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• How do I stop cpan from reconfiguring each time? + More

  - by Leonard

  I'm running on a Mac (version 10.6.3) and am struggling to understand what is going on with my Perl installation. I let the system do a copy from my previous mac, and I appear to have a second perl installed, which appears earlier in my path. I can't tell (or remember) if I might have installed it with fink, macports or CPAN or what. type -a cpan cpan is /opt/local/bin/cpan cpan is /usr/bin/cpan I'm seeing two oddities. (To start with!) When I run cpan, and let it configure in ~lcuff/.cpan, each time I run it, it wants to reconfigure, giving the message: Sorry, we have to rerun the configuration dialog for CPAN.pm due to some missing parameters... Also, when I try to install File::Find::Rule (so I can list my CPAN modules, per the FAQ) I end up with an error message that I can't decipher or Google a solution for: Use of inherited AUTOLOAD for non-method Digest::SHA::shaopen() is deprecated at /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/Digest/SHA.pm line 55. Catching error: "Can't locate auto/Digest/SHA/shaopen.al in \@INC (\@INC contains: /sw/lib/perl5 /sw/lib/perl5/darwin /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9 /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.9 /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl /opt/local/lib/perl5/5.8.9/darwin-2level /opt/local/lib/perl5/5.8.9 /Users/lcuff) at /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/Digest/SHA.pm line 55\cJ" at /opt/local/lib/perl5/5.8.9/CPAN.pm line 359 CPAN::shell() called at /opt/local/bin/cpan line 198

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• Repeated properties design pattern

  - by Mark

  I have a DownloadManager class that manages multiple DownloadItem objects. Each DownloadItem has events like ProgressChanged and DownloadCompleted. Usually you want to use the same event handler for all download items, so it's a bit annoying to have to set the event handlers over and over again for each DownloadItem. Thus, I need to decide which pattern to use: Use one DownloadItem as a template and clone it as necessary var dm = DownloadManager(); var di = DownloadItem(); di.ProgressChanged += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(di_ProgressChanged); di.DownloadCompleted += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(di_DownloadCompleted); DownloadItem newDi; newDi = di.Clone(); newDi.Uri = "http://google.com"; dm.Enqueue(newDi); newDi = di.Clone(); newDi.Uri = "http://yahoo.com"; dm.Enqueue(newDi); Set the event handlers on the DownloadManager instead and have it copy the events over to each DownloadItem that is enqeued. var dm = DownloadManager(); dm.ProgressChanged += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(di_ProgressChanged); dm.DownloadCompleted += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(di_DownloadCompleted); dm.Enqueue(new DownloadItem("http://google.com")); dm.Enqueue(new DownloadItem("http://yahoo.com")); Or use some kind of factory var dm = DownloadManager(); var dif = DownloadItemFactory(); dif.ProgressChanged += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(di_ProgressChanged); dif.DownloadCompleted += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(di_DownloadCompleted); dm.Enqueue(dif.Create("http://google.com")); dm.Enqueue(dif.Create("http://yahoo.com")); What would you recommend?

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• Understanding evaluation of expressions containing '++' and '->' operators in C.

  - by Leif Ericson

  Consider this example: struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ++ps->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 1 */ It prints 1. So I understand that it is because according to operators precedence, -> is higher than ++, so the value ps->num (which is 0) is firstly fetched and then the ++ operator operates on it, so it increments it to 1. struct { int num; } s, *ps; s.num = 0; ps = &s; ps++->num; printf("%d", s.num); /* Prints 0 */ In this example I get 0 and I don't understand why; the explanation of the first example should be the same for this example. But it seems that this expression is evaluated as follows: At first, the operator ++ operates, and it operates on ps, so it increments it to the next struct. Only then -> operates and it does nothing because it just fetches the num field of the next struct and does nothing with it. But it contradicts the precedence of operators, which says that -> have higher precedence than ++. Can someone explain this behavior? Edit: After reading two answers which refer to a C++ precedence tables which indicate that a prefix ++/-- operators have lower precedence than ->, I did some googling and came up with this link that states that this rule applies also to C itself. It fits exactly and fully explains this behavior, but I must add that the table in this link contradicts a table in my own copy of K&R ANSI C. So if you have suggestions as to which source is correct I would like to know. Thanks.

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• Handling Incoming Mail to Multiple Recipients in PHP

  - by Navarr

  Alright, this may take a moment or two to explain: I'm working on creating an Email<SMS Bridge (like Teleflip). I have a few set parameters to work in: Dreamhost Webhosting PHP 5 (without PEAR) Postfix What I have right now, is a catch-all email address that forwards the email sent to a shell account. The shell account in turn forwards it to my PHP script. The PHP script reads it, strips a few Email Headers in an effort to make sure it sends properly, then forwards it to the number specified as the recipient. [email protected] of course sends an SMS to +1 (555) 123-4567. This works really well, as I am parsing the To field and grabbing just the email address it is sending to. However, what I realized that I did not account for is multiple recipients. For example, an email sent to both 5551234567 and 1235554567 (using the To line, the CC line, or any combination of those). The way email works of course, is I get two emails received, end up parsing each of them separately, and 5551234567 ends up getting the same message twice. What is the best way to handle this situation, so that each number specified in TO and CC can get one copy of the message. In addition, though I doubt its possible: Is there a way to handle BCC the same way?

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• Strange behaviour using Drag and Drop in word 2003 automation in headers

  - by Oliver Hanappi

  Hi! I am developing a template based addin for Word 2003 which allows the user to drag and drop elements from a listbox into the word document. Unfortunately I'm getting a really strange behaviour when trying to drop elements in the document's header. Open the template and type something in the header Close the header and insert some content on the page Add a page break. Switch to page layout mode where and set zoom level to "Two Pages" Open the header Slowly Drag and Drop an list item from the list box to the header. See multiple Page Setups dialogs occur which cause Word to crash. Here is my code: // in ThisDocument.cs public MyUserControl _control; public void Init() { _control = new MyUserControl(); ActionsPane.Controls.Add(_control); ActionsPane.Visible = true; } // in MyUserControl.cs public void listBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { DoDragDrop("something", DragDropEffects.Copy); } Have I done somethinkg wrong with implementing Drag and Drop? Is there a workaround for this strange behaviour? Thanks in advance, Oliver Hanappi

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• Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

  - by dcp

  This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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• sql exception when transferring project from usb to c:\

  - by jello

  I'm working on a C# windows program with Visual Studio 2008. Usually, I work from school, directly on my usb drive. But when I copy the folder on my hard drive at home, an sql exception is unhandled whenever I try to write to the database. it is unhandled at the conn.Open(); line. here's the exception unhandled Database 'L:\system\project\the_project\the_project\bin\Debug\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf' already exists. Choose a different database name. Cannot attach the file 'C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\My Documents\system\project\the_project\the_project\bin\Debug\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf' as database 'PatientMonitoringDatabase'. it's weird, because my connection string says |DataDirectory|, so it should work on any drive... here's my connection string: string connStr = "Data Source=.\\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf; " + "Initial Catalog=PatientMonitoringDatabase; " + "Integrated Security=True"; Someone told me to: Connect to localhost with SQL Server Management Studio Express, and remove/detach the existing PatientMonitoringDatabase database. Whether it's a persistent database or only active within a running application, you can't have 2 databases with the same name at the same time attached to a SQL Server instance. So I did that, and now it gives me: Directory lookup for the file "C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\My Documents\system\project\the_project\the_project\bin\Debug\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf" failed with the operating system error 5(Access is denied.). Cannot attach the file 'C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\My Documents\system\project\the_project\the_project\bin\Debug\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf' as database 'PatientMonitoringDatabase' I checked the files' properties, and I have allow for everyone. Does anyone know what's going on here?

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• Most efficient way to send images across processes

  - by Heinrich Ulbricht

  Goal Pass images generated by one process efficiently and at very high speed to another process. The two processes run on the same machine and on the same desktop. The operating system may be WinXP, Vista and Win7. Detailled description The first process is solely for controlling the communication with a device which produces the images. These images are about 500x300px in size and may be updated up to several hundred times per second. The second process needs these images to display them. The first process uses a third party API to paint the images from the device to a HDC. This HDC has to be provided by me. Note: There is already a connection open between the two processes. They are communicating via anonymous pipes and share memory mapped file views. Thoughts How would I achieve this goal with as little work as possible? And I mean both work for me and the computer. I am using Delphi, so maybe there is some component available for doing this? I think I could always paint to any image component's HDC, save the content to memory stream, copy the contents via the memory mapped file, unpack it on the other side and paint it there to the destination HDC. I also read about a IPicture interface which can be used to marshall images. What are your ideas? I appreciate every thought on this!

