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NSFetchedResultsController on secondary UITableView - how to query data?

- by Jason

I am creating a core-data based Navigation iPhone app with multiple screens. Let's say it is a flash-card application. The data model is very simple, with only two entities: Language, and CardSet. There is a one-to-many relationship between the Language entity and the CardSet entities, so each Language may contain multiple CardSets. In other words, Language has a one-to-many relationship Language.cardSets which points to the list of CardSets, and CardSet has a relationship CardSet.language which points to the Language. There are two screens: (1) An initial TableView screen, which displays the list of languages; and (2) a secondary TableView screen, which displays the list of CardSets in the Language. In the initial screen, which lists the languages, I am using NSFetchedResultsController to keep the list of languages up-to-date. The screen passes the Language selected to the secondary screen. On the secondary screen, I am trying to figure out whether I should again use an NSFetchedResultsController to maintain the list of CardSets, or if I should work through Language.cardSets to simply pull the list out of the object model. The latter makes the most sense programatically because I already have the Language - but then it would not automatically be updated on changes. I have looked at the NSFetchedResultsController documentation, and it seems like I can easily create predicates based on attributes - but not relationships. I.e., I can create the following NSFetchedResultsController: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"name LIKE[c] 'Chuck Norris'"]; How can I access my data through the direct relationship - Language.cardSets - and also have the table auto-update using NSFetchedResultsController? Is this possible?

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How to iterate JPA collections in Google App engine

- by palto

Hi I use Google App Engine with datanucleus and JPA. I'm having a real hard time grasping how I'm supposed to read stuff from data store and pass it to JSP. If I load a list of POJOs with entitymanager and pass it to JSP, it crashes to org.datanucleus.exceptions.NucleusUserException: Object Manager has been closed. I understand why this is happening. Obviously because I fetch the list, close the entity manager and pass it to JSP, at which point it will fail because the list is lazy. How do I make the list NOT lazy without resorting to hacks like calling size() or something like that? Here is what I'm trying to do: @Override protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws ServletException, IOException { req.setAttribute("parties", getParties()); RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/parties.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); } private List<Party> getParties(){ EntityManager em = entityManagerProvider.get(); try{ Query query = em.createQuery("SELECT p FROM Party p"); return query.getResultList(); }finally{ em.close(); } }

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How do i set the Transaction Isolation in EJB?

- by Nitesh Panchal

Hello, I am not able to find a way to set TransactionIsolation in ejb. Can anybody tell me how do i set it? I am using persistence. I have looked the following classes : EntityManager , EntityManagerFactory, UserTransaction. None of them seems to have any method like setTransactionIsolation or such. Do we need to change persistence.xml? I just read a book named Mastering EJB 3.0 4th edition. They gave a full 10 page theory about Isolation level that this problems occur and that occurs and such things but at the end they gave this paragraph :- "As we now know, the EJB standard does not deal with isolation levels directly, and rightly so. EJB is a component specification. It defines the behavior and contracts of a business component with clients and middleware infrastructure (containers) such that the component can be rendered as various middleware services properly. EJBs therefore are transactional components that interact with resource managers, such as the JDBC resource manager or JMS resource manager, via JTS, as part of a transaction. They are not, hence, resource components in themselves. Since isolation levels are very specific to the behavior and capabilities of the underlying resources, they should therefore be specified at the resource API levels. " What exactly does it mean? What is meant by resource level APIs? Please help me. If persistence has no way to set Isolation Level then why do they give such huge theory in an EJB book and make it heavy in weight unnecessarily :(

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How to create custom query for CollectionOfElements

