Search Results

Search found 10904 results on 437 pages for 'named entity recognition'.

Page 387/437 | < Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >

  • jQuery.data() works in Mac OS WebKit, but not on iPhone OS?

    - by rpj
    I'm playing around with jQTouch for an iPhone OS app that I've been toying with off and on for a while. I wanted to try my hand building it as a web app so I started playing with jQTouch. For reference, here is the page+source (all my code is currently in index.html so you can just "View Source" to see it all): http://rpj.me/doughapp.com/wd/ Essentially, I'm trying to save pertinent JSON objects retrieved from Google Local into DOM objects using the data() method (in this example, obj is the Google Local object): $('#locPane').data('selected', obj); then later (in a different "pane"), retrieving that object to be used: $('#locPane').bind('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, inf) { var selobj = $(this).data('selected'); // use 'selobj' here ... } In Chromium and Safari on the desktop OS (Snow Leopard in my case), this works perfectly (try it out). However, the same code returns undefined for the call to $(this).data('selected') in the second snippet above. I've also tried $('#' + e.target.id).data('selected') and even the naive $('#locPane').data('selected'). All variants return undefined in the iPhone OS version of WebKit, but not on the desktop. Interestingly, the running this on Mobile Safari in the iPhone Simulator fails as well. If you look at the full source, you'll see that I even try to save this object into my global jQTouch object (named jqt in my code). This, too, fails on the mobile platform. Has anyone else ever ran into this? I'll admit to not being a web/javascript programmer by trade, so if I'm making an idiot's error please call me out on it. Thank you in advance for the help! -RPJ Update: I didn't make it clear in the original post, but I'm open to any workaround if it works consistently. Since I'm having trouble storing these objects in general, anything that allows me to keep them around is good enough for now. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

    Read the article

  • Define "Validation in the Model"

    - by sunwukung
    There have been a couple of discussions regarding the location of user input validation: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/659950/should-validation-be-done-in-form-objects-or-the-model http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134388/where-do-you-do-your-validation-model-controller-or-view These discussions were quite old, so I wanted to ask the question again to see if anyone had any fresh input. If not, I apologise in advance. If you come from the Validation in the Model camp - does Model mean OOP representation of data (i.e. Active Record/Data Mapper) as "Entity" (to borrow the DDD terminology) - in which case you would, I assume, want all Model classes to inherit common validation constraints. Or can these rules simply be part of a Service in the Model - i.e. a Validation service? For example, could you consider Zend_Form and it's validation classes part of the Model? The concept of a Domain Model does not appear to be limited to Entities, and so validation may not necessarily need to be confined to this Entities. It seems that you would require a lot of potentially superfluous handing of values and responses back and forth between forms and "Entities" - and in some instances you may not persist the data recieved from user input, or recieve it from user input at all.

    Read the article

  • Concrete examples of state sharing between multiple viewmodels (WPF MVVM)

    - by JohnMetta
    I have a WPF/Entity Framework (4.0) project with many objects. I'd like to build the application so that that I can have object selection state shared across viewmodels. For Example: We have Cars, Drivers, Passengers, and Cargo classes. We also have UserControls for CarList, DriverList, etc. and editor windows for CarEditor, DriverEditor, etc. Furthermore, we have viewmodels for all of these (CarListViewModel, DriverListViewModel, CargoEditorViewModel, etc). This all composes a dockable interface where the user can have multiple object lists, editors, and viewers open. What I want is a concrete code example of how to wireup multiple viewmodels so that selecting a car in the CarList will cause that car to go live in the CarEditorView, but also be selected in any other view for which the context is valid (such as a DriverByCarView- or just DriverList if there is a filter predicate). There are a number of suggestions and discussions based on this question. The two methods that seem to dominate are: 3018307: Discusses state sharing by mentioning a messaging subsystem 1159035: Discusses state sharing by using an enclosing viewmodel Is one of these approaches better than the other? Does anyone have a concrete example of either/both of these methods in the form of a write-up or small code project? I'm still learning WPF, so pointers to entry points for reading API fundamentals are appreciated, but looking at code examples is where I usually go. Thanks In case anyone is interested, here are some other similar discussions: 3816961: Discusses returning multiple viewmodels depending on object type (i.e. a collection of arbitrary types adhering to a specific interface) 1928130: Discusses whether it is a good idea to aggregate viewmodels as properties of other viewmodels (e.g. a MainWindow viewmodel composed of panel viewmodels) 1120061: Essentially discusses whether to have use a viewmodel-per-model strategy or a viewmodel-per-view-element strategy. 4244222: Discusses whether or not to nest the viewmodels when using a nested object hierarchy. 4429708: Discusses sharing collections between viewmodels directly, but doesn't go into detail. List item: Discusses managing multiple selections within a single viewmodel.

