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  • Are .NET 4.0 Runtime slower than .NET 2.0 Runtime?

    - by DxCK
    After I upgraded my projects to .NET 4.0 (With VS2010) I realized than they run slower than they were in .NET 2.0 (VS2008). So i decided to benchmark a simple console application in both VS2008 & VS2010 with various Target Frameworks: using System; using System.Diagnostics; using System.Reflection; namespace RuntimePerfTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine(Assembly.GetCallingAssembly().ImageRuntimeVersion); Stopwatch sw = new Stopwatch(); while (true) { sw.Reset(); sw.Start(); for (int i = 0; i < 1000000000; i++) { } TimeSpan elapsed = sw.Elapsed; Console.WriteLine(elapsed); } } } } Here is the results: VS2008 Target Framework 2.0: ~0.25 seconds Target Framework 3.0: ~0.25 seconds Target Framework 3.5: ~0.25 seconds VS2010 Target Framework 2.0: ~3.8 seconds Target Framework 3.0: ~3.8 seconds Target Framework 3.5: ~1.51 seconds Target Framework 3.5 Client Profile: ~3.8 seconds Target Framework 4.0: ~1.01 seconds Target Framework 4.0 Client Profile: ~1.01 seconds My initial conclusion is obviously that programs compiled with VS2008 working faster than programs compiled with VS2010. Can anyone explain those performance changes between VS2008 and VS2010? and between different Target Frameworks inside VS2010 itself?

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  • Windows Services in Win7?

    - by Brandi
    I am trying to make a service that spawns a desktop application, and then watches to make sure it restarts again if it is closed. . I would like it to basically spawn the process and then forget about it, allowing to act like a normal interactive application. (Apparently this is much easier to do in XP and before, but I need this for XP, Vista, and 7) My problem now is that either it shows up invisible if I use process.start() with desktop interactive checked, and if I directly spawn a form it asks "Do you REALLY want to do this?!" and then the whole screen goes blank EXCEPT for my program. I just want this to be an inoffensive background app. I have the app working well, I just need to figure out how to spawn it from a service without all the trouble. I am finding all of this stuff that says "Don't make services that have UI", but first off this was a requirement that was given to me. (Boss does not want it to be a scheduled task) Also, I noticed that the Task scheduler is itself a service, and it does not have any problem spawning user interactive applications. Why can't I do that too? What am I doing wrong?

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  • Using the hardware keyboard to simulate button press on Android

    - by Bevor
    Hello, it is difficult to test a game with the mouse pointer on android buttons. I would like to control those buttons with the hardware keyboard. Actually I don't want to control the buttons itself but I want to control the behaviour the buttons would also do. For example I have 4 buttons in the android application with "arrow up, down, left, right". I'd like to use the arrow buttons of my hardware keyboard to control the same. How can I do that? Actually the question is, where can I set the Listener? I tried something in my activity. I set this listener to the application button: button.setOnKeyListener(new OnKeyListener() { @Override public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_DPAD_DOWN) //scroll down return true; } }); The behaviour is the following: I can't scroll down with my hardware keyboard but with the hardware keyboard I can select the android buttons (they will be highlighted when I move on any button). After I selected the button with the Listener I can't select any other button anymore but then the Listener comes into force. Now I can scroll down with the hardware keyboard arrow down button. I would like to achieve this behaviour without selecting any button. So I thought about setting the listener to the layout container or any other layout but this has no effect. Is there any other approach to achieve this?

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  • PHP Socket Server vs node.js: Web Chat

    - by Eliasdx
    I want to program a HTTP WebChat using long-held HTTP requests (Comet), ajax and websockets (depending on the browser used). Userdatabase is in mysql. Chat is written in PHP except maybe the chat stream itself which could also be written in javascript (node.js): I don't want to start a php process per user as there is no good way to send the chat messages between these php childs. So I thought about writing an own socket server in either PHP or node.js which should be able to handle more then 1000 connections (chat users). As a purely web developer (php) I'm not much familiar with sockets as I usually let web server care about connections. The chat messages won't be saved on disk nor in mysql but in RAM as an array or object for best speed. As far as I know there is no way to handle multiple connections at the same time in a single php process (socket server), however you can accept a great amount of socket connections and process them successive in a loop (read and write; incoming message - write to all socket connections). The problem is that there will most-likely be a lag with ~1000 users and mysql operations could slow the whole thing down which will then affect all users. My question is: Can node.js handle a socket server with better performance? Node.js is event-based but I'm not sure if it can process multiple events at the same time (wouldn't that need multi-threading?) or if there is just an event queue. With an event queue it would be just like php: process user after user. I could also spawn a php process per chat room (much less users) but afaik there are singlethreaded IRC servers which are also capable to handle thousands of users. (written in c++ or whatever) so maybe it's also possible in php. I would prefer PHP over Node.js because then the project would be php-only and not a mixture of programming languages. However if Node can process connections simultaneously I'd probably choose it.