- by Shervin

Hi. I have problems creating a custom query. This is what entities: @Entity public class ApplicationProcess { @CollectionOfElements private Set<Template> defaultTemplates; //more fields } And Template.java @Embeddable @EqualsAndHashCode(exclude={"file", "selected", "used"}) public class Template implements Comparable<Template> { @Setter private ApplicationProcess applicationProcess; @Setter private Boolean used = Boolean.valueOf(false); public Template() { } @Parent public ApplicationProcess getApplicationProcess() { return applicationProcess; } @Column(nullable = false) @NotNull public String getName() { return name; } @Column(nullable = true) public Boolean isUsed() { return used; } public int compareTo(Template o) { return getName().compareTo(o.getName()); } } I want to create a update statement. I have tried these two: int v = entityManager.createQuery("update ApplicationProcess_defaultTemplates t set t.used = true " + "WHERE t.applicationProcess.id=:apId").setParameter("apId", ap.getId()) .executeUpdate(); ApplicationProcess_defaultTemplates is not mapped [update ApplicationProcess_defaultTemplates t set t.used = true WHERE t.applicationProcess.id=:apId] And I have tried int v = entityManager.createQuery("update Template t set t.used = true " + "WHERE t.applicationProcess.id=:apId").setParameter("apId", ap.getId()) .executeUpdate(); With the same error: Template is not mapped [update Template t set t.used = true WHERE t.applicationProcess.id=:apId] Any ideas? UPDATE I fixed it by creating native query int v = entityManager.createNativeQuery("update ApplicationProcess_defaultTemplates t set t.used=true where t.ApplicationProcess_id=:apId").setParameter("apId", ap.getId()).executeUpdate();

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Android Camera intent creating two files

- by Kyle Ramstad

I am making a program that takes a picture and then shows it's thumbnail. When using the emulator all goes well and the discard button deletes the photo. But on a real device the camera intent saves the image at the imageUri variable and a second one that is named like if I had just opened up the camera and took a picture by itself. private static final int CAMERA_PIC_REQUEST = 1337; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.camera); //start camera values = new ContentValues(); values.put(MediaStore.Images.Media.TITLE, "New Picture"); values.put(MediaStore.Images.Media.DESCRIPTION,"From your Camera"); imageUri = getContentResolver().insert(MediaStore.Images.Media.EXTERNAL_CONTENT_URI, values); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); Intent intent = new Intent(MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE); intent.putExtra(MediaStore.EXTRA_OUTPUT, imageUri); startActivityForResult(intent, CAMERA_PIC_REQUEST); //save the image buttons Button save = (Button) findViewById(R.id.Button01); Button close = (Button) findViewById(R.id.Button02); } @Override protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { if (requestCode == CAMERA_PIC_REQUEST && resultCode == RESULT_OK) { try{ thumbnail = MediaStore.Images.Media.getBitmap(getContentResolver(), imageUri); image.setImageBitmap(thumbnail); } catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } } else{ finish(); } } public void myClickHandler(View view) { switch (view.getId()) { case R.id.Button01: finish(); break; case R.id.Button02: dicard(); } } private void dicard(){ getContentResolver().delete(imageUri, null, null); finish(); }

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NHibernate. Initiate save collection at saving parent

- by Andrew Kalashnikov

Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at saving my entity. MApping: ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } When I save Sales object Account collection don't save at sales_users table. What should I do for saving it? Please don't advice me use classes inside List Thanks a lot.

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Truncating a string while storing it in an array in c

- by Nick

I am trying to create an array of 20 character strings with a maximum of 17 characters that are obtained from a file named "words.dat". After that the program should truncate the string only showing the first 17 characters and completely ignore the rest of that string. However My question is: I am not quite sure how to accomplish this, can anyone give me some insight on how to accomplish this task? Here is my current code as is: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #define WORDS 20 #define LENGTH 18 char function1(char[WORDS][LENGTH]); int main( void ) { char word_array [WORDS] [LENGTH]; function1(word_array); return ( 0 ) ; } char function1(char word_array[WORDS][LENGTH]) { FILE *wordsfile = fopen("words.dat", "r"); int i = 0; if (wordsfile == NULL) printf("\nwords.dat was not properly opened.\n"); else { for (i = 0; i < WORDS; i++) { fscanf(wordsfile, "%17s", word_array[i]); printf ("%s \n", word_array[i]); } fclose(wordsfile); } return (word_array[WORDS][LENGTH]); } words.dat file: Ninja DragonsFury failninja dragonsrage leagueoflegendssurfgthyjnu white black red green yellow green leagueoflegendssughjkuj dragonsfury Sword sodas tiger snakes Swords Snakes sage Sample output: blahblah@fang:~>a.out Ninja DragonsFury failninja dragonsrage leagueoflegendssu rfgthyjnu white black red green yellow green leagueoflegendssu ghjkuj dragonsfury Sword sodas tiger snakes Swords blahblah@fang:~> What will be accomplished afterwards with this program is: After function1 works properly I will then create a second function name "function2" that will look throughout the array for matching pairs of words that match "EXACTLY" including case . After I will create a third function that displays the 20 character strings from the words.dat file that I previously created and the matching words.

