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  • How do you populate a UIImage view with ASIHTTPRequest given @2x?

    - by Jonathan Page
    I've been trying to load images from a url using ASIHTTPRequest but I always come up with a blank UIImage. I think it might have something to do with iOS automatically choosing the @2x named version of images or vica versa. [ASIHTTPRequest setDefaultCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; __block ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setDownloadCache:[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache]]; [request setCachePolicy:ASIAskServerIfModifiedCachePolicy|ASIFallbackToCacheIfLoadFailsCachePolicy]; [request setCacheStoragePolicy:ASICachePermanentlyCacheStoragePolicy]; [request setSecondsToCache:86400]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setCompletionBlock:^{ NSLog(@"Successful Update"); [self makeAssignment]; }]; [request setFailedBlock:^{ NSError *error = [request error]; NSLog(@"%@", [error localizedDescription]); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Update Failed" message:[error localizedDescription] delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; }]; [request startAsynchronous]; NSLog(@"%@", url_string); The makeAssignment method is below. NSString *url_string = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://173.246.100.185/%@", [eventDictionary objectForKey:kEventDescriptionImageURLKey]]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:url_string]; downloadedImage = [[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]]; NSLog(@"%@", downloadedImage); NSLog(@"%@", [[ASIDownloadCache sharedCache] pathToCachedResponseDataForURL:url]); Nothing I do, including naming images @2x on the server or providing both versions, gets it to load. Any ideas? Has anyone done this before? When I load them locally (from within the package) I don't have any issues. Thanks!

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  • Exception handling in Spring MVC with 3 layer architecture

    - by Chorochrondochor
    I am building a simple web applications with 3 layers - DAO, Service, MVC. When in my Controller I want to delete menu group and it contains menus I am getting ConstraintViolationException. Where should I handle this exception? In DAO, Service, or in Controller? Currently I am handling the exception in Controller. My code below. DAO method for deleting menu groups: @Override public void delete(E e){ if (e == null){ throw new DaoException("Entity can't be null."); } getCurrentSession().delete(e); } Service method for deleting menu groups: @Override @Transactional(readOnly = false) public void delete(MenuGroupEntity menuGroupEntity) { menuGroupDao.delete(menuGroupEntity); } Controller method for deleting menu groups in Controller: @RequestMapping(value = "/{menuGroupId}/delete", method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView delete(@PathVariable Long menuGroupId, RedirectAttributes redirectAttributes){ MenuGroupEntity menuGroupEntity = menuGroupService.find(menuGroupId); if (menuGroupEntity != null){ try { menuGroupService.delete(menuGroupEntity); redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessage", "admin.menu-group-deleted"); redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessageType", "success"); } catch (Exception e){ redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessage", "admin.menu-group-could-not-be-deleted"); redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessageType", "danger"); } } return new ModelAndView("redirect:/admin/menu-group"); }

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  • I did my own web framework: now, how keep it sync with applications? must I use versions?

    - by Daniel Koch
    ... and I did the first web application using it, now I'm going to create the second. In this first web application I enhanced the framework's core library with new things and promptly updated framework branch. I'm using bazaar to keep framework and web application committed. The application was in the beginning, a full branch of framework source tree, now I'm updating framework manually at every change on core files. (copying changed files from web app to framework's branch). With this second web application that I'm going to create, I need to know about versions (or revisions) which the application is based. If I found a bug in this version I can fix and then sync files with first web application no worrying: functions will be the same to this application. If I'm going to make changes in core (new behavior, new functions in library or something new in source tree) it must be named as "new version". What's the best way to do this? Because I'm using a Distributed Version Control System (bazaar), I'm not dealing with VERSIONS, but revision numbers that change every time. Please fresh my mind with new ideas.