    Read the article

  • How to alter Postgres table data based on its contents?

    - by williamjones
    This is probably a super simple question, but I'm struggling to come up with the right keywords to find it on Google. I have a Postgres table that has among its contents a column of type text named content_type. That stores what type of entry is stored in that row. There are only about 5 different types, and I decided I want to change one of them to display as something else in my application (I had been directly displaying these). It struck me that it's funny that my view is being dictated by my database model, and I decided I would convert the types being stored in my database as strings into integers, and enumerate the possible types in my application with constants that convert them into their display names. That way, if I ever got the urge to change any category names again, I could just change it with one alteration of a constant. I also have the hunch that storing integers might be somewhat more efficient than storing text in the database. First, a quick threshold question of, is this a good idea? Any feedback or anything I missed? Second, and my main question, what's the Postgres command I could enter to make an alteration like this? I'm thinking I could start by renaming the old content_type column to old_content_type and then creating a new integer column content_type. However, what command would look at a row's old_content_type and fill in the new content_type column based off of that?

    Read the article

  • Cast base class object to derived class

    - by Popgalop
    Lets say I have two classes, animal and dog like this. class Animal { }; class Dog : public Animal { }; And I have an animal object named animal, that is actually an instance of dog, how would I cast it back to dog? This may seem like an odd question, but I need it because I am writing a programming language interpreter, and on the stack everything is stored as a BaseObject, and all the other datatypes extend BaseObject. How would I cast the base object from the stack, to a specific data type? I have tried something like this Dog dog = static_cast<Dog>(animal); But it gives me an error 1>------ Build started: Project: StackTests, Configuration: Debug Win32 ------ 1> StackTests.cpp 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2440: 'static_cast' : cannot convert from 'Animal' to 'Dog' 1> No constructor could take the source type, or constructor overload resolution was ambiguous 1>c:\users\owner\documents\visual studio 2012\projects\stacktests\stacktests\stacktests.cpp(173): error C2512: 'Dog' : no appropriate default constructor available ========== Build: 0 succeeded, 1 failed, 0 up-to-date, 0 skipped ==========

    Read the article

  • VBA does not run Powerpoint

    - by user1557188
    This is very frustrating, first lines of programming Powerpoint VBA after a long while .... Please help this is killing me Writing a small sub connecting to an action using name test Sub test() MSGBOX "this is a test " end sub I placed this in a module I just created and it works I copy the same test in named as a module and it does not work any more .... I'm trying to make PPT connect to events to do things on a per slide basis ..... using google.... this worked a few times ... but now nothing works any more. The simple test above fails since I renamed the module. As I further change the second routine to test1() ipv test None of the macros can be executed any more (module1 NOT CHNANGED) Module NAME..... contains the same code, except test1() ipv test. ... now all macro processing stops the color of text changes (as is clicked on it) but nothing gets obviously executed. Are things that unstable recenty in VBA for powerpoint 2010 how did I run: connect to empty slide using 3 lines test 1 test 2 test 3 on each of the lines I defined an action for each in different modules run: Go into slide show and on the first slide just click.... color changes but nothing happens any more Saved all closed restarted .... simply refuses except on first created pptm

    Read the article

  • Complex sorting on MySQL database

    - by ChrisR
    I'm facing the following situation. We've got an CMS with an entity with translations. These translations are stored in a different table with a one-to-many relationship. For example newsarticles and newsarticle_translations. The amount of available languages is dynamically determined by the same CMS. When entering a new newsarticle the editor is required to enter at least one translation, which one of the available languages he chooses is up to him. In the newsarticle overview in our CMS we would like to show a column with the (translated) article title, but since none of the languages are mandatory (one of them is mandatory but i don't know which one) i don't really know how to construct my mysql query to select a title for each newsarticle, regardless of the entered language. And to make it all a little harder, our manager asked for the possibilty to also be able to sort on title, so fetching the translations in a separate query is ruled out as far as i know. Anyone has an idea on how to solve this in the most efficient way? Here are my table schema's it it might help > desc news; +-----------------+----------------+------+-----+-------------------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------------+----------------+------+-----+-------------------+----------------+ | id | int(10) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | category_id | int(1) | YES | | NULL | | | created | timestamp | NO | | CURRENT_TIMESTAMP | | | user_id | int(10) | YES | | NULL | | +-----------------+----------------+------+-----+-------------------+----------------+ > desc news_translations; +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | enabled | tinyint(1) | NO | | 0 | | | news_id | int(1) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | | title | varchar(255) | NO | | | | | summary | text | YES | | NULL | | | body | text | NO | | NULL | | | language | varchar(2) | NO | | NULL | | +-----------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ PS: i've though about subqueries and coalesce() solutions but those seem rather dirty tricks, wondering if something better is know that i'm not thinking of?