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Compare values in serialized column in Doctrine with Query Builder

- by ReynierPM

I'm building a FormType for a Symfony2 project but I need some Query Builder on the field since I need to compare some values with the one stored on DB and show the results. This is what I have: .... ->add('servicio', 'entity', array( 'mapped' => false, 'class' => 'ComunBundle:TipoServicio', 'property' => 'nombre', 'required' => true, 'label' => false, 'expanded' => true, 'multiple' => true, 'query_builder' => function (EntityRepository $er) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('ts') ->where('ts.tipo_usuario = (:tipo)') ->setParameter('tipo', 1); } )) .... But tipo_usuario at DB table is stored as serialized text for example: record1: value1 | a:1:{i:0;s:1:"1";} record2: value2 | a:4:{i:0;s:1:"1";i:1;s:1:"2";i:2;s:1:"3";i:3;s:1:"4";} I'll have two different forms (I don't know how to pass the Request to a form) in the first one I'll only show the first record and for the second one the first and second record for example: First form will show: checkbox: value1 Second form will show: checkbox: value1 checkbox: value2 I achieve this? Any help?

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Best practice how to store HTML in a database column

- by tbrandao

I have an application that modifies a table dynamically, think spreadsheet), then upon saving the form (which the table is part of) ,I store that changed table (with user modifications) in a database column named html_Spreadhseet,along with the rest of the form data. right now I'm just storing the html in a plain text format with basic escaping of characters... I'm aware that this could be stored as a separate file, the source table (html_workseeet) already is. But from a data handling perspective its easier to save the changed html table to and from a column so as to avoid having to come up with a file management strategy (which folder will this live in, now must include folder in backups, security issues now need to apply to files, how to sync db security with file system etc.), so to minimize these issues I'm only storing the ... part in the database column. My question is should I gzip the HTML , maybe use JSON, or some other format to easily store and retrieve the HTML from the database column, what is the best practice to store HTML content in a datbase? Or just store it as I currently am as an escaped text column?

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NHibernate.MappingException on table insertion.

- by Suja

The table structure is : The controller action to insert a row to table is public bool CreateInstnParts(string data) { IDictionary myInstnParts = DeserializeData(data); try { HSInstructionPart objInstnPartBO = new HSInstructionPart(); using (ISession session = Document.OpenSession()) { using (ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { objInstnPartBO.DocumentId = Convert.ToInt32(myInstnParts["documentId"]); objInstnPartBO.InstructionId = Convert.ToInt32(myInstnParts["instructionId"]); objInstnPartBO.PartListId = Convert.ToInt32(myInstnParts["part"]); objInstnPartBO.PartQuantity = Convert.ToInt32(myInstnParts["quantity"]); objInstnPartBO.IncPick = Convert.ToBoolean(myInstnParts["incpick"]); objInstnPartBO.IsTracked = Convert.ToBoolean(myInstnParts["istracked"]); objInstnPartBO.UpdatedBy = User.Identity.Name; objInstnPartBO.UpdatedAt = DateTime.Now; session.Save(objInstnPartBO); transaction.Commit(); } return true; } } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write(ex.Message); return false; } } This is throwing an exception NHibernate.MappingException was caught Message="No persister for: Hexsolve.Data.BusinessObjects.HSInstructionPart" Source="NHibernate" StackTrace: at NHibernate.Impl.SessionFactoryImpl.GetEntityPersister(String entityName) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.GetEntityPersister(String entityName, Object obj) at NHibernate.Event.Default.AbstractSaveEventListener.SaveWithGeneratedId(Object entity, String entityName, Object anything, IEventSource source, Boolean requiresImmediateIdAccess) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.SaveWithGeneratedOrRequestedId(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener.SaveWithGeneratedOrRequestedId(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.EntityIsTransient(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveEventListener.PerformSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.OnSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.FireSave(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.Save(Object obj) at HexsolveMVC.Controllers.InstructionController.CreateInstnParts(String data) in F:\Project\HexsolveMVC\Controllers\InstructionController.cs:line 1342 InnerException: Can anyone help me solve this??