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• Modify Executing Jar file

  - by pinkynobrain

  Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

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• ASP.NET OleDbConnection Problem

  - by Matt

  I'm working on an ASP.NET website where I am using an asp:repeater with paging done through a VB.NET code-behind file. I'm having trouble with the database connection though. As far as I can tell, the paging is working, but I can't get the data to be certain. The database is a Microsoft Access database. The function that should be accessing the database is: Dim pagedData As New PagedDataSource Sub Page_Load(ByVal obj As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) doPaging() End Sub Function getTheData() As DataTable Dim DS As New DataSet() Dim strConnect As New OleDbConnection("Provider = Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=App_Data/ArtDatabase.mdb") Dim objOleDBAdapter As New OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT ArtID, FileLocation, Title, UserName, ArtDate FROM Art ORDER BY Art.ArtDate DESC", strConnect) objOleDBAdapter.Fill(DS, "Art") Return DS.Tables("Art").Copy End Function Sub doPaging() pagedData.DataSource = getTheData().DefaultView pagedData.AllowPaging = True pagedData.PageSize = 2 Try pagedData.CurrentPageIndex = Int32.Parse(Request.QueryString("Page")).ToString() Catch ex As Exception pagedData.CurrentPageIndex = 0 End Try btnPrev.Visible = (Not pagedData.IsFirstPage) btnNext.Visible = (Not pagedData.IsLastPage) pageNumber.Text = (pagedData.CurrentPageIndex + 1) & " of " & pagedData.PageCount ArtRepeater.DataSource = pagedData ArtRepeater.DataBind() End Sub The ASP.NET is: <asp:Repeater ID="ArtRepeater" runat="server"> <HeaderTemplate> <h2>Items in Selected Category:</h2> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <asp:HyperLink runat="server" ID="HyperLink" NavigateUrl='<%# Eval("ArtID", "ArtPiece.aspx?ArtID={0}") %>'> <img src="<%# Eval("FileLocation") %>" alt="<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Title") %>t"/> <br /> <%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Title") %> </asp:HyperLink> </li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

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• How do I extract a postcode from one column in SSIS using regular expression

  - by Aphillippe

  I'm trying to use a custom regex clean transformation (information found here ) to extract a post code from a mixed address column (Address3) and move it to a new column (Post Code) Example of incoming data: Address3: "London W12 9LZ" Incoming data could be any combination of place names with a post code at the start, middle or end (or not at all). Desired outcome: Address3: "London" Post Code: "W12 9LZ" Essentially, in plain english, "move (not copy) any post code found from address3 into Post Code". My regex skills aren't brilliant but I've managed to get as far as extracting the post code and getting it into its own column using the following regex, matching from Address3 and replacing into Post Code: Match Expression: (?<stringOUT>([A-PR-UWYZa-pr-uwyz]([0-9]{1,2}|([A-HK-Ya-hk-y][0-9]|[A-HK-Ya-hk-y][0-9] ([0-9]|[ABEHMNPRV-Yabehmnprv-y]))|[0-9][A-HJKS-UWa-hjks-uw])\ {0,1}[0-9][ABD-HJLNP-UW-Zabd-hjlnp-uw-z]{2}|([Gg][Ii][Rr]\ 0[Aa][Aa])|([Ss][Aa][Nn]\ {0,1}[Tt][Aa]1)|([Bb][Ff][Pp][Oo]\ {0,1}([Cc]\/[Oo]\ )?[0-9]{1,4})|(([Aa][Ss][Cc][Nn]|[Bb][Bb][Nn][Dd]|[BFSbfs][Ii][Qq][Qq]|[Pp][Cc][Rr][Nn]|[Ss][Tt][Hh][Ll]|[Tt][Dd][Cc][Uu]|[Tt][Kk][Cc][Aa])\ {0,1}1[Zz][Zz]))) Replace Expression: ${stringOUT} So this leaves me with: Address3: "London W12 9LZ" Post Code: "W12 9LZ" My next thought is to keep the above match/replace, then add another to match anything that doesn't match the above regex. I think it might be a negative lookahead but I can't seem to make it work. I'm using SSIS 2008 R2 and I think the regex clean transformation uses .net regex implementation. Thanks.