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  • Error in pom file in Maven project,after importing into eclipse

    - by dipti
    I am actually new to the Maven framework.I already have a Maven project.I installed the Maven plugin etc into my EclipseIDE from http://m2eclipse.sonatype.org/sites/m2e.Then I imported my project and enabled dependencies.But the project is showing too many errors.The pom.xml itself is showing errors.The errors are"Project Build Error:unknown packaging:apk",Project Build Error:unresolvable build extension:plugin" etc. My error area is: project xmlns="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0 http://maven.apache.org/xsd/maven-4.0.0.xsd" 4.0.0 <groupId>com.nbc.cnbc.android</groupId> <artifactId>android.domain.tests</artifactId> <version>1.0.0</version> <packaging>apk</packaging> <parent> <groupId>com.nbc.cnbc.android</groupId> <artifactId>android.domain.parent</artifactId> <version>1.0.0</version> <relativePath>../android.domain.parent/pom.xml</relativePath> </parent> <name>android.domain.tests</name> <url>http://maven.apache.org</url> Could it be because the url specified in the last line could be different??? Any ideas why this could be happening?? Any reply is highly appreciated.Thanks a looot in advance!! Regards, Dipti

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  • Closing thread using ExitThread - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    I have a simple program that creates a thread, loops twenty times and then makes a call to close itself and perform the necessary cleanup. When I debug the program it reaches the ExitThread(); method and pauses, ignoring the printf(); I have set up after it to signal to me it's closed. Is this normal or am I forgetting to do something? I'm new to threading using C. Main() void main() { Time t; int i = 0; StartTimer(); for(i = 0; i < 20; i++) { t = GetTime(); printf("%d.%.3d\n", t.seconds, t.milliseconds); Sleep(100); } StopTimer(); } Thread Creation void StartTimer() { DWORD threadId; seconds = 0; milliseconds = 0; // Create child thread hThread = CreateThread( NULL, // lpThreadAttributes (default) 0, // dwStackSize (default) ThreadFunc, // lpStartAddress NULL, // lpParameter 0, // dwCreationFlags &threadId // lpThreadId (returned by function) ); // Check child thread was created successfully if(hThread == NULL) { printf("Error creating thread\n"); } } Thread Close void StopTimer() { DWORD exitCode; if(GetExitCodeThread(hThread,&exitCode) != 0) { ExitThread(exitCode); printf("Thread closed"); if(CloseHandle(hThread)) { printf("Handle closed"); } } }

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  • Help with accessing a pre-existing window AFTER opener is refreshed!

    - by Wilhelm Murdoch
    Alright, I'm at my wit's end on this issue. First, backstory. I'm working on a video management system where we're allowing users, when adding new content, to upload and, optionally, transcode a media file. We're using Java applet for the browser-based FTP client. What I want to do is allow a user to initiate an upload and then send the FTP connection instance to a popup window. This window will act as a job queue for the FTP transfer process. This will allow users to move about the main interface without having to stay on the original page until an individual file transfer is complete. For the most part I have all of this working, but here's a problem. If the window is closed, all connections are dropped and the upload process for all queued files will be canceled. So, if Window One opens the Popup Window, adds stuff to the queue, refreshes the screen or moves to a different page, how will I access the Popup Window? The popup window and its contents must remain persistent while the user navigates through the original window. The original window must be able to access the popup to add a new job to the queue. The popup window itself is independent of the opening window, so communication only happens in one direction: Parent - Popup Not Parent <- Popup Window.open(null, 'WINDOW_NAME'); will not work in this case. I need to check if a window exists BEFORE using window.open. Help!?!?