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  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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  • How to emulate mod_rewrite in PHP

    - by Tyler Crompton
    I have a few URLs that I want to map to certain files via PHP. Currently, I am just using mod_rewrite in Apache. However, my application is getting too large for the rewriting to be done with regular expressions. So I created a file router.php that does the rewriting. I understand to do a redirect I could just send the Location: header. However, I don't always want to do a redirect. For example, I may want /api/item/ to map to the file /herp/derp.php relative to the document root. I need to preserve the HTTP method as well. "No problem," I thought. I made my .htaccess have the following snippet. RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /cgi-bin/router.php [L] And my router.php file looks as follows: <?php $uri = parse_url($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); $query = isset($uri['query']) ? $uri['query'] ? array(); // some code that modifies the query require_once "{$_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']}/herp/derp.php?" . http_build_query($query); ?> However, this doesn't work, because the OS is looking for a file named derp.php?some=query. How can I simulate a rewrite rule such as RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /herp/derp/ [L] in PHP. In other words, how do I tell the server to process a different URL than requested and preserve the query and HTTP method without causing a redirect? Note: Using variables set in router.php is less than desirable and is bad structure since it's only supposed to be responsible for handling URLs. I am open to using a light-weight third party solution.

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  • Can't see *all* databases in a remote SQL Server instance

    - by George
    Yesterday I posted a related question on StackOverflow. This problem involved not being able to see a SQL Server 2008 instance on another PC. I am not sure why adding the port number enabled me to see a SQL Server that I could not otherwise see, since the port number that I specified was, after all, the default port. Now I notice that I have another problem. While I can connect to the remote SQL 2008 Server instance, I cannot see all the databases in the instance. I am trying to connect to the 2008 instance from another PC using SQL Server 2008 Mgt Studio. I am connecting from a Windows 7 Ultimate PC to a Windows XP Pro PC. I suspect that my problem has something to do with not all database in the remote instance having the same version. For example, I "upgraded" a a SL 2005 database to 2008 by doing a backup frm 2005 and importing it into 2008. When I realized that this was not one of the database that I could see from my other PC, I noticed that the compatability level of the imported was still 2005, so I changed it to 2008. Still I could not see the database. I am sure that this is relevant: I just noticed that on my remote server, the sql node instance node, named "sql2008" says "version 10" when I am on the remote serfver, but when I connect to the sql2008 remote instance fron my local PC, the connection is shown locally as being a "SQL Servr version 8.0" instance. I suspect that locally, I am only being shown databases that are somehow in the remote 2008 instance but have not been upgraded. I guess I don't know what constitutes an upgraded database and I don not know who to connect to see all the databases, even if this requires multiple connections from the source PC.

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  • What makes deployment successful for some users and unsuccessful for others?

    - by Julien
    I am trying to deploy a Visual C++ application (developed with Microsoft Visual Studio 2008) using a Setup and Deployment Project. After installation, users on some target computers get the following error message after launching the application executable: “This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix the problem.” Another user after installation could run the application properly. I cannot find the root cause of this problem, despite spending several hours on the Visual Studio help files and online forums (most postings date back to 2006). Does anyone at Stack Overflow have a suggestion? Thanks in advance. Additional details appear below. The application uses FLTK 1.1.9 for a GUI library, as well as some Boost 1.39 libraries (regex, lexical_cast, date_time, math). I made sure I am trying to deploy the release version (not the debug version) of the application. The Runtime library in the Code Generation settings is Multi-threaded DLL (/MD). The dependency walker of myapp.exe lists the following DLLs: wsock32.dll, comctl32.dll, kernel32.dll, user32.dll, gdi32.dll, shell32.dll, ole32.dll, mvcp90.dll, msvcr90.dll. In the Setup and Deployment Project, I add the following DLLs to the File System on Target Machine: fltkdlld.dll, and a folder named Microsoft.VC90.CRT with msvcm90.dll, msvcp90.dll, mcvcr90.dll and Microsoft.VC90.CRT.manifest. The installation process on the target computers getting the error message requires having the .Net Framework 3.5 installed first. Any suggestion? Thanks in advance!

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  • How do I get my Flash CS4 buttons to direct the user to another URL?