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• Browser security when calling HTTP assets via a SWF on a HTTPS site

  - by Mark Ursino

  We have a site that runs on HTTPS and needs to pull in various JS assets to run a video player on the page. We get a browser security warning on this page because the JS files we are externally calling are being accessed via HTTP, not HTTPS. E.g. // HTTP reference on a HTTPS site <script src="http://the-cdn.tld/player.js"></script> Simply accessing this one JS assets via HTTP and not HTTPS will cause the browser security warning which we need to get rid of. The provider of the JS file does not support an HTTPS equivalent (like Google Analytics does). We would ideally love to just do the following, but the provider does not have this: // HTTPS reference on a HTTPS site <script src="https://the-cdn.tld/player.js"></script> One option we had was to just download a copy of the JS file and serve it on the HTTPS site, however we have concerns with this as it is not recommended by the provider and will not include updates from them. Assuming we cannot do that, we were thinking a possible other option would be to use a SWF file as a proxy. We were thinking that we could have one of our flash guys create a SWF that loads in the HTTP-served JS file to the page. We were wondering that if this SWF makes the request, would that prevent the browser from showing the security warning or not? I assumed that we would still see the warning since the SWF is still making the request through the browser, but I wanted to see what the hive mind thinks.

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• Logout exception flooding elmah

  - by durilai

  I am using ASP.NET membership, and in particular a copy of the membership code included in the MVC project. I am also using elmah to log exceptions. I am getting flooded with the following when people sign out. System.Web.HttpException: Server cannot set status after HTTP headers have been sent. Here is the stack trace sent System.Web.HttpException: Server cannot set status after HTTP headers have been sent. at System.Web.HttpResponse.set_StatusCode(Int32 value) at System.Web.HttpResponseWrapper.set_StatusCode(Int32 value) at System.Web.Mvc.HandleErrorAttribute.OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeExceptionFilters(ControllerContext controllerContext, IList`1 filters, Exception exception) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeAction(ControllerContext controllerContext, String actionName) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.System.Web.Mvc.IController.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.<>c__DisplayClass8.<BeginProcessRequest>b__4() at System.Web.Mvc.Async.AsyncResultWrapper.<>c__DisplayClass1.<MakeVoidDelegate>b__0() at System.Web.Mvc.Async.AsyncResultWrapper.<>c__DisplayClass8`1.<BeginSynchronous>b__7(IAsyncResult _) at System.Web.Mvc.Async.AsyncResultWrapper.WrappedAsyncResult`1.End() at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.EndProcessRequest(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpAsyncHandler.EndProcessRequest(IAsyncResult result) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) I cannot seem to find any reason for this. It is not causing an issue for end users, but would still like to resolve/learn about it. Thanks for any help or guidance.

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• svn import, dont modify revision OR modify the list of files in a transaction

  - by Vaughan Durno

  Hi Ive gained so much knowledge/insight from this site in the past few years, now im actually hoping to get some enlightenment. The scenario is as follows: You have the general structure of the repo (trunk,branches,tags) but added to the layout you have another directory called 'db_revs'. Now in the pre-commit, you take a dump of a specific database (the specifics are irrelevant) into a temporary file, say /tmp/REV.sql (REV being the HEAD revision number of the repo, or the transaction). K all is well and you can just import that temp file into the repo at /db_revs/REV.sql Now obviously that import, even tho its happening during a commit, increments the revision of the repo. So when u do a commit at some point to say 'test.php' in the trunk and it completes at say revision 159, then the pre-commit runs as it should and the DB dump gets imported but then u r sitting with a tree in the repo-browser where 'trunk' is at revision 159, and 'db_revs', which has the imported dump, is at 158 (Ive made it so that the filename matches the revision ie: 159.sql but that file is then at revision 158). NB If you're doing an import in a pre-commit, you need to add some logic to not perform the import, say by checking first for the existence of the temp file, otherwise it will cause, um, a stack overflow and your PC will quickly crawl to a stand still So I wanted to know if it was possible to make an import to not commit its changes. I realise I might be barking up the wrong tree to begin with so I have another idea of doing this so that brings me to the 2nd part of my question, would it be possible to modify the list of files that the transaction is about to commit to the repo. I know this can be done to a WC but that wont help as a WC is a checked out copy of say the trunk so im not sure how u would add a file to the 'db_revs' folder which is above trunk? Any help is greatly appreciated Cheers Vaughan