    Read the article

  • Make a <div> disappear inside a javascript script

    - by KeenClock
    First of all, I have this line of code on a random page : <script type="text/javascript" src="script.php"></script> On the page named "script.php", I have a <div class="something">random text</div> and the random text is displayed and everything is working fine. Now, I would like to know if it's possible to make that specific <div> to disappear without having to modify the code inside the "script.php" page. Thank you ! Edit: Thank you to all of you, you helped me found a solution, here is an example : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="fr" lang="fr"><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Random page</title> <style type="text/css"> div.something { font-family: Tahoma; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: underline; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function hideSomething() { document.getElementsByClassName("something")[2].style.display = "none"; } </script> </head> <body> <div class="something">random text 1</div> <div class="something">random text 2</div> <div class="something">random text 3</div> <br /><input type="submit" value="Disappear" onclick="hideSomething()" /> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • C# expression tree for ordinary code

    - by rwallace
    It's possible to create an expression tree, if you declare it as such. But is it possible to get an expression tree for an ordinary chunk of code such as a method or property getter? What I'm trying to do is, let's say for an order processing system, I have a class for order items: class Item : Entity { [Cascade] public Document document { get; set; } public int line { get; set; } public Product product { get; set; } public string description { get; set; } public decimal qty { get; set; } public decimal price { get; set; } public decimal net { get { return qty * price; } } public VatCode vat_code { get; set; } } where the net value equals qty * price, so I'd like to declare it as such, either with a property or method, and then also have the framework introspect that expression so it can generate appropriate SQL for defining a corresponding calculated column in a corresponding database view. The most obvious way to do this would be to get the expression tree for a property getter or a method, but I can't find any indication how to do this, or that it is possible. (I have found a way to get a method body as a byte stream, but that's not what's desired here.) If that isn't possible, I suppose the recommended solution would be to declare something like a static field that is an expression tree, and compile/run it at run time for internal use, and also introspect as normal for SQL generation?

    Read the article

  • Application that depends heavily on stored procedures

    - by PieterG
    We currently have an application that depends largely on stored procedures. There is a heavy use of temp tables. It's an extremely large application. Facing this situation, I would like to use Entity Framework or Linq2Sql for a rewrite. I might consider using Fluent Hibernate or Subsonic, as i've used them quite extensively in the past. I've had problems with Linq2Sql generating the return types for the stored procedures because of the usage of the temp tables, and I think it's cumbersome to go and change all the stored procedures from temp tables to in-memory tables. Considering the 2 choices that I want to make, which one of the 2 is the best route to go and why? If my choices are extremely idiotic, please provide alternatives. Edit: The reason for the question and the change is that the data access layer is non-existent and was built 10 years ago. We currently still run into a lot of issues with it. I don't want to divulge too much, but if you saw it, your eyes would start bleeding :)

    Read the article

  • Custom UITableViewCell from xib isn't displaying properly

    - by Kenny Wyland
    I've created custom UITableCells a bunch of times and I've never run into this problem, so I'm hoping you can help me find the thing I've missed or messed up. When I run my app, the cells in my table view appear to be standard cells with Default style. I have SettingsTableCell which is a subclass of UITableViewCell. I have a SettingsTableCell.xib which contains a UITableViewCell and inside that are a couple labels and a textfield. I've set the class type in the xib to be SettingsTableCell and the File's Owner of the xib to my table controller. My SettingsTableController has an IBOutlet property named tableCell. My cellForRowAtIndexPath contains the following code to load my table view xib and assign it to my table controller's tableCell property: static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellSettings"; SettingsTableCell *cell = (SettingsTableCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"SettingsTableCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = self.tableCell; self.tableCell = nil; NSLog(@"cell=%@", cell); } This is what my xib set up looks like in IB: When I run my app, the table displays as if all of the cells are standard Default style cells though: The seriously weird part is though... if I tap on the area of the cell where the textfield SHOULD be, the keyboard does come up! The textfield isn't visible, there's no cursor or anything like that... but it does respond. The visible UILabel is obviously not the UILabel from my xib though because the label in my xib is right justified and the one showing in the app is left justified. I'm incredibly confused about how this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Two "Calendar" entries listed on iPad - can't write to calendar using EventKit