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Protecting my apps security from deassembling

- by sandis

So I recently tested deassembling one of my android apps, and to my horror I discovered that the code was quite readable. Even worse, all my variable names where intact! I thought that those would be compressed to something unreadable at compile time. The app is triggered to expire after a certain time. However, now it was trivial for me to find my function named checkIfExpired() and find the variable "expired". Is there any good way of making it harder for a potential hacker messing with my app? Before someone states the obvious: Yes, it is security through obscurity. But obviously this is my only option since the user always will have access to all my code. This is the same for all apps. The details of my deactivation-thingy is unimportant, the point is that I dont want deassembler to understand some of the things I do. side questions: Why are the variable names not compressed? Could it be the case that my program would run faster if I stopped using really long variable names, as are my habit?

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how do I best create a set of list classes to match my business objects

- by ken-forslund

I'm a bit fuzzy on the best way to solve the problem of needing a list for each of my business objects that implements some overridden functions. Here's the setup: I have a baseObject that sets up database, and has its proper Dispose() method All my other business objects inherit from it, and if necessary, override Dispose() Some of these classes also contain arrays (lists) of other objects. So I create a class that holds a List of these. I'm aware I could just use the generic List, but that doesn't let me add extra features like Dispose() so it will loop through and clean up. So if I had objects called User, Project and Schedule, I would create UserList, ProjectList, ScheduleList. In the past, I have simply had these inherit from List< with the appropriate class named and then written the pile of common functions I wanted it to have, like Dispose(). this meant I would verify by hand, that each of these List classes had the same set of methods. Some of these classes had pretty simple versions of these methods that could have been inherited from a base list class. I could write an interface, to force me to ensure that each of my List classes has the same functions, but interfaces don't let me write common base functions that SOME of the lists might override. I had tried to write a baseObjectList that inherited from List, and then make my other Lists inherit from that, but there are issues with that (which is really why I came here). One of which was trying to use the Find() method with a predicate. I've simplified the problem down to just a discussion of Dispose() method on the list that loops through and disposes its contents, but in reality, I have several other common functions that I want all my lists to have. What's the best practice to solve this organizational matter?

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What's the best technique to protect my framework from visitors who are not logged in?

- by Hermet

First of all, I would like to say that I have used the search box looking for a similar question and was unsuccessful, maybe because of my poor english skills. I have a a 'homemade' framework. I have certain PHP files that must only be visible for the admin. The way I currently do this is check within every single page to see if a session has been opened. If not, the user gets redirected to a 404 page, to seem like the file which has been requested doesn't exist. I really don't know if this is guaranteed to work or if there's a better and more safe way because I'm currently working with kind of confidential data that should never become public. Could you give me some tips? Or leave a link where I could find some? Thank you very much, and again excuse me for kicking the dictionary. EDIT What I usually write in the top of each file is something like this <?php include("sesion.php"); $rs=comprueba(); //'check' if ($rs==1) { ?> And then, at the end <?php } ?> Is it such a butched job, isn't it? EDIT Let's say I have a customers list in a file named customers.php That file may be currently on http://www.mydomain.com/admin/customers.php and it must only be visible for the admin user. Once the admin user has been logged in, I create a session variable. That variable is what I check on the top of each page, and if it exists, the customers list is shown. If not, the user gets redirected to the 404 page. Thank you for your patience. I really appreciate.

