to traverse an AJAX response, which contains a remote web page (an HTML output). My goal is to iterate through the 'script', 'link', and 'title' elements of the remote page - load them if necessary, and embed its contents to the current page. Its working great in FF/IE, but for some reason - Chrome & Safari behaves differently: When I run a .each() loop on the response, Chrome/Safari seems to omit everything that is under the section of the page. Here's my current code: $.ajax({ url: 'remoteFile.php', cache: false, dataFilter: function(data) { console.log(data); /* The output seems to contain the entire response, including the <head> section - on all browsers, including Chrome/Safari */ $(data).filter("link, script, title").each(function(i) { console.log($(this)); /* IE/FF outputs all of the link/script/title elements, Chrome will output only those that are not in the <head> section */ }); console.log($(data)); /* This also outputs the incomplete structure on Chrome/Safari */ return data; }, success: function(response) {} }); I've been struggling with this problem for quite a while now, i've found some other similar cases on google searches, but no real solution. This happens on both jQuery 1.4.2, and jQuery 1.3.2. I really don't want to parse the response with .indexOf() and .substring() - it seems to me that it will be an overkill for the client. Many thanks in advance!

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  • Clearing canvas with Canvas.drawColor()

    - by strangeInAStrangerLand
    I'm attempting to change the background image of a custom View with some success. The image will change but the problem is that I still see traces of the old image. When I attempt to clear the canvas before drawing the new image, it doesn't appear to work. I create a bitmap to store the image. When changing the image, I call Canvas.drawColor() before drawing the new image but the old image persists. I've tried drawColor(0), drawColor(Color.BLACK), c.drawColor(0, PorterDuff.Mode.CLEAR), and none of the above works. As such, I had to post this for review from more experienced minds than mine. The actual code is as follows: private int bgnd; private boolean switching; public void setBgnd(int incoming){ switching = true; switch (incoming){ case R.drawable.image1: bgnd = incoming; this.invalidate(); break; case R.drawable.image2: bgnd = incoming; this.invalidate(); break; } } protected void onDraw(Canvas c){ if(switching == true){ Bitmap b = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), bgnd); c.drawColor(0, PorterDuff.Mode.CLEAR); c.drawBitmap(b, 0, 0, null); switching = false; }else{ Bitmap b = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), bgnd); c.drawBitmap(b, 0, 0, null); } }

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  • WCF: How can I send data while gracefully closing a connection?

    - by mafutrct
    I've got a WCF service that offers a Login method. A client is required to call this method (due to it being the only IsInitiating=true). This method should return a string that describes the success of the call in any case. If the login failed, the connection should be closed. The issue is with the timing of the close. I'd like to send the return value, then immediately close the connection. string Login (string name, string pass) { if (name != pass) { OperationContext.Current.Channel.Close (); return "fail"; } else { return "yay"; } } The MSDN states that calling Close on the channel causes an ICommunicationObject to gracefully transition from the Opened state to the Closed state. The Close method allows any unfinished work to be completed before returning. For example, finish sending any buffered messages). This did not work for me (or my understanding is wrong), as the close is executed immediately - WCF does not wait for the Login method to finish executing and return a string but closes the connection earlier. Therefore I assume that calling Close does not wait for the running method to finish. Now, how can I still return a value, then close?

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  • jQuery - script tags in the HTML are parsed out by jQuery and not executed

    - by Jose Jose
    I have an HTML page like so: <html> <body> <div id='something'> ... <script> var x = 'hello world'; </script> ... </div> </body> </html> On another page, I am doing this: $.ajax({ url: 'example.html', type: 'GET', success: function(data) { $('#mydiv').html($(data).find('#something').html()); alert(x); } }); jQuery, however, is not executing the javascript in the first file, even though the documentation says it does. How can I make it do that? EDIT: Unfortunately in the real world application I am working on I don't have control over what the "included" page has. We are on the same domain, but I can't modify the code that it outputs as it is a packaged product our IT department will not let us modify.