    - by goldenfeelings
    My apologies if this has been fully addressed before, but I've read through several other threads and still can't seem to get my file to work. My actionscript code is at the bottom of this message. I created it using instructions from the Adobe website: http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ActionScript/3.0_ProgrammingAS3/WS5b3ccc516d4fbf351e63e3d118a9b90204-7fd7.html I believe I have all of my objects set to the correct type of symbol (button) and all of my instances are named appropriately (see screenshot here: www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/wp-content/themes/Footprints/images/flash_buttonissue.jpg) Action Script here. Let me know if you have suggestions! (Note: I am very new to Flash): stop (); function families(event:MouseEvent):void { var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL); } bc_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); bc_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); function families(event:MouseEvent):void { var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL); } f_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); f_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); function families(event:MouseEvent):void { var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL); } cw_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); cw_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families);

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  • Model-binding an object from the repository by several keys

    - by Anton
    Suppose the following route: {region}/{storehouse}/{controller}/{action} These two parameters region and storehouse altogether identify a single entity - a Storehouse. Thus, a bunch of controllers are being called in the context of some storehouse. And I'd like to write actions like this: public ActionResult SomeAction(Storehouse storehouse, ...) Here I can read your thoughts: "Write custom model binder, man". I do. However, the question is How to avoid magic strings within custom model binder? Here is my current code: public class StorehouseModelBinder : IModelBinder { readonly IStorehouseRepository repository; public StorehouseModelBinder(IStorehouseRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var region = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("region").AttemptedValue; var storehouse = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("storehouse").AttemptedValue; return repository.GetByKey(region, storehouse); } } If there was a single key, bindingContext.ModelName could be used... Probably, there is another way to supply all the actions with a Storehouse object, i.e. declaring it as a property of the controller and populating it in the Controller.Initialize.

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • IE "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected"

    - by Stephen Borg
    Hi there, I have problems with regards to javascript only when using IE. The error I am getting is "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" and I have no idea why. It is then jumping into the JQuery 1.4.2 file, without giving me a proper error message. All I am doing is simply reading on page load the raw URL, and getting a query string named Search. Using that in an AJAX call to return products and put then into a DIV. No biggies, but somehow IE is managing to blow my page up :-( Any ideas? Code as follows : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { $('.boxLoader').show(); function getParameterByName(name) { name = name.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regexS = "[\\?&]" + name + "=([^&#]*)"; var regex = new RegExp(regexS); var results = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (results == null) return ""; else return decodeURIComponent(results[1].replace(/\+/g, " ")); } var Search; Search = getParameterByName("search"); $('#searchCriteria').text(Search); $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: Search }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); $('#searchBox').live("click", function () { $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: $('#searchCriteria').val() }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); }); }); </script>

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  • How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

    - by sperling
    How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • jboss cache as hibernate 2nd level - cluster node doesn't persist replicated data

    - by Sergey Grashchenko
    I'm trying to build an architecture basically described in user guide http://www.jboss.org/file-access/default/members/jbosscache/freezone/docs/3.2.1.GA/userguide_en/html/cache_loaders.html#d0e3090 (Replicated caches with each cache having its own store.) but having jboss cache configured as hibernate second level cache. I've read manual for several days and played with the settings but could not achieve the result - the data in memory (jboss cache) gets replicated across the hosts, but it's not persisted in the datasource/database of the target (not original) cluster host. I had a hope that a node might become persistent at eviction, so I've got a cache listener and attached it to @NoveEvicted event. I found that though I could adjust eviction policy to fully control it, no any persistence takes place. Then I had a though that I could try to modify CacheLoader to set "passivate" to true, but I found that in my case (hibernate 2nd level cache) I don't have a way to access a loader. I wonder if replicated data persistence is possible at all by configuration tuning ? If not, will it work for me to create some manual peristence in CacheListener (I could check whether the eviction event is local, and if not - persist it to hibernate datasource somehow) ? I've used mvcc-entity configuration with the modification of cacheMode - set to REPL_ASYNC. I've also played with the eviction policy configuration. Last thing to mention is that I've tested entty persistence and replication in project that has been generated with Seam. I guess it's not important though.