    - by Neal
    My iOS app integrates with the device's calendar. On my iPad when I view the calendar app and tap the Calendars button on the top left to choose which calendars to show I see one entry named "Calendar". In my app when I loop through available calendars per the code below "Calendar" is listed twice. One is CalDAV for the type, the other is Local. I'm unable to create calendar entries in one of them, I believe the "Local" one, not sure why. Why do I see "Calendar" listed twice when I do NOT see it listed twice in the iCal app? public static List<string> Calendars { get { var calendars = new List<string>(); var ekCalendars = EventStore.Calendars; if (ekCalendars != null && ekCalendars.Length > 0) { foreach (EKCalendar cal in ekCalendars) { if (cal.AllowsContentModifications) calendars.Add(cal.Title); } calendars.Sort(); } return calendars; } }

    Read the article

  • How can I get my business objects layer to use the management layer in their methods?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I have a solution in VS2010 with several projects, each making up a layer within my application. I have business entities which are currently objects with no methods, and I have a management layer which references the business entities layer in it's project. I now think I have designed my application poorly and would like to move methods from helper classes (which are in another layer) into methods I'll create within the business entities themselves. For example I have a VirtualMachine object, which uses a helper class to call a Reboot() method on it which passes the request to the management layer. The static manager class talks to an API that reboots the VM. I want to move the Reboot() method into the VirtualMachine object, but I will need to reference the management layer: public void Reboot() { VMManager.Reboot(this.Name); } So if I add a reference to my management project in my entities project, I get the circular dependency error, which is how it should be. How can I sort this situation out? Do I need to an yet another layer between the entity layer and the management layer? Or, should I just forget it and leave it as it is. The application works ok now, but I am concerned my design isn't particularly OOP centric and I would like to correct this.

    Read the article

  • Fast (de)serialization on iPhone

    - by Jacob Kuypers
    I'm developing a game/engine for iPhone OS. It's the first time I'm using Objective-C. I made my own binary format for geometry data and for textures I'm focusing on PVRTC. That should be the optimal approach as far as speed and space are concerned. I really want to keep loading time to a minimum and - if possible - be able to save very fast as well. So now I'm trying to make my "Entity" stuff persistent without sacrificing performance. First I wanted to use NSKeyedArchiver. From what I've heard, it's not very fast. Also, what I want to serialize is mostly structs made of floats with some ints and strings, so there isn't really a need for all that "object graph" overhead. NSArchiver would have been more appropriate, but they kicked that off the iphone for some reason. So now I'm thinking about making my own serialization scheme again. Am I wrong in thinking that NSKeyedArchiver is slow (I only read that, haven't tested it myself)? If so, what's the best way to encode/decode structs (with no pointers, mostly floats) without sacrificing speed?

    Read the article

  • Accessing vars from another clojure namespace?

    - by erikcw
    In my main namespace, I have a top level var named "settings" which is initialized as an empty {}. My -main fn sets the contents of settings using def and conj based on some command line args (different database hosts for production/development, etc). I'm trying to access the contents of this map from another namespace to pull out some of the settings. When I try to compile with lein into an uberjar, I get a traceback saying "No such var: lb/settings". What am I missing? Is there a more idiomatic way to handle app wide settings such as these? Is it safe to use "def" inside of -main like I am, or should I be use an atom or ref to make this threadsafe? Thanks! (ns main (:use ...) (:gen-class)) (def settings {}) (defn -main [& args] (with-command-line-args... ;set devel? based on args (if (true? devel?) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "127.0.0.1"} :memcached {:host "127.0.0.1"}})) (def settings (conj settings {:mongodb {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"} :memcached {:host "PRODUCTION_IP"}}))) ;file2.clj (ns some-other-namespace (:require [main :as lb] ...) ;configure MongoDB (congo/mongo! :db "dbname" :host (:host (mongodb lb/settings)))) ...