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  • Passing in a lambda to a Where statement

    - by sonicblis
    I noticed today that if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2); items = items.Where(i => i.Property > 4); Once I access the items var, it executes only the first line as the data call and then does the second call in memory. However, if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2).Where(i => i.Property > 4); I get only one expression executed against the context that includes both where statements. I have a host of variables that I want to use to build the expression for the linq lambda, but their presence or absence changes the expression such that I'd have to have a rediculous number of conditionals to satisfy all cases. I thought I could just add the Where() statements as in my first example above, but that doesn't end up in a single expression that contains all of the criteria. Therefore, I'm trying to create just the lambda itself as such: //bogus syntax if (var1 == "something") var expression = Expression<Func<item, bool>>(i => i.Property == "Something); if (var2 == "somethingElse") expression = expression.Where(i => i.Property2 == "SomethingElse"); And then pass that in to the where of my context.Items to evaluate. A) is this right, and B) if so, how do you do it?

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  • Changing html content of a div before and after ajax request

    - by R27
    I am trying to change the button "ADD" (in a div) to some text/img as soon as it is clicked. And after the ajax request is processed, in the success block , I want the div to get the button back. I see the ajax request is itself not getting processed. Can someone explain whats my mistake. I just removed the jsfiddle link and pasting the script here to avoid confusion about the dependencies. JS script var ajax_load = "Please wait..."; jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#add_button").click(function(event){ var st = $("#add_div").html(); $("#add_div").html(ajax_load); $("#sform").validate({ errorClass: "error", submitHandler: function (form) { alert('inside submit'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'form.cgi', data: $("#sform").serialize(), success: function (msg) { alert('msg'); $("#add_div").html(st); $("#sform")[0].reset(); } }); } }); }); }); And the html piece is <form id=sform>LABEL <input id=field1 type=text> <div id="add_div"> <input type="button" value="ADD" id="add_button"> </div> </form> I have jquery.validate.min.js script included.

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  • UITableView with dynamic cell heights -- what do I need to do to fix scrolling down?

    - by Ian Terrell
    I am building a teensy tiny little Twitter client on the iPhone. Naturally, I'm displaying the tweets in a UITableView, and they are of course of varying lengths. I'm dynamically changing the height of the cell based on the text quite fine: - (CGFloat)heightForTweetCellWithString:(NSString *)text { CGFloat height = Buffer + [text sizeWithFont:Font constrainedToSize:Size lineBreakMode:LineBreakMode].height; return MAX(height, MinHeight); } - (CGFloat)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView heightForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *text = // get tweet text for this indexpath return [self heightForTweetCellWithString:text]; } } I'm displaying the actual tweet cell using the algorithm in the PragProg book: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"TweetCell"; TweetCell *cell = (TweetCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [self createNewTweetCellFromNib]; } cell.tweet.text = // tweet text // set other labels, etc return cell; } When I boot up, all the tweets visible display just fine. However, when I scroll down, the tweets below are quite mussed up -- it appears that once a cell has scrolled off the screen, the cell height for the one above it gets resized to be larger than it should be, and obscures part of the cell below it. When the cell reaches the top of the view, it resets itself and renders properly. Scrolling up presents no difficulties. Here is a video that shows this in action: http://screencast.com/t/rqwD9tpdltd I've tried quite a bit already: resizing the cell's frame on creation, using different identifiers for cells with different heights (i.e. [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Identifier%d", rowHeight]), changing properties in Interface Builder... If there are additional code snippets I can post, please let me know. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Php script running as scheduled task hangs - help!

    - by Ali
    Hi guys, I've built a php script that runs from the command line. It opens a connection into a pop3 email account and downloads all the emails and writes them to a database, and deletes them once downloaded. I have this script being called from the commandline by a bat file. in turn I have created a scheduled task which invokes the bat file every 5 minutes. The thing is that I have set the time out to zero for the fact that at times there could be emails with large attachments and the script actually downloads the attachments and stores them as raw files offline and the no timeout is so that the script doesnt die out during downloading. I've found that the program hangs sometimes and its a bit annoying at that - it always hangs are one point i.e. when negotiating the connection and getting connected to the mail server. And because the timeout is set to zero it seems to stay stuck up in taht position. And because of that the task is not run as its technically hung up. I want that the program should not timeout when downloading emails - however at the points where it is negotiating a connection or trying to connect to the mailserver there should be a timeout only at that point itself and not the rest of the program execution. How do I do this :(

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  • IF-block brackets: best practice

    - by MasterPeter
    I am preparing a short tutorial for level 1 uni students learning JavaScript basics. The task is to validate a phone number. The number must not contain non-digits and must be 14 digits long or less. The following code excerpt is what I came up with and I would like to make it as readable as possible. if ( //set of rules for invalid phone number phoneNumber.length == 0 //empty || phoneNumber.length > 14 //too long || /\D/.test(phoneNumber) //contains non-digits ) { setMessageText(invalid); } else { setMessageText(valid); } A simple question I can not quite answer myself and would like to hear your opinions on: How to position the surrounding (outermost) brackets? It's hard to see the difference between a normal and a curly bracket. Do you usually put the last ) on the same line as the last condition? Do you keep the first opening ( on a line by itself? Do you wrap each individual sub-condition in brackets too? Do you align horizontally the first ( with the last ), or do you place the last ) in the same column as the if? Do you keep ) { on a separate line or you place the last ) on the same line with the last sub-condition and then place the opening { on a new line? Or do you just put the ) { on the same line as the last sub-condition? Community wiki.