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  • DuplicateKeyException in LINQ, but I've set auto increment and auto sync

    - by Fritos
    I'm getting a DuplicateKeyException error in my C# code. I've set Auto Generated = true, and Auto-Sync = OnInsert in my dbml. I'm not even touching the PK field in any manually written code (as seen below [My primary key field is actually called PK]). using (DeviceExerciseDataDataContext context = new DeviceExerciseDataDataContext()) { foreach(Data tgudData in data.Data) { tgd = new tableData(); tgd.FK = key; tgd.Time = tgudData.TimeStamp; tgd.Calories = Convert.ToInt32(tgudData.Calories); tgd.HeartRate = tgudData.AvgHr; tgd.BenchAngle = tgudData.Angle; tgd.WorkoutTarget = 0; tgd.Reps = tgudData.Reps; context.tableDatas.InsertOnSubmit(tgd); } context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code for the column in the designer (columns are named PK and FK) [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_PK", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="Int NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] public int PK { get { return this._PK; } set { if ((this._PK != value)) { this.OnPKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._PK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("PK"); this.OnPKChanged(); } } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_FK", DbType="Int")] public System.Nullable<int> FK { get { return this._FK; } set { if ((this._FK != value)) { this.OnFKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._FK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("FK"); this.OnFKChanged(); } } }

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  • PHP Commercial Project Function define

    - by Shiro
    Currently I am working with a commercial project with PHP. I think this question not really apply to PHP for all programming language, just want to discuss how your guys solve it. I work in MVC framework (CodeIgniter). all the database transaction code in model class. Previously, I seperate different search criteria with different function name. Just an example function get_student_detail_by_ID($id){} function get_student_detail_by_name($name){} as you can see the function actually can merge to one, just add a parameter for it. But something you are rushing with project, you won't look back previously got what similar function just make some changes can meet the goal. In this case, we found that there is a lot function there and hard to maintenance. Recently, we try to group the entity to one ultimate search something like this function get_ResList($is_row_count=FALSE, $record_start=0, $arr_search_criteria='', $paging_limit=20, $orderby='name', $sortdir='ASC') we try to make this function to fit all the searching criteria. However, our system getting bigger and bigger, the search criteria not more 1-2 tables. It require join with other table with different purpose. What we had done is using IF ELSE, if(bla bla bla) { $sql_join = JOIN_SOME_TABLE; $sql_where = CONDITION; } at the end, we found that very hard to maintance the function. it is very hard to debug as well. I would like to ask your opinion, what is the commercial solution they solve this kind of issue, how to define a function and how to revise it. I think this is link project management skill. Hope you willing to share with us. Thanks.

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  • unable to set fields of a collection-property elements after changing their order (elements becoming

    - by Jaroslav Záruba
    Hello I want to change order of objects in a collection, and then to access+modify fields of those items. Unfortunately the items somehow become 'deleted'. This is what I do... if(someCondition) { MainEvent mainEvent = pm.getObjectById(MainEvent.class, mainEventKey); /* * events in the original order * MainEvent.subEvents field is not in default fetch group, * therefore I also tried to add the named group into the * persistenceManeger fetch plan, no difference * (mainEvent is not instance of the Event sub/class BTW) */ List<Event> subEvents = mainEvent.getSubEvents(); // re-arrange the events according to keysOrdered { Map<Key, Event> eventMap = new HashMap<Key, Event>(); for(Event event : subEvents) eventMap.put(event.getKey(), event); List<Event> eventsOrdered = new LinkedList<Event>(); for(Key eventKey : keysOrdered) eventsOrdered.add(eventMap.put(eventKey, eventMap.get(eventKey))); // } // put the re-arranged items back into the collection property { subEvents.clear(); subEvents.addAll(eventsOrdered); // } pm.makePersistent(mainEvent); eventsOrdered = subEvents; } else eventsOrdered = getEventsUsingAlternateApproach(); /* * so by now the mainEvent variable does not exist; * could it be this lead the persistence manager to mark * my events as abandoned/obsolete/invalid/deleted...? */ for(Event event : eventsOrdered) event.setDate(new Date()); // -> "Cannot write fields to a deleted object" What am I doing wrong please?

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  • d3: Coloring Multiple Lines from Nested Data

    - by diet_coke
    I'm currently assembling some line graphs with circles at the datapoints from arrays of JSON objects formatted like so: var data = [{ "name": "metric1", "datapoints": [ [10.0, 1333519140], [48.0, 1333519200] ] }, { "name": "metric2", "datapoints": [ [48.0, 1333519200], [12.0, 1333519260] ] }] I want to have a color for each metric, so I'm trying to color them based on the index of the object within the array data. The code I have currently for just placing the circles looks like: // We bind an svg group to each metric. var metric_groups = this.vis.selectAll("g.metric_group") .data(data).enter() .append("g") .attr("class", "metric_group"); // Then bind a circle for each datapoint. var circles = metric_groups.selectAll("circle") .data(function(d) { return d.datapoints; }); circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); Now if I change that last bit to something like: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i) { return i%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } I get alternating red and blue circles, as could be expected. Taking some advice from Nested Selections : 'Nesting and Index', I tried: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i,j) { return j%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } Which doesn't work (j is undefined), presumably because we are in the named property datapoints, rather than an array element. How might I go about doing the coloring that I want without changing my data structure? Thanks!

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  • Castle, sharing a transient component between a decorator and a decorated component

    - by Marius
    Consider the following example: public interface ITask { void Execute(); } public class LoggingTaskRunner : ITask { private readonly ITask _taskToDecorate; private readonly MessageBuffer _messageBuffer; public LoggingTaskRunner(ITask taskToDecorate, MessageBuffer messageBuffer) { _taskToDecorate = taskToDecorate; _messageBuffer = messageBuffer; } public void Execute() { _taskToDecorate.Execute(); Log(_messageBuffer); } private void Log(MessageBuffer messageBuffer) {} } public class TaskRunner : ITask { public TaskRunner(MessageBuffer messageBuffer) { } public void Execute() { } } public class MessageBuffer { } public class Configuration { public void Configure() { IWindsorContainer container = null; container.Register( Component.For<MessageBuffer>() .LifeStyle.Transient); container.Register( Component.For<ITask>() .ImplementedBy<LoggingTaskRunner>() .ServiceOverrides(ServiceOverride.ForKey("taskToDecorate").Eq("task.to.decorate"))); container.Register( Component.For<ITask>() .ImplementedBy<TaskRunner>() .Named("task.to.decorate")); } } How can I make Windsor instantiate the "shared" transient component so that both "Decorator" and "Decorated" gets the same instance? Edit: since the design is being critiqued I am posting something closer to what is being done in the app. Maybe someone can suggest a better solution (if sharing the transient resource between a logger and the true task is considered a bad design)

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  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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  • Finding users whose birtday is today with JPA

    - by Jeduan Cornejo
    Hi, I have a table with users and are trying to get a list with the people who have birthday today so the app can send an email. The User is defined as @Entity public class User { @Size(max = 30) @NotNull private String name; [...] @Temporal(TemporalType.DATE) @DateTimeFormat(style = "S-") protected Date birthday; } and I've got a method which returns the people which were born today like so @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public static List<User> findUsersWithBirthday() { List<User> users = entityManager().createQuery("select u from User u where u.birthday = :date") .setParameter("date", new Date(), TemporalType.DATE) .getResultList(); return users; } This is fine and all for finding people which were born today, however tha's not really that useful, so I've been struggling for a way to find all the users that were born today, independent of the year. Using MySQL there's functions I can use like select month(curdate()) as month, dayofmonth(curdate()) as day However I've been struggling to find a JPA equivalent to that. I'm using Spring 3.0.1 and Hibernate 3.3.2

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  • Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

    - by bryan
    Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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  • Macports and virtualenv site-packages Fallback