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  • Using jQuery and AJAX works for all functions except one, really bizarre issue (from my perspective)

    - by CoreyT
    I am working on a classic asp form that has a number of dropdowns. Three of these are cascading, i.e. they rely in the previous dropdown. For almost everything this code works fine, one of them however is not playing nice. To start off I have a script tag with the following in it: $(document).ready(function () { $("#AcademicLevel").change(getList); $("#CourseDeliveryTime").change(updateLocation); $("#ProgramType").change(updateEntryTerm); }); This works just fine for the first two elements of the form, AcademicLevel and CourseDeliveryTime, the third however does not take effect however. If I use Firebug's Console and run that same line of code, $("#ProgramType").change(updateEntryTerm);, it starts to work, sort of. What happens is what confuses me. If the function it is pointing to, updateEntryTerm, has an alert() call in it, it works. If the alert is commented out, it does not work. The function is below: function updateEntryTerm() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../Classic ASP and AJAX/jQueryExample.asp", dataType: "application/x-www-form-urlencoded", data: "Action=UpdateEntryTerm&acadLevel=" + $("#AcademicLevel").val() + "&courseTime=" + $("#CourseDeliveryTime").val() + "&programType=" + $("#ProgramType").val(), async: false, success: function (msg) { $("#EntryTerm").remove(); $("#tdEntryTerm").append(msg); //alert(msg); } //, //error: function (xhr, option, err) { // alert("XHR Status: " + xhr.statusText + ", Error - " + err); //} }); } I am lost on two different issues here, First why is the call to $("#ProgramType").change(updateEntryTerm); not working unless I run it in Firebug Console? Second, why does the function itself, updateEntryTerm, not work unless the alert() call is present? Has anyone seem something like this before?

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  • Subscription Based Billing

    - by regex
    Hello All, I'm putting together a small start up company which will be set up with a subscription based billing model. The bill will go to customers on either a monthly or quarterly basis depending on the end user's preference. My question is two parted: I'm new to online billing and I'm only really aware of Pay Pal when it comes to third party bill payment, but this seems more like a check out system. I'm sure there are better alternatives than PayPal for third party billing processors (I have tried Googling for them, but I'm having trouble finding exactly what I'm looking for). What options (companies) are available for third party payment processing and what types of experiences (good or bad) have you had with them? We would like to give our customers the ability to set up recurring payments. I'd rather not store a customer's credit card number on our database as I imagine there are a plethora of compliance guidelines around this. Is there a third party solution for recurring payment processing? On a side note, this is not necessarily a code related question and is more business focused. I wasn't sure if there was a better route for posting this question, and please commont or modify this if there is another route I should take. Thanks!!

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  • NHibernate with nothing but stored procedures

    - by ChrisB2010
    I'd like to have NHibernate call a stored procedure when ISession.Get is called to fetch an entity by its key instead of using dynamic SQL. We have been using NHibernate and allowing it to generate our SQL for queries and inserts/updates/deletes, but now may have to deploy our application to an environment that requires us to use stored procedures for all database access. We can use sql-insert, sql-update, and sql-delete in our .hbm.xml mapping files for inserts/updates/deletes. Our hql and criteria queries will have to be replaced with stored procedure calls. However, I have not figured out how to force NHibernate to use a custom stored procedure to fetch an entity by its key. I still want to be able to call ISession.Get, as in: using (ISession session = MySessionFactory.OpenSession()) { return session.Get<Customer>(customerId); } and also lazy load objects, but I want NHibernate to call my "GetCustomerById" stored procedure instead of generating the dynamic SQL. Can this be done? Perhaps NHibernate is no longer a fit given this new environment we must support.

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  • jquery ui autocomplete with database

    - by user301766
    I fairly new to JQuery and perhaps trying to achieve something that might be abit harder for a beginner. However I am trying to create an autocomplete that sends the current value to a PHP script and then returns the necessary values. Here is my Javascript code $("#login_name").autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { $.ajax({ url: "http://www.myhost.com/myscript.php", dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) { alert(data); response($.map(data, function(item) { return { label: item.user_login_name, value: item.user_id } })) } }) }, minLength: 2 }); And here is the the last half of "myscript.php" while($row = $Database->fetch(MYSQLI_ASSOC)) { foreach($row as $column=>$val) { $results[$i][$column] = $val; } $i++; } print json_encode($results); Which produces the following output [{"user_id":"2","user_login_name":"Name1"},{"user_id":"3","user_login_name":"Name2"},{"user_id":"4","user_login_name":"Name3"},{"user_id":"5","user_login_name":"Name4"},{"user_id":"6","user_login_name":"Name5"},{"user_id":"7","user_login_name":"Name6"}] Can anyone tell me where I am going wrong please? Starting to get quite frustrated. The input box just turns "white" and no options are shown. The code does work if I specify an array of values.

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  • Translate an exception into 404 from Application_Error

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • Which parts of Sharepoint do I need to understand to build a publicly facing website?