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  • Get subdomain of XML page from XSL

    - by fudgey
    I am working with a guild hosting site that provides an XML/XSL transformation widget where all I need to do is enter the URL for the XML and XSL and it does the rest. I have written an XSL transform to display a World of Warcraft armory page: Here is an example XML page (view source to see it) of the group I'm trying to help now. So, the user is entering their own XML page url (which has an eu subdomain in this case, but it is not within the XML itself). So when I make links to the character url, I need to add the entire url <a target="_blank" href="http://eu.wowarmory.com/character-sheet.xml?{@url}"> <xsl:value-of select="@name"/> </a> But I can't just set the domain to eu since there are multiple regions. Here are the possibilities: us = www, europe = eu, korea = kr, china = cn and taiwan = tw. Here is a snippet of the XML which shows the url parameters: <character achPoints="4275" classId="3" genderId="0" level="80" name="Virtex" raceId="4" rank="2" url="r=Drek%27Thar&amp;cn=Virtex"/> I guess I could just have the user add a small bit of HTML with their region in another part of their page, something like <div id="region">eu</div>, but I'm trying to make this work without any extra coding on their part. Edit: Ok, my question explicitly stated: How do I get the URL subdomain using XSL?

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  • LNK 1104 error to lib file - Continues despite removing includes and links

    - by user1556594
    A link error to a lib file popped up out of the blue in a c++ application of mine after code was working fine in my last session. Error 1 error LNK1104: cannot open file '..........\Program Files (x86)\FMOD SoundSystem\FMOD Programmers API Windows\api\lib\fmodex_vc.lib' I triple checked my project directories were set up correctly to link to the lib file, that the file existed in said directory and that it was a working version of the .lib. My next step was to remove the includes to the file and the links to bypass the error and work on the rest of my code until the problem was solved. The error remains, however, despite: Commenting out absolutely every include relating to the lib. Commenting out absolutely every line of code dependant on the includes. Removing the directory from VC++ Directories in the project properties. Checking the Additional Library Directories field was also clear of references. To my understanding this should have made the library and related code virtually non-existant to the compiler. What am I missing? The library itself is fmodex_vc.lib - part of the FMOD API for providing sound to interactive applications. Again, the application was working one session, but failed to compile the next. I hadn't touched the code since so this led me to believe some aspect of VS is at fault. I'd like to avoid the time involded in re-installing if possible as I'm on the clock for a review tomorrow evening and there are a few more things I'd like to smooth out before then. If necessary, however, I won't hesitate. Very much appreciate the help.

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  • How to change the date/time in Python for all modules?

    - by Felix Schwarz
    When I write with business logic, my code often depends on the current time. For example the algorithm which looks at each unfinished order and checks if an invoice should be sent (which depends on the no of days since the job was ended). In these cases creating an invoice is not triggered by an explicit user action but by a background job. Now this creates a problem for me when it comes to testing: I can test invoice creation itself easily However it is hard to create an order in a test and check that the background job identifies the correct orders at the correct time. So far I found two solutions: In the test setup, calculate the job dates relative to the current date. Downside: The code becomes quite complicated as there are no explicit dates written anymore. Sometimes the business logic is pretty complex for edge cases so it becomes hard to debug due to all these relative dates. I have my own date/time accessor functions which I use throughout my code. In the test I just set a current date and all modules get this date. So I can simulate an order creation in February and check that the invoice is created in April easily. Downside: 3rd party modules do not use this mechanism so it's really hard to integrate+test these. The second approach was way more successful to me after all. Therefore I'm looking for a way to set the time Python's datetime+time modules return. Setting the date is usually enough, I don't need to set the current hour or second (even though this would be nice). Is there such a utility? Is there an (internal) Python API that I can use?

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  • How to specialize a type parameterized argument to multiple different types for in Scala?