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• Design pattern to use instead of multiple inheritance

  - by mizipzor

  Coming from a C++ background, Im used to multiple inheritance. I like the feeling of a shotgun squarely aimed at my foot. Nowadays, I work more in C# and Java, where you can only inherit one baseclass but implement any number of interfaces (did I get the terminology right?). For example, lets consider two classes that implement a common interface but different (yet required) baseclasses: public class TypeA : CustomButtonUserControl, IMagician { public void DoMagic() { // ... } } public class TypeB : CustomTextUserControl, IMagician { public void DoMagic() { // ... } } Both classes are UserControls so I cant substitute the base class. Both needs to implement the DoMagic function. My problem now is that both implementations of the function are identical. And I hate copy-and-paste code. The (possible) solutions: I naturally want TypeA and TypeB to share a common baseclass, where I can write that identical function definition just once. However, due to having the limit of just one baseclass, I cant find a place along the hierarchy where it fits. One could also try to implement a sort of composite pattern. Putting the DoMagic function in a separate helper class, but the function here needs (and modifies) quite a lot of internal variables/fields. Sending them all as (reference) parameters would just look bad. My gut tells me that the adapter pattern could have a place here, some class to convert between the two when necessery. But it also feels hacky. I tagged this with language-agnostic since it applies to all languages that use this one-baseclass-many-interfaces approach. Also, please point out if I seem to have misunderstood any of the patterns I named. In C++ I would just make a class with the private fields, that function implementation and put it in the inheritance list. Whats the proper approach in C#/Java and the like?

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• Is there a Standard or Best Practice for Perl Progams, as opposed to Perl Modules?

  - by swestrup

  I've written any number of perl modules in the past, and more than a few stand-alone perl programs, but I've never released a multi-file perl program into the wild before. I have a perl program that is almost at the beta stage and is going to be released open source. It requires a number of data files, as well as some external perl modules -- some I've written myself, and some from CPAN -- that I'll have to bundle with it so as to ensure that someone can just download my program and install it without worrying about hunting for obscure modules. So, it sounds to me like I need to write an installer to copy all the files to standard locations so that a user can easily install everything. The trouble is, I have no idea what the standard practice would be for this. I have found lots of tutorials on perl module standards, but none on perl program standards. Does anyone have any pointers to standard paths, installation proceedures, etc, for perl programs? This is going to be complicated by the fact that the program is multi-platform. I've been testing it in Linux, but its designed to work equally well in Windows.

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• How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

  - by emzero

  Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

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• Dynamically load Jquery into .js page

  - by RussP

  Please excuse me if I'm simple here, I want to create a simple widget that people can access from their websites - e.g by copy/past something like <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> <div id="test"></div> anywhere in their web pages. where is dynamically filled via Jquery and the functions in/on test2.js. I can do it if JQuery is actually "printed" on the page of test2.js, but I cannot get any JQuery functions to work if I try to include/call JQuery dynamically. How do you call JQuery via javascript and then get it to work with the functions on the page? And/Or is there an easy way to add the <div id="test"></div> dynamically aswell? Sure I can body.append etc. but that only adds at the bottom of the page. Is there a way to .append in the position where the script include <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> is actually placed? Hope I make sence.

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• iTextSharp last version doesnot support metadata?

  - by zp chen

  Console.WriteLine("Chapter 1 example 6: Meta Information"); // step 1: creation of a document-object Document document = new Document(); try { // step 2: // we create a writer that listens to the document // and directs a PDF-stream to a file PdfWriter.GetInstance(document, new FileStream("Chap0106.pdf", FileMode.Create)); // step 3: we add some metadata and open the document document.AddTitle("Hello World example"); document.AddSubject("This example explains step 6 in Chapter 1"); document.AddKeywords("Metadata, iText, step 6, tutorial"); document.AddCreator("My program using iText#"); document.AddAuthor("Bruno Lowagie"); document.AddHeader("Expires", "0"); document.Open(); // step 4: we add a paragraph to the document document.Add(new Paragraph("Hello World")); } catch (DocumentException de) { Console.Error.WriteLine(de.Message); } catch (IOException ioe) { Console.Error.WriteLine(ioe.Message); } // step 5: we close the document document.Close(); I am just copy the iTextSharp.tutorial. I get the pdf file Chap0106.pdf but metadata show nothing... I am use vs2008 xp system