    - by Petras
    I am building a publicly facing website that does the following. Users log in. And then view a list of their customers. They click on a customer to view their past purchases, order them, change them etc. This is not a shopping site by the way. It is a simple look up tool. Note that none of the data accessed by the website is in anything other than a SQL database - no office documents. Also, the login does not use users Windows credentials on a VPN or something like that. Typically I would build this using a standard ASP.NET MVC website. However the client says they want to use Sharepoint. As I understand it, Sharepoint is used for workflow and websites that are collaboration tools such as the components you can see here http://www.sharepointhosting.com/sharepoint-features.html Here are my questions: Would I be right in saying that WSS is completely inappropriate for this task as it comes with an overhead that provides no benefits? If I had to use it, would I need WSS or MOSS? If I had to use it, would I be right in saying the site would consist of : List item a) Web Parts b) And a custom site layout. How do I create one of these?

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  • Django Form Preview

    - by Mark Kecko
    I'm trying to use django's FormPreview and I can't get it to work properly. Here's my code: forms.py class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): status = forms.TypedChoiceField( coerce=int, choices=LIST_STATUS, label="type", widget=forms.RadioSelect ) description = forms.CharField(widget = forms.Textarea) stage = forms.CharField() def __init__(self, useradd=None, *args, **kwargs): super(MyForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) self.fields['firm'].label = "Firm" class Meta: model = MyModel fields = ['status', 'description', 'stage'] class MyFormPreview(FormPreview): form_template = 'templates/post.html' preview_template = 'templates/review.html' def process_preview(self, request, cleaned_data): print "processed" def done(self, request, cleaned_data): print "done" # Do something with the cleaned_data, then redirect # to a "success" page. return HttpResponseRedirect('/') urls.py (r'^post/$', MyFormPreview(MyForm)), post.html <form id = "post_ad" action = "" method = "POST" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <table> {{form.as_table}} </table> <input type="submit" name="save" value="Post" /> </form> When I go to /post/ I get the correct form and I fill it out. When I submit the form it goes right back to /post/ but but there are no errors (I've tried displaying {{errors}}) and the form is empty. None of my print statements execute. I'm not sure what I'm missing. Can anyone help me out? I can't find any documentation besides what's on the django site. Also, what's the "preview" variable called that I should use in my preview.html template? {{preview}} or do I just do {{form}} again? -- Answered below. I tried adding 'django.contrib.formtools' to my installed_apps in settings and I tried using the code from the default form templates from django.contrib as suggested below. Still, when I submit the form I go right back to the post template, none of my print statements execute :(

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  • pooling with Windsor

    - by AlonEl
    I've tried out the pooling lifestyle with Windsor. Lets say I want multiple CustomerTasks to work with a pool of ILogger's. when i try resolving more times than maxPoolSize, new loggers keeps getting created. what am i missing and what exactly is the meaning of min and max pool size? the xml configuration i use is (demo code): <component id="customertasks" type="WindsorTest.CustomerTasks, WindsorTestCheck" lifestyle="transient" /> <component id="logger.console" service="WindsorTest.ILogger, WindsorTestCheck" type="WindsorTest.ConsoleLogger, WindsorTestCheck" lifestyle="pooled" initialPoolSize="2" maxPoolSize="5" /> Code is: public interface ILogger { void Log(string message); } public class ConsoleLogger : ILogger { private static int count = 0; public ConsoleLogger() { Console.WriteLine("Hello from constructor number:" + count); count++; } public void Log(string message) { Console.WriteLine(message); } } public class CustomerTasks { private readonly ILogger logger; public CustomerTasks(ILogger logger) { this.logger = logger; } public void SaveCustomer() { logger.Log("Saved customer"); } }

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  • Apache Not Accepting a Path in My Home Folder

    - by Promather
    I have trying to set up an Apache site to use a folder in my home folder without any success. I exactly followed the steps in this page: https://help.ubuntu.com/community/ApacheMySQLPHP yet I did not succeed; I keep getting error 403, which says that the server doesn't have permission to access the requested page. I searched forums and many suggested changing the permission of the folder. I went straight away and set the permission to 777, but that didn't solve the problem. I made another search and somebody gave me a clue, which is that it could be because my home folder is encrypted. I believe this could be the problem, but: What is the relation between encryption and Apache? I suppose Apache server is requesting the file from the system, rather than trying to access the file bytes! Is there anyway to solve this problem? I don't want to move the folder to /var/www because I am using this Apache for testing, so I want whatever change I make to be immediately reflected, rather than having to copy files which is error prone.

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  • Why does my Workflow Service (4.0) variable go null in a DoWhile Activity?