    - by jmount
    I need a back-check (please). In an article ( http://www.win-vector.com/blog/2010/06/automatic-differentiation-with-scala/ ) I just wrote I stated that it is my belief in Scala that you can not specify a function that takes an argument that is itself a function with an unbound type parameter. What I mean is you can write: def g(f:Array[Double]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double but you can not write something like: def g(f[Y]:Array[Y]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double because Y is not known. The intended use is that inside g() I will specialize fY to multiple different types at different times. You can write: def g[Y](f:Array[Y]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double but then f() is of a single type per call to g() (which is exactly what we do not want). However, you can get all of the equivalent functionality by using a trait extension instead insisting on passing around a function. What I advocated in my article was: 1) Creating a trait that imitates the structure of Scala's Function1 trait. Something like: abstract trait VectorFN { def apply[Y](x:Array[Y]):Y } 2) declaring def g(f:VectorFN,Double):Double (using the trait is the type). This works (people here on StackOverflow helped me find it, and I am happy with it)- but am I mis-representing Scala by missing an even better solution?

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  • Visual Studio - Edit source code located in a database

    - by mfeingold
    I am building something similar to Server Explorer for Apache CouchDB. One of the things necessary is to be able to edit CouchDB view definitions which in CouchDB are JavaScript functions. How can I trick Visual Studio into using my object to retrieve and save the content of the JavaScript function but still use the rest of it - I am happy with editor itself and have no intention of writing my own Editor/Language Service, etc. The latter would be much bigger effort than what this project warrants Edit After more digging I am still stuck. Here is what I know: IVsUIShellOpenDocument interface provides a method OpenStandardEditor which can be used to open the standard Visual Studio editor. As one of the parameters this method takes a Pointer to the IUnknown interface of the document data object. This object is supposed to implement several interfaces described in many places all over the MSDN. Visual Studio SDK also provides a 'sample' implementation of the document data object VsTextBufferClass. I can create an instance of this class and when I pass the pointer to the instance to the OpenStandardEditor I can see my editor and it seems to work ok. When I try to implement my own class implementing the same interfaces (IVsTextBuffer, VsTextBuffer, IVsTextLines) OpenStandardEditor method returns success, but VS bombs out on call editor.Show() with an access violation. My suspicion is that VsTextBufferClass also implements some other interface(s) but not in C# way but rather in the good old COM way. I just do not know which one(s). Any thoughts?

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • Keeping updated with the latest technologies.

    - by Prashanth
    I am a software developer and I have been programming since the past six years. I simply love the mental challenge involved in trying to come up with solutions to hard problems, reading up programming literature, blogs by prominent developers and so on. I work on Microsoft platform and I have trouble keeping up with the pace at which various frameworks are rolled out. Remoting,WCF,ASP.NET,ASP.NET MVC, LINQ, WPF, WWF, OSLO, ADO.NET data services, DSL tools etc etc. Even understanding all these frameworks at an abstract level and see how they are all tied up with MS vision itself is a major hurdle. Now when you add other non microsoft technologies, programming languages etc to the equation, I wonder how do people manage? Given that there are only 24 hours in a day, how does one keep himself updated about so many technology changes that happen everyday? My question is , is it even worth doing that? The thing is, I am also interested in other fields such as literature, science. I try my best to at least gain a superficial understanding of what is happening in other fields of my interest and don't want to give up on that :)

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  • Using javascript and php together

    - by EmmyS
    I have a PHP form that needs some very simple validation on submit. I'd rather do the validation client-side, as there's quite a bit of server-side validation that happens to deal with writing form values to a database. So I just want to call a javascript function onsubmit to compare values in two password fields. This is what I've got: function validate(form){ var password = form.password.value; var password2 = form.password2.value; alert("password:"+password+" password2:" + password2); if (password != password2) { alert("not equal"); document.getElementByID("passwordError").style.display="inline"; return false; } alert("equal"); return true; } The idea being that a default-hidden div containing an error message would be displayed if the two passwords don't match. The alerts are just to display the values of password and password2, and then again to indicate whether they match or not (will not be used in production code). I'm using an input type=submit button, and calling the function in the form tag: <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post" onsubmit="return validate(this);"> Everything is alerting as expected when entering non-matching values. I would have hoped (and assumed, based on past use) that if the function returned false, the actual submit would not occur. And yet, it is. I'm testing by entering non-matching values in the password fields, and the alerts clearly show me the values and the not equal result, but the actual form action is still occurring and it's trying to write to my database. I'm pretty new at PHP; is there something about it that will not let me combine with javascript this way? Would it be better to use an input type=button and include submit() in the function itself if it returns true?