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FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

- by alex

Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

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Table not created by Hibernate

- by User1

I annotated a bunch of POJO's so JPA can use them to create tables in Hibernate. It appears that all of the tables are created except one very central table called "Revision". The Revision class has an @Entity(name="RevisionT") annotation so it will be renamed to RevisionT so there is not a conflict with any reserved words in MySQL (the target database). I delete the entire database, recreate it and basically open and close a JPA session. All the tables seem to get recreated without a problem. Why would a single table be missing from the created schema? What instrumentation can be used to see what Hibernate is producing and which errors? Thanks. UPDATE: I tried to create as a Derby DB and it was successful. However, one of the fields has a a name of "index". I use @org.hibernate.annotations.IndexColumn to specify the name to something other than a reserved word. However, the column is always called "index" when it is created. Here's a sample of the suspect annotations. @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="MasterTopID") @IndexColumn(name="Cx3tHApe") protected MasterTop masterTop; Instead of creating MasterTop.Cx3tHApe as a field, it creates MasterTop.Index. Why is the name ignored?

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What is the difference between .get() and .fetch(1)

- by AutomatedTester

I have written an app and part of it is uses a URL parser to get certain data in a ReST type manner. So if you put /foo/bar as the path it will find all the bar items and if you put /foo it will return all items below foo So my app has a query like data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).get() Which works brilliantly. Now I want to send this to the UI using templates {% for datum in data %} <div class="content"> <h2>{{ datum.title }}</h2> {{ datum.content }} </div> {% endfor %} When I do this I get data is not iterable error. So I updated the Django to {% for datum in data.all %} which now appears to pull more data than I was giving it somehow. It shows all data in the datastore which is not ideal. So I removed the .all from the Django and changed the datastore query to data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).fetch(1) which now works as I intended. In the documentation it says The db.get() function fetches an entity from the datastore for a Key (or list of Keys). So my question is why can I iterate over a query when it returns with fetch() but can't with get(). Where has my understanding gone wrong?

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C# "Rename" Property in Derived Class

- by Eric

When you read this you'll be awfully tempted to give advice like "this is a bad idea for the following reason..." Bear with me. I know there are other ways to approach this. This question should be considered trivia. Lets say you have a class "Transaction" that has properties common to all transactions such as Invoice, Purchase Order, and Sales Receipt. Let's take the simple example of Transaction "Amount", which is the most important monetary amount for a given transaction. public class Transaction { public double Amount { get; set; } public TxnTypeEnum TransactionType { get; set; } } This Amount may have a more specific name in a derived type... at least in the real world. For example, the following values are all actually the same thing: Transaction - Amount Invoice - Subtotal PurchaseOrder - Total Sales Receipt - Amount So now I want a derived class "Invoice" that has a Subtotal rather than the generically-named Amount. Ideally both of the following would be true: In an instance of Transaction, the Amount property would be visible. In an instance of Invoice, the Amount property would be hidden, but the Subtotal property would refer to it internally. Invoice looks like this: public class Invoice : Transaction { new private double? Amount { get { return base.Amount; } set { base.Amount = value; } } // This property should hide the generic property "Amount" on Transaction public double? SubTotal { get { return Amount; } set { Amount = value; } } public double RemainingBalance { get; set; } } But of course Transaction.Amount is still visible on any instance of Invoice. Thanks for taking a look!