    Read the article

  • Performing centralized authorization for multiple applications

    - by Vaibhav
    Here's a question that I have been wrestling with for a while. We have a situation wherein we have a number of applications that we have created. These have grown organically over a period of time. All of these applications have permissions code built into them that controls access to various parts of the application depending on whether the currently logged in user has the necessary permissions or not. Alongside these applications is a utility application which allows an administrator to map users to permissions for all applications - the way it works is that every application has code which reads this external database of the said utility application to check if the currently logged in user has the necessary permission or not. Now, the question is this. Should the user-permissions mapping information reside in and be owned by the applications themselves, or is it okay to have this information reside within an external entity/DB (as in this case the utility application's database). Part of me thinks that application permissions are very specific to the application context itself, so shouldn't be separated from the application itself. But I am not sure. Any comments?

    Read the article

  • What are the hibernate annotations used to persist a Map with an enumerated type as a key?

    - by Jason Novak
    I am having trouble getting the right hibernate annotations to use on a Map with an enumerated class as a key. Here is a simplified (and extremely contrived) example. public class Thing { public String id; public Letter startLetter; public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } public enum Letter { A, B, C, D } Here are my current annotations on Thing @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; @Enumerated(EnumType.STRING) public Letter startLetter; @CollectionOfElements @JoinTable(name = "Thing_letterFrequencies", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "thingId")) @MapKey(columns = @Column(name = "letter", nullable = false)) @Column(name = "count") public Map<Letter,Double> letterCounts = new HashMap<Letter, Double>(); } Hibernate generates the following DDL to create the tables for my MySql database create table Thing (id varchar(255) not null, startLetter varchar(255), primary key (id)) type=InnoDB; create table Thing_letterFrequencies (thingId varchar(255) not null, count double precision, letter tinyblob not null, primary key (thingId, letter)) type=InnoDB; Notice that hibernate tries to define letter (my map key) as a tinyblob, however it defines startLetter as a varchar(255) even though both are of the enumerated type Letter. When I try to create the tables I see the following error BLOB/TEXT column 'letter' used in key specification without a key length I googled this error and it appears that MySql has issues when you try to make a tinyblob column part of a primary key, which is what hibernate needs to do with the Thing_letterFrequencies table. So I would rather have letter mapped to a varchar(255) the way startLetter is. Unfortunately, I've been fussing with the MapKey annotation for a while now and haven't been able to make this work. I've also tried @MapKeyManyToMany(targetEntity=Product.class) without success. Can anyone tell me what are the correct annotations for my letterCounts map so that hibernate will treat the letterCounts map key the same way it does startLetter?

    Read the article

  • iPhone Development - CoreData runtime error

    - by Mustafa
    I'm facing a strange CoreData issue. Here's the log: 2010-04-07 15:59:36.913 MyProject[263:207] <MyEntity: 0x180370> (entity: MyEntity; id: 0x17e890 <x-coredata://0F55C533-41BD-4F09-9CCA-0CB304CAB065/MyEntity/p380> ; data: <fault>) 2010-04-07 15:59:36.918 MyProject[263:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'The NSManagedObject with ID:0x17e890 <x-coredata://0F55C533-41BD-4F09-9CCA-0CB304CAB065/MyEntity/p380> has been invalidated.' I have a hierarchy of UITableViewControllers that use NSFetchedResultsController to populate the table, and when a particular row is selected, the detail view is shown. UITableView (MyMainEntity) UITableView (MyEntity) UITableView (MyEntity) detail view Both MyMainEntity UITableView and MyEntity UITableView use NSFetchedResultsController to show the records. Sometimes it crashes when i'm scrolling the tableView, and sometimes it crashes when i try to open the detail view. I can navigate to the MyEntity detail view multiple times before application crashes. What does this error mean? and how can i fix it!?

    Read the article

  • Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

    - by nodje
    I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

    Read the article

  • Recommendations for IPC between parent and child processes in .NET?

    - by Jeremy
    My .NET program needs to run an algorithm that makes heavy use of 3rd party libraries (32-bit), most of which are unmanaged code. I want to drive the CPU as hard as I can, so the code runs several threads in parallel to divide up the work. I find that running all these threads simultaneously results in temporary memory spikes, causing the process' virtual memory size to approach the 2 GB limit. This memory is released back pretty quickly, but occasionally if enough threads enter the wrong sections of code at once, the process crosses the "red line" and either the unmanaged code or the .NET code encounters an out of memory error. I can throttle back the number of threads but then my CPU usage is not as high as I would like. I am thinking of creating worker processes rather than worker threads to help avoid the out of memory errors, since doing so would give each thread of execution its own 2 GB of virtual address space (my box has lots of RAM). I am wondering what are the best/easiest methods to communicate the input and output between the processes in .NET? The file system is an obvious choice. I am used to shared memory, named pipes, and such from my UNIX background. Is there a Windows or .NET specific mechanism I should use?