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• Iterating through controls on a Windows Form

  - by icemanind

  I seem to have some weird issue going on that I am sure will turn out to be a simple thing. I have a Windows Form and on the form I have 1 panel called MainPanel and inside MainPanel, I got another panel with a button inside and a label that is inside MainPanel, but not in the second panel. 2 controls. What I am trying to do is copy all the controls inside MainPanel over to another panel object. I am using the following C# code to do this: GUIPanel gp = new GUIPanel(); foreach (System.Windows.Forms.Control ctrl in gp.Controls["MainPanel"].Controls) { m_OptionsControl.Controls.Add(ctrl); } When I run this code, it copies over the panel with the button, but not the label. What's even more odd is when I set a breakpoint and run it through the debugger, and I type "?gp.Controls["MainPanel"].Controls.Count" in the immediate window, it returns 2, just like it should. However, when stepping through the code, it only executes the foreach loop once. What am I missing here?

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• Simple HTML problem with href

  - by pallab

  I am trying to create images hyperlinked to some URL's and hyperlinks donot seem to work. I am using the code as given below at http://windchimes.co.in/index_w%20-%20Copy.html Can you tell me why the hyperlinks to the icons are not workking? <td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;><a href="http://windchimes.co.in/blog" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="blog" alt="blog" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-blog.gif"></a></td><td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;> <a href="http://www.linkedin.com/groups?gid=120310" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="linkedin" alt="linkedin" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-linkedin.gif"></a></td><td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;> <a href="http://www.facebook.com/group.php?gid=72425590275" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="facebook" alt="facebook" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-facebook.gif"></a></td><td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;> <a href="http://twitter.com/windchimesindia" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="twitter" alt="twitter" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-twitter.gif"></a></td><td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;> <a href="http://www.youtube.com/user/Windchimesindia" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="Youtube" alt="Youtube" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-youtube.gif"></a><td>

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• Open Source: Why not release into Public Domain?

  - by Goosey

  I have recently been wondering why so little code is ever released as 'Public Domain'. MIT and BSD licenses are becoming extremely popular and practically only have the restriction of license propagation. The reasons I can think of so far are: Credit - aka Prestige, Street-cred, 'Props', etc. Authors don't want usage of the code restricted, but they also want credit for creating the code. Two problems with this reason. I have seen projects copy/paste the MIT or BSD license without adding the 'Copyright InsertNameHere' thereby making it a tag-along license that doesn't give them credit. I have talked to authors who say they don't care about people giving them credit, they just want people to use their code. Public Domain would make it easier for people to do so. License Change - IANAL, but I believe by licensing their code, even with an extremely nonrestrictive license, this means they can change the license on a later revision? This reason is not good for explaining most BSD/MIT licensed code which seems to have no intent of ever becoming more restrictive. AS IS - All licenses seem to have the SCREAMING CAPS declaration saying that the software is 'as is' and that the author offers no implied or express warranty. IANAL, but isn't this implied in public domain? Am I missing some compelling reason? The authors I have talked to about this basically said something along the lines of "BSD/MIT just seems like what you do, no one does public domain". Is this groupthink in action, or is there a compelling anti-public domain argument? Thanks EDIT: I am specifically asking about Public Domain vs BSD/MIT/OtherEquallyUnrestrictiveLicense. Not GPL. Please understand what these licenses allow, and this includes: Selling the work, changing the work and not 'giving the changes back', and incorporating the work in a differently (such as commercially) licensed work. Thank You to everyone who has replied who understands what BSD/MIT means.