    - by Streeter
    I've installed django and python as this link suggested with macports. However, I'd like to use virtualenv to install more packages. My understanding is that if I do not pass in the --no-site-packages to virtualenv, I should get the currently installed packages in addition to whatever packages I install into the virtual environment. Is this correct? As an example, I've installed django through macports and then create a virtual environment, but I cannot import django from within that virtual environment: [streeter@mordecai]:~$ mkvirtualenv django-test New python executable in django-test/bin/python Installing setuptools............done. ... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ pip install django-debug-toolbar Downloading/unpacking django-debug-toolbar Downloading django-debug-toolbar-0.8.4.tar.gz (80Kb): 80Kb downloaded Running setup.py egg_info for package django-debug-toolbar Installing collected packages: django-debug-toolbar Running setup.py install for django-debug-toolbar Successfully installed django-debug-toolbar Cleaning up... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Jun 24 2010, 21:47:49) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import django Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named django >>> So I can install packages into the virtual environment, but it isn't picking up the global site-packages. Or am I not doing something correctly / missing something / misunderstanding how virtualenv works? I've got Mac OS 10.6 (Snow Leopard), have updated my macports packages and am using macports' python26 (via python_select python26).

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  • How can I set the tab on a webpage depending on which page you come from in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by uriDium
    I have a rather large entity. It has a parent relationship with many different child tables. Each of the child tables I have represented as a tab (luckily it makes sense and looks nice and makes things easier to navigate). If the users wants to add a new child row, they go the particular tab, and there they see a list of rows which is owned by the parent and they can do the usual CRUD. The CRUD takes them to a new controller and action and passes the ID of the parent to the action. (This is as far as I can tell what I was meant to do, any other ideas??) When they have finsihed they click save and it takes them back to the original page BUT I want it to automatically go to the right tab. How can I do this? I am using Jquery UI tabs, ASP.Net MVC 2.0. One idea I had was to just go back to the bookmark (the href part with the #, for e.g. /Parent/Details/4/#tabname). Apparently JQuery UI tabs can handle this. Or to set the tab name as part of the query string (/Parent/Details/4?tab=name) What is the best practise here?

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  • Domain model for an optional many-many relationship

    - by Greg
    Let's say I'm modeling phone numbers. I have one entity for PhoneNumber, and one for Person. There's a link table that expresses the link (if any) between the PhoneNumber and Person. The link table also has a field for DisplayOrder. When accessing my domain model, I have several Use Cases for viewing a Person. I can look at them without any PhoneNumber information. I can look at them for a specific PhoneNumber. I can look at them and all of their current (or past) PhoneNumbers. I'm trying to model Person, not only for the standard CRUD operations, but for the (un)assignment of PhoneNumbers to a Person. I'm having trouble expressing the relationship between the two, especially with respects to the DisplayOrder property. I can think of several solutions but I'm not sure of which (if any) would be best. A PhoneNumberPerson class that has a Person and PhoneNumber property (most closely resembles database design) A PhoneCarryingPerson class that inherits from Person and has a PhoneNumber property. A PhoneNumber and/or PhoneNumbers property on Person (and vis-a-versa, a Person property on PhoneNumber) What would be a good way to model this that makes sense from a domain model perspective? How do I avoid misplaced properties (DisplayOrder on Person) or conditionally populated properties?

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  • Writing to the DataContext

    - by user738383
    I have a function. This function takes an IEnumerable<Customer> (Customer being an entity). What the function needs to do is tell the DataContext (which has a collection of Customers as a property) that its Customers property needs to be overwritten with this passed in IEnumerable<Customer>. I can't use assignment because DomainContext.Customers cannot be assigned to, as it is read only. I guess it's not clear what I'm asking, so I suppose I should say... how do I do that? So we have DataContext.Customers (of type System.Data.Linq.Table) which wants to be replaced with a System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable. I can't just assign the latter to the former because DataContext's properties are read only. But there must be a way. Edit: here's an image: Further edit: Yes, this image does not feature a collection of the type 'Customer' but rather 'Connection'. It doesn't matter though, they are both created from tables within the linked SQL database. So there is a dc.Connections, a dc.Customers, a dc.Media and so on. Thanks in advance.

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