    - by jlafay
    I have a WF service that I'm trying to setup receive activities to "Subscribe" and "Unsubscribe". I'm using This WF Durable Duplex Tutorial as a basis because my service performs callbacks to clients. Basically, think of it as a chat service. I can make client calls to the two receive activities just fine. What happens is the callback address of the client is passed in to Subscribe() on the service. The address is stored as a variable in the WF service and everything looks like it would work as to be expected. When a client calls Unsubscribe(), my watch I have set on the address var during debugging shows it as null. So what gives? Here's the basic setup of my WF service layout... Everything is enveloped in a DoWhile activity. Inside of that is a Pick activity and two Pick branches. The first branch is for subscribing activities. It has a receive-sendreply activity that assigns the string passed by the client to the WF address var. The second branch handles unsubscribing. The trigger is the Request activity and the client address is again passed in. From there it goes into a sequence, starting with an If. It checks to see if the unsubscribeAddress equals the address already subscribed. If it does, then it sets the address to String.Empty and sends a success message back to the client. Why would a variable that's scoped to the enveloping DoWhile activity be implicitly assigned to null? I'm trying to get this to work so I can implement multiple client subscribers from there and work on triggers that invoke callbacks to multiple clients. CONCAT EDIT: I set a breakpoint at the DoWhile level and my var is null once Unsubscribe() is called. When Subscribe() is invoked, the watch shows a value in the var all the way through. Until I Unsubscribe() with a client. Should I be using a While Activity instead?

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  • jquery GET and POST confusion

    - by JPro
    Hi, I am not quiet sure how jquery works. I want to know few things about the GET and POST in terms of jQuery. I use the following code in my app : <script> function example_ajax_request() { $('#example-placeholder').html('<p>Loading results ... <img src="ajax-loader.gif" /></p>'); $('#example-placeholder').load("ind.php?show=" + $('#box option:selected').val()); } </script> I am not using either GET or POST in this method. I am using a button to call the example_ajax_request to process the request and get the results. Sometimes I see code like this: $.ajax({ url: 'loader.php', data: 'somedata', method: 'GET', success: function(data){ $('#er').text(data); } }); My doubt is, is it required or not that we use a method to post the data? (either GET or POST) while send and getting the data in PHP webapps? The code that I use first works fine even though I do not use any POST or GET methods. Any inputs? Thanks.

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  • Django | Python creating a JSON response

    - by MMRUser
    Hi, I'm trying to convert a server side AJAX response script in to an Django HttpResponse, but apparently it's not working. This is the server-side script /* RECEIVE VALUE */ $validateValue=$_POST['validateValue']; $validateId=$_POST['validateId']; $validateError=$_POST['validateError']; /* RETURN VALUE */ $arrayToJs = array(); $arrayToJs[0] = $validateId; $arrayToJs[1] = $validateError; if($validateValue =="Testuser"){ // validate?? $arrayToJs[2] = "true"; // RETURN TRUE echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH success }else{ for($x=0;$x<1000000;$x++){ if($x == 990000){ $arrayToJs[2] = "false"; echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH ERROR } } } And this is the converted code def validate_user(request): if request.method == 'POST': vld_value = request.POST.get('validateValue') vld_id = request.POST.get('validateId') vld_error = request.POST.get('validateError') array_to_js = [vld_id, vld_error, False] if vld_value == "TestUser": array_to_js[2] = True x = simplejson.dumps(array_to_js) return HttpResponse(x) else: array_to_js[2] = False x = simplejson.dumps(array_to_js) test = 'Error' return render_to_response('index.html',{'error':error},context_instance=RequestContext(request)) return render_to_response('index.html',context_instance=RequestContext(request)) I'm using simplejson to encode the Python list (so it will return a json array).Coudn't figure out the problem yet.But I think that I did something wrong about the 'echo'. Anyway I'm expecting an good answer it will help me a lot. Thanks.

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  • Why are my descenders being cut off when using CSS @font-face?

    - by Olly Hodgson
    I'm using the Google webfonts API to embed Droid Sans on a page. All is fine, except for the descenders (i.e. the dangly bits on y, g, etc). The latest versions of Firefox, IE and Chrome on my Windows Vista box are all cutting the bottom off. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>Droid sans descender test</title> <meta charset="utf-8"> <link href="http://fonts.googleapis.com/css?family=Droid+Sans:regular,bold" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css"> <style type="text/css"> body { font-size: 16px; font-family: "Droid Sans"sans-serif; } h1, h2, h3 { margin: 1em 0; font-weight: normal; } h1 { font-size: 2em; } h2 { font-size: 1.5em; } h3 { font-size: 1em; } </style> </head> <body> <h1>A bug ran under the carpet anyway</h1> <h2>A bug ran under the carpet anyway</h2> <h3>A bug ran under the carpet anyway</h3> </body> </html> The above code looks like this: I've tried line-height, font-size, padding etc to no avail. I had some success with font-size-adjust, but the last time I checked it was Gecko only. Does anybody know of a fix for this?