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• Command not write in buffer with Expect

  - by Romuald

  Hello, I try to backup a Linkproof device with expect script and i have some trouble. It's my first script in expect and i have reach my limits ;) #!/usr/bin/expect spawn ssh @IPADDRESS expect "username:" # Send the username, and then wait for a password prompt. send "@username\r" expect "password:" # Send the password, and then wait for a shell prompt. send "@password\r" expect "#" # Send the prebuilt command, and then wait for another shell prompt. send "system config immediate\r" #Send space to pass the pause expect -re "^ *--More--\[^\n\r]*" send "" expect -re "^ *--More--\[^\n\r]*" send "" expect -re "^ *--More--\[^\n\r]*" send "" # Capture the results of the command into a variable. This can be displayed, or written to disk. sleep 10 expect -re .* set results $expect_out(buffer) # Copy buffer in a file set config [open linkproof.txt w] puts $config $results close $config # Exit the session. expect "#" send "logout\r" expect eof The content of the output file: The authenticity of host '@IP (XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX)' can't be established. RSA key fingerprint is XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX. Are you sure you want to continue connecting (yes/no)? @username Please type 'yes' or 'no': @password Please type 'yes' or 'no': system config immediate Please type 'yes' or 'no': Like you can see, the result of the command is not in the file. Could you, please, help me to understantd why ? Thanks for your help. Romuald

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• Access problems with System.Diagnostics.Process in webservice

  - by Martin

  Hello everyone. I have problems with executing a process in a webservice method on a Windows Server 2003 machine. Here is the code: Dim target As String = "C:\dnscmd.exe" Dim fileInfo As System.IO.FileInfo = New System.IO.FileInfo(target) If Not fileInfo.Exists Then Throw New System.IO.FileNotFoundException("The requested file was not found: " + fileInfo.FullName) End If Dim startinfo As New System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo("C:\dnscmd.exe") startinfo.UseShellExecute = False startinfo.Arguments = "\\MYCOMPUTER /recordadd mydomain.no " & dnsname & " CNAME myhost.mydomain.no" startinfo.UserName = "user1" Dim password As New SecureString() For Each c As Char In "secretpassword".ToCharArray() password.AppendChar(c) Next startinfo.Password = password Process.Start(startinfo) I know the process is being executed because i use processmonitor.exe on the server and it tells me that c:\dnscmd.exe is called with the right parameters Full command line value from procmon is: "C:\dnscmd.exe" \MYCOMPUTER /recordadd mydomain.no mysubdomain CNAME myhost.mydomain.no The user of the created process on the server is NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM. BUT, the dns entry will not be added! Here is the weird thing: I KNOW the user (user1) I authenticate with has administrative rights (it's the same user I use to log on the machine with), but the user of the process in procmon says NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM (which is not the user i use to authenticate). Weirdest: If i log on to the server, copy the command line value read from the procmon logging, and paste it in a command line window, it works! Reading procmon after this shows that user1 owns the dnscmd process. Why doesn't user1 become owner of the process started with system.diagnostics.process? Is the reason why the command doesn't work?

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• .NET Sockets Buffer Overflow No Error

  - by Michael Covelli

  I have one thread that is receiving data over a socket like this: while (sock.Connected) { // Receive Data (Block if no data) recvn = sock.Receive(recvb, 0, rlen, SocketFlags.None, out serr); if (recvn <= 0 || sock == null || !sock.Connected) { OnError("Error In Receive, recvn <= 0 || sock == null || !sock.Connected"); return; } else if (serr != SocketError.Success) { OnError("Error In Receive, serr = " + serr); return; } // Copy Data Into Tokenizer tknz.Read(recvb, recvn); // Parse Data while (tknz.MoveToNext()) { try { ParseMessageAndRaiseEvents(tknz.Buffer(), tknz.Length); } catch (System.Exception ex) { string BadMessage = ByteArrayToStringClean(tknz.Buffer(), tknz.Length); string msg = string.Format("Exception in MDWrapper Parsing Message, Ex = {0}, Msg = {1}", ex.Message, BadMessage); OnError(msg); } } } And I kept seeing occasional errors in my parsing function indicating that the message wasn't valid. At first, I thought that my tokenizer class was broken. But after logging all the incoming bytes to the tokenizer, it turns out that the raw bytes in recvb weren't a valid message. I didn't think that corrupted data like this was possible with a tcp data stream. I figured it had to be some type of buffer overflow so I set sock.ReceiveBufferSize = 1024 * 1024 * 8; and the parsing error never, ever occurs in testing (it happens often enough to replicate if I don't change the ReceiveBufferSize). But my question is: why wasn't I seeing an exception or an error state or something if the socket's internal buffer was overflowing before I changed this buffer size?

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