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MySQL query against pseudo-key-value pair data in WordPress custom query

- by andrevr

I'm writing a custom WordPress query to use some of the data which the Woothemes Diarise theme creates. Diarise is an event planner theme with calendar blah, blah... and uses custom fields to store the event start and end dates in WP custom fields in the *wp_postmeta* table, which implements a key-value store. So for each post in the "event" category, there are 2 records in *wp_postmeta*, named *event_start_date* and *event_end_date* that I'm interested in. The task is to compare a tourist's arrival and departure dates with the start and end dates of events, yielding a what's on list of events available. We thought we'd killed it with a grand flash of logic, that goes like this: Disregard any event that ends before the tourist arrives, and any that begin after the departure date. I wrote this query: SELECT wposts.* FROM wp_posts wposts LEFT JOIN wp_postmeta wpostmeta ON wposts.ID = wpostmeta.post_id LEFT JOIN wp_term_relationships ON (wposts.ID = wp_term_relationships.object_id) LEFT JOIN wp_term_taxonomy ON (wp_term_relationships.term_taxonomy_id = wp_term_taxonomy.term_taxonomy_id) WHERE wp_term_taxonomy.taxonomy = 'category' AND wp_term_taxonomy.term_id IN(3,4) AND ( wpostmeta.meta_key = 'event_start_date' AND NOT ( concat(subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,7,4),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,4,2),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,1,2) > '2010-07-31' ) ) AND ( wpostmeta.meta_key = 'event_end_date' AND NOT ( concat(subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,7,4),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,4,2),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,1,2) < '2010-05-01' ) ) ) ORDER BY wpostmeta.meta_value ASC And, of course it returns no records. The problem I believe is in the dual reference to wpostmeta.meta_key, but how to get around that?

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Linq to SQL - Failing to update

- by Isaac

Hello, I'm having some troubles with updating linq to sql entities. For some reason, I can update every single field of my item entity besides name. Here are two simple tests I wrote: [TestMethod] public void TestUpdateName( ) { using ( var context = new SimoneDataContext( ) ) { Item item = context.Items.First( ); if ( item != null ) { item.Name = "My New Name"; context.SubmitChanges( ); } } } [TestMethod] public void TestUpdateMPN( ) { using ( var context = new SimoneDataContext( ) ) { Item item = context.Items.First( ); if ( item != null ) { item.MPN = "My New MPN"; context.SubmitChanges( ); } } } Unfortunately, TestUpdateName() fails with the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'.. And here's the outputted SQL: UPDATE [dbo].[Items] SET WHERE ([Id] = @p0) AND ([CategoryId] = @p1) AND ([MPN] = @p2) AND ([Height] = @p3) AND ([Width] = @p4) AND ([Weight] = @p5) AND ([Length] = @p6) AND ([AdministrativeCost] = @p7) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- @p1: Input Int (Size = 0; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- @p2: Input VarChar (Size = 10; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [My New MPN] -- @p3: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [30.000] -- @p4: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [10.000] -- @p5: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [40.000] -- @p6: Input Decimal (Size = 0; Prec = 5; Scale = 3) [30.000] -- @p7: Input Money (Size = 0; Prec = 19; Scale = 4) [350.0000] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 3.5.30729.4926 As you can see, no update is being generated (SET is empty ...) I have no clue why is this happening. And already in advance ... YES, the table Item has a PK (Id). Thank you in advance!

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Can I make an identity field span multiple tables in SQL Server?

- by johnnycakes

Can I have an "identity" (unique, non-repeating) column span multiple tables? For example, let's say I have two tables: Books and Authors. Authors AuthorID AuthorName Books BookID BookTitle The BookID column and the AuthorID column are identity columns. I want the identity part to span both columns. So, if there is an AuthorID with a value of 123, then there cannot be a BookID with a value of 123. And vice versa. I hope that makes sense. Is this possible? Thanks. Why do I want to do this? I am writing an APS.NET MVC app. I am creating a comment section. Authors can have comments. Books can have comments. I want to be able to pass an entity ID (a book ID or an author ID) to an action and have the action pull up all the corresponding comments. The action won't care if it's a book or an author or whatever. Sound reasonable?