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  • Classic ASP Recursive function

    - by user333411
    Hi everyone, I havent done any classic ASP for a couple of years and now trying to get back into it from c# is prooving impossible! I've got a recursive function which very simply is supposed to query a database based on a value passed to the function and once the function has stopped calling itself it returns the recordset....however im getting the old error '80020009' message. I've declared the recordset outside of the function. Cany anyone see the error in my ways? Dim objRsTmp Function buildList(intParentGroupID) Set objRsTmp = Server.CreateObject("Adodb.Recordset") SQLCommand = "SELECT * FROM tblGroups WHERE tblGroups.intParentGroupID = " & intParentGroupID & ";" objRsTmp.Open SQLCommand, strConnection, 3, 3 If Not objRsTmp.Eof Then While Not objRsTmp.Eof Response.Write(objRsTmp("strGroup") & "<br />") buildList(objRsTmp("intID")) objRsTmp.MoveNext Wend End If Set buildList = objRsTmp '#objRsTmp.Close() 'Set objRsTmp = Nothing End Function Set objRs = buildList(0) If Not objRs.Eof Then Response.Write("There are records") While Not objRs.Eof For Each oFld in objRs.Fields Response.Write(oFld.Name & ": " & oFld.Value & ",") next Response.Write("<br />") objRs.MoveNext Wend End If Any assistance would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Al

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  • How to detect that the internet connection has got disconnected through a java desktop application?

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am developing a Java Desktop Application that access internet. It is a multi-threaded application, each thread do the same work (means each thread is an instance of same Thread class). Now, as all the threads need internet connection to be active, there should be some mechanism that detects whether an internet connection is active or not. Q1. How to detect whether the internet connection is active or not? Q2. Where to implement this internet-status-check-mechanism code? Should I start a separate thread for checking internet status regularly and notifies all the threads when the status changes from one state to another? Or should I let each thread check for the internet-status itself? Q3. This issue should be a very common issue as every application accessing an internet should deal with this problem. So how other developers usually deal with this problem? Q4. If you could give me a reference to a good demo application that addresses this issue then it would greatly help me.

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  • DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

    - by Jammer
    I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

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  • OOP, Interface Design and Encapsulation

    - by Mau
    C# project, but it could be applied to any OO languages. 3 interfaces interacting: public interface IPublicData {} public /* internal */ interface IInternalDataProducer { string GetData(); } public interface IPublicWorker { IPublicData DoWork(); IInternalDataProducer GetInternalProducer(); } public class Engine { Engine(IPublicWorker worker) {} IPublicData Run() { DoSomethingWith(worker.GetInternalProducer().GetData()); return worker.DoWork(); } } Clearly Engine is parametric in the actual worker that does the job. A further source of parametrization is how we produce the 'internal data' via IInternalDataProducer. This implementation requires IInternalDataProducer to be public because it's part of the declaration of the public interface IPublicWorker. However, I'd like it to be internal since it's only used by the engine. A solution is make the IPublicWorker produce the internal data itself, but that's not very elegant since there's only a couple of ways of producing it (while there are many more worker implementations), therefore it's nice to delegate to a couple of separate concrete classes. Moreover, the IInternalDataProducer is used in more places inside the engine, so it's good for the engine to pass around the actual object. I'm looking for elegant ideas/patterns. Cheers :-)

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  • Overlapping template partial specialization when wanting an "override" case: how to avoid the error?

    - by user173342
    I'm dealing with a pretty simple template struct that has an enum value set by whether its 2 template parameters are the same type or not. template<typename T, typename U> struct is_same { enum { value = 0 }; }; template<typename T> struct is_same<T, T> { enum { value = 1 }; }; This is part of a library (Eigen), so I can't alter this design without breaking it. When value == 0, a static assert aborts compilation. So I have a special numerical templated class SpecialCase that can do ops with different specializations of itself. So I set up an override like this: template<typename T> struct SpecialCase { ... }; template<typename LT, typename RT> struct is_same<SpecialCase<LT>, SpecialCase<RT>> { enum { value = 1 }; }; However, this throws the error: more than one partial specialization matches the template argument list Now, I understand why. It's the case where LT == RT, which steps on the toes of is_same<T, T>. What I don't know is how to keep my SpecialCase override and get rid of the error. Is there a trick to get around this? edit: To clarify, I need all cases where LT != RT to also be considered the same (have value 1). Not just LT == RT.

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