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  • Table Design For SystemSettings, Best Model

    - by Chris L
    Someone suggested moving a table full of settings, where each column is a setting name(or type) and the rows are the customers & their respective settings for each setting. ID | IsAdmin | ImagePath ------------------------------ 12 | 1          | \path\to\images 34 | 0          | \path\to\images The downside to this is every time we want a new setting name(or type) we alter the table(via sql) and add the new (column)setting name/type. Then update the rows(so that each customer now has a value for that setting). The new table design proposal. The proposal is to have a column for setting name and another column for setting. ID | SettingName | SettingValue ---------------------------- 12 | IsAdmin        | 1 12 | ImagePath   | \path\to\images 34 | IsAdmin        | 0 34 | ImagePath   | \path\to\images The point they made was that adding a new setting was as easy as a simple insert statement to the row, no added column. But something doesn't feel right about the second design, it looks bad, but I can't come up with any arguments against it. Am I wrong?

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  • Configure IIS7 to server static content through ASP.NET Runtime

    - by Anton Gogolev
    I searched high an low and still cannot find a definite answer. How do I configure IIS 7.0 or a Web Application in IIS so that ASP.NET Runtime will handle all requests -- including ones to static files like *.js, *.gif, etc? What I'm trying to do is as follows. We have kind of SaaSy site, which we can "skin" for every customer. "Skinnig" means developing a custom master page and using a bunch of *.css and other images. Quite naturally, I'm using VirtualPathProvider, which operates like this: public override System.Web.Hosting.VirtualFile GetFile(string virtualPath) { if(PhysicalFileExists(virtualPath)) { var virtualFile = base.GetFile(virtualPath); return virtualFile; } if(VirtualFileExists(virtualPath)) { var brandedVirtualPath = GetBrandedVirtualPath(virtualPath); var absolutePath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(brandedVirtualPath); Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("Serving '{0}' from '{1}'", brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath), "BrandingAwareVirtualPathProvider"); var virtualFile = new VirtualFile(brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath); return virtualFile; } return null; } The basic idea is as follows: we have a branding folder inside our webapp, which in turn contains folders for each "brand", with "brand" being equal to host name. That is, requests to http://foo.example.com/ should use static files from branding/foo_example_com, whereas http://bar.example.com/ should use content from branding/bar_example_com. Now what I want IIS to do is to forward all requests to static files to StaticFileHandler, which would then use this whole "infrastructure" and serve correct files. However, try as I might, I cannot configure IIS to do this.

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  • Class; Struct; Enum confusion, what is better?

    - by Angel Brighteyes
    I have 46 rows of information, 2 columns each row ("Code Number", "Description"). These codes are returned to the client dependent upon the success or failure of their initial submission request. I do not want to use a database file (csv, sqlite, etc) for the storage/access. The closest type that I can think of for how I want these codes to be shown to the client is the exception class. Correct me if I'm wrong, but from what I can tell enums do not allow strings, though this sort of structure seemed the better option initially based on how it works (e.g. 100 = "missing name in request"). Thinking about it, creating a class might be the best modus operandi. However I would appreciate more experienced advice or direction and input from those who might have been in a similar situation. Currently this is what I have: class ReturnCode { private int _code; private string _message; public ReturnCode(int code) { Code = code; } public int Code { get { return _code; } set { _code = value; _message = RetrieveMessage(value); } } public string Message { get { return _message; } } private string RetrieveMessage(int value) { string message; switch (value) { case 100: message = "Request completed successfuly"; break; case 201: message = "Missing name in request."; break; default: message = "Unexpected failure, please email for support"; break; } return message; } }

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  • Secure Webservice (WCF) without storing credentials on consumer application

    - by Pai Gaudêncio
    Howdy folks, I have a customer that sells a lottery analysis application. In this application, he consumes a webservice (my service, I mean, belongs to the company I work for now) to get statistical data about lottery results, bets made, amounts, etc., from all across the globe. The access to this webservice is paid, and each consult costs X credits. Some people have disassembled this lottery application and found the api key/auth key used to access the paid webservice, and started to use it. I would like to prevent this from happening again, but I can't find a way to authenticate on the webservice without storing the auth. keys on the application. Does anyone have any ideas on how to accomplish such task? ps1.Can't ask for the users to input any kind of credentials. Has to be transparent for them (they shouldn't know what is happening). ps2. Can't use digital certificates for the same reason above, not to mention it's easy to retrieve them and we would fall into the original problem. Thanks in advance.

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