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Integrated Windows authentication in IIS causing ADO.NET failure

- by TrueWill

We have a .NET 3.5 Web Service running under IIS. It must use identity impersonate="true" and Integrated Windows authentication in order to authenticate to third-party software. In addition, it connects to a SQL Server database using ADO.NET and SQL Server Authentication (specifying a fixed User ID and Password in the connection string). Everything worked fine until the database was moved to another SQL Server. Then the Web Service would throw the following exception: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) This error only occurs if identity impersonate is true in the Web.config. Again, the connection string hasn't changed and it specifies the user. I have tested the connection string and it works, both under the impersonated account and under the service account (and from both the remote machine and the server). What needs to be changed to get this to work with impersonation?

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Toggle image based on cookie value

- by danit

Im using a couple of JS functions to set a cookie named 'visible' with the value of either yes or no. Essentially Im using these values to decide if a <div> is visible or hidden. I've only just added the cookie, previously I had been using two images 1. Show 2. Hide as a button to hide and show the <div> like this: HTML: <img class="show" title="Show" alt="Show" src="images/show.png" /> <img class="hide" title="Hide" alt="Hide" src="images/hide.png" /> JQUERY: $("#tool").click(function() { $(".help").slideToggle(); $("#wrapper").animate({ opacity: 1.0 },200).slideToggle(200, function() { $("#tool img").toggle(); }); }); However I have now added the Cookie into the mix: $("#tool").click(function() { if(get_cookie('visible')== null) { set_cookie('visible','no'); } else { delete_cookie('visible'); } $(".help").slideToggle(); $("#wrapper").animate({ opacity: 1.0 },200).slideToggle(200, function() { $("#slider img").toggle(); }); }); So the .toggle() no longer matches the state of the <div> When the cookie value = no the show.png should be visible When the cookie value = yes then the hide.png should be visible Can anyone suggest how i can ammend this?

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How can I get git to work with a remote server?

- by Adrienne

I am the CM person for a small company that just started using Git. We have two Git repositories currently hosted on a Windows box that is our all-purpose Windows server. But, we just set up a dedicated server for our CM software on an Ubuntu Linux server named "Callisto". So I created a test Git repository on Callisto. I gave its directory all of the proper permissions recursively. I had the sysadmin create a login for me on Callisto, and I created a key to use for logging in via SSH. I set up my key to use a passphrase; I don't know if that could be contributing to my problems? Anyway, I know my SSH login works because I tested it through puTTY. But, even after hours of trials and head scratching, I can't get my Windows Git bash (mSysGit) to talk to Callisto for the purposes of pushing or pulling Callisto's git repository files. I keep getting "Fatal error. The remote end hung up unexpectedly." And I've even gotten the error that Git doesn't recognize the test repository on Callisto as a git repository. I read online that the "Fatal error...hung up unexpectedly" is usually a problem with the server connection or permissions. So what am I missing or overlooking here? And why doesn't a pull using the git:// protocol work, since that only uses read-only access? Group and public permissions for the git repository's directory on Callisto are set to read and execute, but not write. If anyone could help, I would be so grateful. Thank you.

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Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

- by MainMa

Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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Strategies for dealing with Circular references caused by JPA relationships?

- by ams

I am trying to partition my application into modules by features packaged into separate jars such as feature-a.jar, feature-b.jar, ... etc. Individual feature jars such as feature-a.jar should contain all the code for a feature a including jpa entities, business logic, rest apis, unit tests, integration test ... etc. The problem I am running into is that bi-directional relationships between JPA entities cause circular references between the jar files. For example Customer entity should be in customer.jar and the Order should be in order.jar but Customer references order and order references customer making it hard to split them into separate jars / eclipse projects. Options I see for dealing with the circular dependencies in JPA entities: Option 1: Put all the entities into one jar / one project Option 2: Don't map certain bi-directianl relationships to avoid circular dependencies across projects. Questions: What rules / principles have you used to decide when to do bi-directional mapping vs. not? Have you been able to break jpa entities into their own projects / jar by features if so how did you avoid the circular dependencies issues?

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