    Read the article

  • Implementing Tagging System with PHP and mySQL. Caching help!!!

    - by Hamid Sarfraz
    With reference to this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2122546/how-to-implement-tag-counting I have implemented the suggested 3 table tagging system completely. To count the number of Articles per tag, i am using another column named tagArticleCount in the tag definition table. (other columns are tagId, tagText, tagUrl, tagArticleCount). If i implement realtime editing of this table, so that whenever user adds another tag to article or deletes an existing tag, the tag_definition_table is updated to update the counter of the added/removed tag. This will cost an extra query each time any modification is made. (at the same time, related link entry for tag and article is deleted from tagLinkTable). An alternative to this is not allowing any real time editing to the counter, instead use CRONs to update counter of each tag after a specified time period. Here comes the problem that i want to discuss. This can be seen as caching the article count in database. Can you please help me find a way to present the articles in a list when a tag is explored and when the article counter for that tag is not up to date. For example: 1. Counter shows 50 articles, but there are infact 55 entries in the tag link table (that links tags and articles). 2. Counter shows 50 articles, but there are infact 45 extries in the tag link table. How to handle these 2 scenerios given in example. I am going to use APC to keep cache of these counters. Consider it too in your solution. Also discuss performance in the realtime / CRONNED counter updates.

    Read the article

  • GET and POST on the same page?

    - by Phil
    I am creating a commenting script and I came across a problem. I am having to use $_POST and $_GET on the same page, which I don't think makes sense. I am very new to php and am training myself. I have a page named viewVerses.php - this has a lists of verses. When someone follows the reply link, echo '<br /><a href="reply.php?verseid='.$verseid.'">Reply</a>'; I'm passing the verseid (commenting on bible verses) into the reply.php, so that a query may be made with that verseid. (This is so that the user can still see the verse he/she is commenting on). Now reply.php has the form in it for posting a reply. The form goes to postReply.php This is in postReply.php $title = $_POST['title']; $body = $_POST['body']; $verseid = $_GET[verseid]; Can I get the verseid from the url and the POST the values from the form in the same page? If not, is there a way I can do this better? Remember, I am new at php and probably won't implement a solution that is super hard. I have to get it for my to put it in my site. I hope this is clear

    Read the article

  • Dealing with image upload on server

    - by user1073320
    I have got a the following problem: I have got multi-step form where in one step user upload image to server and then few steps further supplies other information, when this information is invalid no data should be commited - also the image should be deleted. I was thinking about PHP session, but I've read here PHP - Store Images in SESSION data? that it is inefficient way. Every time you proceed step in the form the image is reloaded (in the session) and as somebody mentioned "You will want it to only be as big as it needs to be and you need to delete it as soon as you don't need it because large pieces of information in the session will slow down the session startup." - here i got a question: will it slow down the stratup the session of user who upload file or sessions of all users? I have to mention that I'm looking for solution that doesn't rely on operating system scripts (cron or etc) - I have no permission to run such scripts. The perfect solution for me would be: saving image on disk (for example in some folder named after session id) then after the latest step of form move this image or delete depending on form validation. If user unexpectedly destroy the session (for example closing the browser) of course the folder with image should be deleted. In nutshell I need somethig like callback to event "destroying session".

    Read the article

  • Hibernate JPA Caching Problem, Please help!

    - by Sameer Malhotra
    Ok, Here is my problem. I have a table named Master_Info_tbl. Its a lookup table: Here is the code for the table: @Entity @Table(name="MASTER_INFO_T") public class CodeValue implements java.io.Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -3732397626260983394L; private Integer objectid; private String codetype; private String code; private String shortdesc; private String longdesc; private Integer dptid; private Integer sequen; private Timestamp begindate; private Timestamp enddate; private String username; private Timestamp rowlastchange; //getter Setter methods I have a service layer which calls the method       service.findbycodeType("Code1");   same way this table is queried for the other code types as well e.g. code2, code3 and so on till code10 which gets the result set from the same table and is shown into the drop down of the jsp pages since these drop downs are in 90% of the pages I am thinking to cache them globally. Any idea how to achieve this? FYI: I am using JPA and Hibernate with Struts2 and Spring. The database being used is DB2 UDB8.2 Please help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >