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  • why does cx_oracle execute() not like my string now?

    - by Frank Stallone
    I've downloaded cx_oracle some time ago and wrote a script to convert data to XML. I've had to reisntall my OS and grabbed the latest version of cx_Oracle (5.0.3) and all of the sudden my code is broken. The first thing was that cx_Oracle.connect wanted unicode rather string for the username and password, that was very easy to fix. But now it keeps failing on the cursor.execute and tells me my string is not a string even when type() tells me it is a string. Here is a test script I initally used ages ago and worked fine on my old version but does not work on cx_Oracle now. import cx_Oracle ip = 'url.to.oracle' port = 1521 SID = 'mysid' dsn_tns = cx_Oracle.makedsn(ip, port, SID) connection = cx_Oracle.connect(u'name', u'pass', dsn_tns) cursor = connection.cursor() cursor.arraysize = 50 sql = "select isbn, title_code from core_isbn where rownum<=20" print type(sql) cursor.execute(sql) for isbn, title_code in cursor.fetchall(): print "Values from DB:", isbn, title_code cursor.close() connection.close() When I run that I get: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\NetBeansProjects\Python\src\db_temp.py", line 48, in cursor.execute(sql) TypeError: expecting None or a string Does anyone know what I may be doing wrong?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Form repopulation

    - by ListenToRick
    I have a controller with two actions: [AcceptVerbs("GET")] public ActionResult Add() { PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(); } [AcceptVerbs("POST")] public ActionResult Add([GigBinderAttribute]Gig gig, FormCollection formCollection) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid) { GigManager.Save(gig); return RedirectToAction("Index", gig.ID); } PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(gig); } As you can see, when the form posts its data, the Add action uses a GigBinder (An implemenation of IModelBinder) In this binder I have: if (int.TryParse(bindingContext.HttpContext.Request.Form["StartDate.Hour"], out hour)) { gig.StartDate.Hour = hour; } else { bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Doors", "You need to tell us when the doors open"); } The form contains a text box with id "StartDate.Hour". As you can see above, the GigBinder tests to see that the user has typed in an integer into the textbox with id "StartDate.Hour". If not, a model error is added to the modelstate using AddModelError. Since the gigs property gigs.StartDate.Hour is strongly typed, I cannot set its value to, for example, "TEST" if the user has typed this into the forms textbox. Hence, I cant set the value of gigs.StartDate.Hour since the user has entered a string rather than an integer. Since the Add Action returns the view and passes the model (return View(gig);) if the modelstate is invalid, when the form is re-displayed with validation mssages, the value "TEST" is not displayed in the textbox. Instead, it will be the default value of gig.StartDate.Hour. How do I get round this problem? I really stuck!

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  • Passing javascript object to webservice via Jquery ajax

    - by kralco626
    I have a webservice that returns an object [WebMethod] public List<User> ContractorApprovals() I also have a webservice that accepcts an object [WebMethod] public bool SaveContractor(Object u) When I make my webservice calls via Jquery: function ServiceCall(method, parameters, onSucess, onFailure) { var parms = "{" + (($.isArray(parameters)) ? parameters.join(',') : parameters) + "}"; // to json $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "services/"+method, data: parms, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { if (typeof onSucess == 'function' || typeof onSucess == 'object') onSucess(msg.d); }, error: function(msg, err) { $("#dialog-error").dialog('open');} }); I can call the first one just fine. My onSucess function gets passed a javascript object exactly structured like my User object on the service. However, I am now having trouble getting the object back to the server. I'm accepting Object as a parameter on the server side so I can't inagine there is an issue there. So I'm thinking something is wrong with the parms on the client side but i'm not sure what... I am doing something to the effect ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/ContractorApprovals", "", function(data,args){$("#div").data('user',data[0])}, null) then ServiceCall("AuthorizationManagerWorkManagement.asmx/SaveContractor", $("#div").data('user'), //These also do not work: "{'u': ' + $("#div").data("user") + '}", NOR JSON.stringify({u: userObject}) function(data,args){(alert(data)}, null) I know the first service call works, I can get the data. The second one is causing the "onFailure" method to execute rather then "OnSuccess". Any ideas?

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  • When should we use Views, Temporary Tables and Direct Queries ? What are the Performance issues in a

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I want to know the performance of using Views, Temp Tables and Direct Queries Usage in a Stored Procedure. I have a table that gets created every time when a trigger gets fired. I know this trigger will be fired very rare and only once at the time of setup. Now I have to use that created table from triggers at many places for fetching data and I confirms it that no one make any changes in that table. i.e ReadOnly Table. I have to use this tables data along with multiple tables to join and fetch result for further queries say select * from triggertable By Using temp table select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on select a,b, c from #tx --do something select d,e,f from #tx ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. By Using Views create view viewname ( select ... from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on ) select a,b, c from viewname --do something select d,e,f from viewname ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. This View can be used in other places as well. So I will be creating at database rather than at sp By Using Direct Query select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something . . --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. Now I can create a view/temporary table/ directly query usage in all upcoming queries. What would be the best to use in this case.

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  • Explanation of `self` usage during dealloc?

    - by Greg
    I'm trying to lock down my understanding of proper memory management within Objective-C. I've gotten into the habit of explicitly declaring self.myProperty rather than just myProperty because I was encountering occasional scenarios where a property would not be set to the reference that I intended. Now, I'm reading Apple documentation on releasing IBOutlets, and they say that all outlets should be set to nil during dealloc. So, I put this in place as follows and experienced crashes as a result: - (void)dealloc { [self.dataModel close]; [self.dataModel release], self.dataModel = nil; [super dealloc]; } So, I tried taking out the "self" references, like so: - (void)dealloc { [dataModel close]; [dataModel release], dataModel = nil; [super dealloc]; } This second system seems to work as expected. However, it has me a bit confused. Why would self cause a crash in that case, when I thought self was a fairly benign reference more used as a formality than anything else? Also, if self is not appropriate in this case, then I have to ask: when should you include self references, and when should you not?

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  • Location of Embedly (JQuery-Preview) Results

    - by user749798
    Embedly/Jquery-Preview has been fantastic. However, I'm trying to change the location of the preview result, and having trouble. Right now, the result appears right below the input field...but I'd rather have it in a separate part of the page. Is there a way to do this? I've tried changing the location of the selector and loading divs, but that hasn't helped. It seems to ignore those divs and put it right below the submit button. Below is my code: <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="private" class="new_comment" data-remote="true" id="new_comment" method="post"> <input class="photo_comm" id="comment_comment" name="comment[comment]" placeholder="add a comment or link..." size="30" type="text" /><span type="text" id="counter">1000</span> <input class="btn btn-primary btn-mini" data-disable-with="Submitting..." name="commit" type="submit" value="Post" /> </form> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the loading icon--> <div class="loading"> <img src='http://embedly.github.com/jquery-preview/images/loading-rectangle.gif'> </div> <!-- Placeholder that tells Preview where to put the selector--> <div class="selector"></div> $('#comment_comment').preview({ key:'60f1dcdf3258476794784148a6eb65e7', // Sign up for a key: http://embed.ly/pricing selector : {type:'rich'}, preview : { submit : function(e, data){ e.preventDefault(); $.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: this.form.attr('action'), type: 'POST', data: data }); }, }, autoplay : 0, maxwidth : 400, display : {display : 'rich'} });

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  • Forcing user to new page in php. (PHP newbie)

    - by JohnC
    Hello I'm a newbie web programmer. My background is writing Windows applications with sql. I'm putting together my 1st data entry screens in Php. I have a search form that links to a form that displays records in a grid. On each row of the grid I have a delete url to allow the user to remove a record. This links to a form delete.php (which calls the sql to remove the record). Ideally I would like to automatically take the user back to the search form rather than forcing the user to click on a link to do so. I have used ob_start with the header to do this elsewhere but cannot get it to work on this page. Is there another way to do it? (Using php 5 as part of LAMP) file delete.php <?php $id = $_GET['recordID']; //ob_start(); require_once('connections/local.php'); mysql_select_db($database_local, $local); mysql_query("DELETE FROM user_access WHERE id = {$id}") or die(mysql_error()); echo("Record ".$id." deleted"); echo("<br>"); //header("location:http://localhost/search7.htm); //ob_flush(); echo("<a href=\"http://localhost/search7.htm\">Search for Members</a>"); ?>

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  • Best practices for withstanding launch day traffic burst

    - by Sam McAfee
    We are working on a website for a client that (for once) is expected to get a fair amount of traffic on day one. There are press releases, people are blogging about it, etc. I am a little concerned that we're going to fall flat on our face on day one. What are the main things you would look at to ensure (in advance without real traffic data) that you can stay standing after a big launch. Details: This is a L/A/M/PHP stack, using an internally developed MVC framework. This is currently being launched on one server, with Apache and MySQL both on it, but we can break that up if need be. We are already installing memcached and doing as much PHP-level caching as we can think of. Some of the pages are rather query intensive, and we are using Smarty as our template engine. Keep in mind there is no time to change any of these major aspects--this is the just the setup. What sorts of things should we watch out for?

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  • Design pattern to integrate Rails with a Comet server

    - by empire29
    I have a Ruby on Rails (2.3.5) application and an APE (Ajax Push Engine) server. When records are created within the Rails application, i need to push the new record out on applicable channels to the APE server. Records can be created in the rails app by the traditional path through the controller's create action, or it can be created by several event machines that are constantly monitoring various inputstream and creating records when they see data that meets a certain criteria. It seems to me that the best/right place to put the code that pushes the data out to the APE server (which in turn pushes it out to the clients) is in the Model's after_create hook (since not all record creations will flow through the controller's create action). The final caveat is I want to push a piece of formatted HTML out to the APE server (rather than a JSON representation of the data). The reason I want to do this is 1) I already have logic to produce the desired layout in existing partials 2) I don't want to create a javascript implementation of the partials (javascript that takes a JSON object and creates all the HTML around it for presentation). This would quickly become a maintenance nightmare. The problem with this is it would require "rendering" partials from within the Model (which im having trouble doing anyhow because they don't seem to have access to Helpers when they're rendered in this manner). Anyhow - Just wondering what the right way to go about organizing all of this is. Thanks

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  • Using group_by with fields_for and accepts_nested_attributes_for

    - by Derek
    I have a the following rails models: class Release < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :release_questionnaires, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :release_questionnaires ... end class class ReleaseQuestionnaire < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :release belongs_to :milestone ... end class In my view code, I have the following form. <% form_for @release, ... do |f| %> ... <table class="questionnaires"> <% f.fields_for :release_questionnaires, @release.release_questionnaires.sort_by{|ra| ra.questionnaire.name} do |builder| %> ... <% end %> </table> <% end %> This works and allows me to view and edit the questionnaires as desired. However, I have an additional requirement to break the questionnaires out into their own tables grouped by the milestone they are associated to, rather than in a single table. It appears as though the group_by method is design to accomplish this, but I cannot get it to work as desired inside the tag. It may be that I'm missing something obvious, as I am a beginner... Any help is appreciated.

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  • JQuery AJAX returned too much data that I had not requested

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am using CakePHP 1.26 and CDN JQuery in this URL: http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js In a HTML web page, I have these lines of code: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://mywebsite.com/controllers/avail/"+curl, success: function(data) { alert(data);} }); and in the PHP page, I got another few lines of code: function avail($uname){ $result1=$this->Site1->User->findByusername($uname); if($result1){ return 1; } else{ return 0; } } As you see, the Avail function will return either zero or one. But there was some redundant data returned from the server, what I saw in the Alert box was somthing like this (rather than 0 or 1): <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Missing Method in Controller</title> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> <style type="text/css"> /* CSS Document */ /*PAGE LAYOUT*/ 0

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  • targeting sprites from a method in the document class - null object reference

    - by Freddyk
    Hi I am trying to code a flash app entirely in the document class. I am using GestureWorks with a touch screen. When a user essentially presses a button it calls a method that should hide a specific graphic but not the graphic they touched. Essentially I need a way to refer to a graphic on the screen using a method besides 'e.target'. //This code works because it can access 'e.target'. private function photo1SpriteFlickHandler(e:GestureEvent):void { var openTween:Tween = new Tween(e.target, "x", Strong.easeOut, 232, 970, 5, true); } //this code gives me a null object reference because I am using 'photo1Sprite' rather than 'e.target' private function photo1SpriteFlickHandler(e:GestureEvent):void { var openTween:Tween = new Tween(photo1Sprite, "x", Strong.easeOut, 232, 970, 5, true); } //photo1Sprite has already been programatically added to the screen as so: var photo1Sprite = new TouchSprite(); var photo1Loader=new Loader(); photo1Loader.load(new URLRequest("media/photos1/photo1.jpg")); photo1Loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,loaderComplete); photo1Sprite.x = 232; photo1Sprite.y = 538; photo1Sprite.scaleX = .3; photo1Sprite.scaleY = .3; photo1Sprite.blobContainerEnabled = true; photo1Sprite.addEventListener(TouchEvent.TOUCH_DOWN, startDrag_Press); photo1Sprite.addEventListener(TouchEvent.TOUCH_UP, stopDrag_Release); photo1Sprite.addChild(photo1Loader); addChild(photo1Sprite); So I can make photo1Sprite react if my method is attached to it directly using 'e.target' but not if I am trying to call it from a method that was called from another element on the screen.

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  • A problem regarding dll inheritance

    - by Adam
    Hello all I have created a dll that will be used by multiple applications, and have created an installer package that installs it to the program files, as well as adds it to the Global Assembly Cache. The dll itself uses log4net, and requires a xml file for the logging definitions. Therefore when the installer is run, the following files get copied to the install directory within program files: The main dll that I developed - The Log4Net.dll - the Log4Net.xml file I am now experiencing a problem. I have created a test console application for experimentation. I have added my dll as a reference, and set the 'local copy' flag to false. When I compile the test console exe however, I noticed that it has copied the log4net.dll and log4net.xml files to the bin directory. And when running the test console, it appears that it will only work if the log4net.dll is in the same directory as the exe. This is dispite the fact that the test console application does not use log4net, only the dll that was added as a reference does. Is there some way to have it so that the log4net.dll & xml files used will be the ones that were installed to the program files, rather than any application needed to copy over local copies? The applications that will be using my dll will not be using log4net, only the dll that they are referencing uses it. Many thanks

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  • Handling close-to-impossible collisions on should-be-unique values

    - by balpha
    There are many systems that depend on the uniqueness of some particular value. Anything that uses GUIDs comes to mind (eg. the Windows registry or other databases), but also things that create a hash from an object to identify it and thus need this hash to be unique. A hash table usually doesn't mind if two objects have the same hash because the hashing is just used to break down the objects into categories, so that on lookup, not all objects in the table, but only those objects in the same category (bucket) have to be compared for identity to the searched object. Other implementations however (seem to) depend on the uniqueness. My example (that's what lead me to asking this) is Mercurial's revision IDs. An entry on the Mercurial mailing list correctly states The odds of the changeset hash colliding by accident in your first billion commits is basically zero. But we will notice if it happens. And you'll get to be famous as the guy who broke SHA1 by accident. But even the tiniest probability doesn't mean impossible. Now, I don't want an explanation of why it's totally okay to rely on the uniqueness (this has been discussed here for example). This is very clear to me. Rather, I'd like to know (maybe by means of examples from your own work): Are there any best practices as to covering these improbable cases anyway? Should they be ignored, because it's more likely that particularly strong solar winds lead to faulty hard disk reads? Should they at least be tested for, if only to fail with a "I give up, you have done the impossible" message to the user? Or should even these cases get handled gracefully? For me, especially the following are interesting, although they are somewhat touchy-feely: If you don't handle these cases, what do you do against gut feelings that don't listen to probabilities? If you do handle them, how do you justify this work (to yourself and others), considering there are more probable cases you don't handle, like a supernonva?

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  • Javascript Getting Objects to Fallback to One Another

    - by Ian
    Here's a ugly bit of Javascript it would be nice to find a workaround. Javascript has no classes, and that is a good thing. But it implements fallback between objects in a rather ugly way. The foundational construct should be to have one object that, when a property fails to be found, it falls back to another object. So if we want a to fall back to b we would want to do something like: a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; a.__fallback__ = b; then a.dock == 2; But, Javascript instead provides a new operator and prototypes. So we do the far less elegant: function A(sun) { this.sun = sun; }; A.prototype.dock = 2; a = new A(1); a.dock == 2; But aside from elegance, this is also strictly less powerful, because it means that anything created with A gets the same fallback object. What I would like to do is liberate Javascript from this artificial limitation and have the ability to give any individual object any other individual object as its fallback. That way I could keep the current behavior when it makes sense, but use object-level inheritance when that makes sense. My initial approach is to create a dummy constructor function: function setFallback(from_obj, to_obj) { from_obj.constructor = function () {}; from_obj.constructor.prototype = to_obj; } a = {sun:1}; b = {dock:2}; setFallback(a, b); But unfortunately: a.dock == undefined; Any ideas why this doesn't work, or any solutions for an implementation of setFallback? (I'm running on V8, via node.js, in case this is platform dependent)

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  • Specifying different initial values for fields in inherited models (django)

    - by Shawn Chin
    Question : What is the recommended way to specify an initial value for fields if one uses model inheritance and each child model needs to have different default values when rendering a ModelForm? Take for example the following models where CompileCommand and TestCommand both need different initial values when rendered as ModelForm. # ------ models.py class ShellCommand(models.Model): command = models.Charfield(_("command"), max_length=100) arguments = models.Charfield(_("arguments"), max_length=100) class CompileCommand(ShellCommand): # ... default command should be "make" class TestCommand(ShellCommand): # ... default: command = "make", arguments = "test" I am aware that one can used the initial={...} argument when instantiating the form, however I would rather store the initial values within the context of the model (or at least within the associated ModelForm). My current approach What I'm doing at the moment is storing an initial value dict within Meta, and checking for it in my views. # ----- forms.py class CompileCommandForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = CompileCommand initial_values = {"command":"make"} class TestCommandForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = TestCommand initial_values = {"command":"make", "arguments":"test"} # ------ in views FORM_LOOKUP = { "compile": CompileCommandFomr, "test": TestCommandForm } CmdForm = FORM_LOOKUP.get(command_type, None) # ... initial = getattr(CmdForm, "initial_values", {}) form = CmdForm(initial=initial) This feels too much like a hack. I am eager for a more generic / better way to achieve this. Suggestions appreciated. Other attempts I have toyed around with overriding the constructor for the submodels: class CompileCommand(ShellCommand): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): kwargs.setdefault('command', "make") super(CompileCommand, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) and this works when I try to create an object from the shell: >>> c = CompileCommand(name="xyz") >>> c.save() <CompileCommand: 123> >>> c.command 'make' However, this does not set the default value when the associated ModelForm is rendered, which unfortunately is what I'm trying to achieve. Update 2 (looks promising) I now have the following in forms.py which allow me to set Meta.default_initial_values without needing extra code in views. class ModelFormWithDefaults(forms.ModelForm): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): if hasattr(self.Meta, "default_initial_values"): kwargs.setdefault("initial", self.Meta.default_initial_values) super(ModelFormWithDefaults, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) class TestCommandForm(ModelFormWithDefaults): class Meta: model = TestCommand default_initial_values = {"command":"make", "arguments":"test"}

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  • Fatal error with Custom Magento Module on one server but not the other

    - by Jack
    Hi, I am creating my own custom module in Magento and during testing on a Litespeed server (PHP v5.2.14) I am getting a Fatal Error: Call to a member function batch() on a non-object in ../../../BatchController.php on line 25 that was not appearing during testing on another linux server and a wamp server (PHP v5.2.11). This one has stumped me. I am guessing it has something to do with the server configuration rather than the code itself. But i am just guessing. I was hoping someone here could tell me. The only real major difference I could see, aside from the php versions and environment, is that the server that the error is on is using the Suhosin Patch. But would that be something that could cause this? The line in question is Mage::getModel('mymodule/mymodel')->batch(); which is enclosed in an IF statement. batch() is a public function located in my model file. If you need more code let me know. Thanks!

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  • How to send a future email using AT command.

    - by BHare
    I just need to send one email into the future, so I figured i'd be best at using at rather than using cron. This is what I have so far, its messy and ugly and not that great at escaping: <pre> <?php $out = array(); // Where is the email going? $email = "[email protected]"; // What is the body of the email (make sure to escape any double-quotes) $body = "This is what is actually emailed to me"; $body = escapeshellcmd($body); $body = str_replace('!', '\!', $body); // What is the subject of the email (make sure to escape any double-quotes) $subject = "It's alive!"; $subject = escapeshellcmd($subject); $subject = str_replace('!', '\!', $subject); // How long from now should this email be sent? IE: 1 minute, 32 days, 1 month 2 days. $when = "1 minute"; $command= <<<END echo " echo \"$body\" > /tmp/email; mail -s \"$subject\" $email < /tmp/email; rm /tmp/email; " | at now + $when; END; $ret = exec($command, $out); print_r($out); ?> </pre> The output should be something like warning: commands will be executed using /bin/sh job 60 at Thu Dec 30 19:39:00 2010 However I am doing something wrong with exec and not getting the result? The main thing is this seem very messy. Is there any alternative better methods for doing this? PS: I had to add apache's user (www-data for me) to /etc/at.allow ...Which I don't like, but I can live with it.

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  • HTTP POST with URL query parameters -- good idea or not?

    - by Steven Huwig
    I'm designing an API to go over HTTP and I am wondering if using the HTTP POST command, but with URL query parameters only and no request body, is a good way to go. Considerations: "Good Web design" requires non-idempotent actions to be sent via POST. This is a non-idempotent action. It is easier to develop and debug this app when the request parameters are present in the URL. The API is not intended for widespread use. It seems like making a POST request with no body will take a bit more work, e.g. a Content-Length: 0 header must be explicitly added. It also seems to me that a POST with no body is a bit counter to most developer's and HTTP frameworks' expectations. Are there any more pitfalls or advantages to sending parameters on a POST request via the URL query rather than the request body? Edit: The reason this is under consideration is that the operations are not idempotent and have side effects other than retrieval. See the HTTP spec: In particular, the convention has been established that the GET and HEAD methods SHOULD NOT have the significance of taking an action other than retrieval. These methods ought to be considered "safe". This allows user agents to represent other methods, such as POST, PUT and DELETE, in a special way, so that the user is made aware of the fact that a possibly unsafe action is being requested. ... Methods can also have the property of "idempotence" in that (aside from error or expiration issues) the side-effects of N 0 identical requests is the same as for a single request. The methods GET, HEAD, PUT and DELETE share this property. Also, the methods OPTIONS and TRACE SHOULD NOT have side effects, and so are inherently idempotent.

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  • MSMQ - Message Queue Abstraction and Pattern

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    Hi All, Let me define the problem first and why a messagequeue has been chosen. I have a datalayer that will be transactional and EXTREMELY insert heavy and rather then attempt to deal with these issues when they occur I am hoping to implement my application from the ground up with this in mind. I have decided to tackle this problem by using the Microsoft Message Queue and perform inserts as time permits asynchronously. However I quickly ran into a problem. Certain inserts that I perform may need to be recalled (ie: retrieved) immediately (imagine this is for POS system and what happens if you need to recall the last transaction - one that still hasn’t been inserted). The way I decided to tackle this problem is by abstracting the MessageQueue and combining it in my data access layer thereby creating the illusion of a single set of data being returned to the user of the datalayer (I have considered the other issues that occur in such a scenario (ie: essentially dirty reads and such) and have concluded for my purposes I can control these issues). However this is where things get a little nasty... I’ve worked out how to get the messages back and such (trivial enough problem) but where I am stuck is; how do I create a generic (or at least somewhat generic) way of querying my message queue? One where I can minimize the duplication between the SQL queries and MessageQueue queries. I have considered using LINQ (but have very limited understanding of the technology) and have also attempted an implementation with Predicates which so far is pretty smelly. Are there any patterns for such a problem that I can utilize? Am I going about this the wrong way? Does anyone have an of their own ideas about how I can tackle this problem? Does anyone even understand what I am talking about? :-) Any and ALL input would be highly appreciated and seriously considered… Thanks again.

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  • Jtable live updating problem

    - by Fishinastorm
    Hi all, I'm trying to display a jtable in a pop up Jframe and am running into some problems. What i'am trying to do is as follows: catch a button action event in the main frame and display a pop up frame with a jtable populated with some data. The problem i have is that the jtable is populated with metadata i receive from a website and if i'm receiving many records, then the jtable is not displayed until all the records(metadata) is received from the website. I would like to change it such that as soon as the button event is detected in the main frame, I display the pop up frame along with the jtable and insert/update rows "as and when i receive the data from the website". In another words, i want to display the table and have the records appearing one at a time rather than displaying the jtable only after i receive all records.Below is how i'm trying to do it (but in vain :( ): ......... //add the table to the popup frame when application is started, but don't display the frame `until button action is //detected` extraInfoFrame.add(tblMetadata); extraInfoFrame.setVisible(false); //handle code for button press; display the popup private void butMetadataActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { extraInfoFrame.pack(); extraInfoFrame.toFront(); //frame.setSize(350, 250); extraInfoFrame.setVisible(true); //retrieve rows data for the table for(int i=0;i<len;i++){ Object[] data=new Object[4];data=getMetadata(); //get model and insert row ((javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel)tblMetadata.getModel()).insertRow(i,data); //tried something to notify the view abt change in table data ((javax.swing.table.DefaultTableModel)tblMetadata.getModel()).fireTableRowsInserted(0, 0); tblMetadata.revalidate(); tblMetadata.repaint(); } } Have been racking my head to try and figure something out. A sample example would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to update a Widget dynamically (Not waiting 30 min for onUpdate to be called)?

    - by Donal Rafferty
    I am currently learning about widgets in Android. I want to create a WIFI widget that will display the SSID, the RSSI (Signal) level. But I also want to be able to send it data from a service I am running that calculates the Quality of Sound over wifi. Here is what I have after some reading and a quick tutorial: public class WlanWidget extends AppWidgetProvider{ RemoteViews remoteViews; AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager; ComponentName thisWidget; WifiManager wifiManager; public void onUpdate(Context context, AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager, int[] appWidgetIds) { Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.scheduleAtFixedRate(new WlanTimer(context, appWidgetManager), 1, 10000); } private class WlanTimer extends TimerTask{ RemoteViews remoteViews; AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager; ComponentName thisWidget; public WlanTimer(Context context, AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager) { this.appWidgetManager = appWidgetManager; remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget); thisWidget = new ComponentName(context, WlanWidget.class); wifiManager = (WifiManager)context.getSystemService(Context.WIFI_SERVICE); } @Override public void run() { remoteViews.setTextViewText(R.id.widget_textview, wifiManager.getConnectionInfo().getSSID()); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(thisWidget, remoteViews); } } The above seems to work ok, it updates the SSID on the widget every 10 seconds. However what is the most efficent way to get the information from my service that will be already running to update periodically on my widget? Also is there a better approach to updating the the widget rather than using a timer and timertask? (Avoid polling) UPDATE As per Karan's suggestion I have added the following code in my Service: RemoteViews remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget); ComponentName thisWidget = new ComponentName( context, WlanWidget.class ); remoteViews.setTextViewText(R.id.widget_QCLevel, " " + qcPercentage); AppWidgetManager.getInstance( context ).updateAppWidget( thisWidget, remoteViews ); This gets run everytime the RSSI level changes but it still never updates the TextView on my widget, any ideas why?

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  • Help thinking "Pythony"

    - by Josh
    I'm brand new to Python and trying to learn it by replicating the following C++ function into python // determines which words in a vector consist of the same letters // outputs the words with the same letters on the same line void equivalentWords(vector <string> words, ofstream & outFile) { outFile << "Equivalent words\n"; // checkedWord is parallel to the words vector. It is // used to make sure each word is only displayed once. vector <bool> checkedWord (words.size(), false); for(int i = 0; i < words.size(); i++) { if (!checkedWord[i]){ outFile << " "; for(int j = i; j < words.size(); j++){ if(equivalentWords(words[i], words[j], outFile)) { outFile << words[j] << " "; checkedWord[j] = true; } } outFile << "\n"; } } } In my python code (below), rather than having a second vector, I have a list ("words") of lists of a string, a sorted list of the chars in the former string (because strings are immutable), and a bool (that tells if the word has been checked yet). However, I can't figure out how to change a value as you iterate through a list. for word, s_word, checked in words: if not checked: for word1, s_word1, checked1 in words: if s_word1 == s_word: checked1 = True # this doesn't work print word1, print "" Any help on doing this or thinking more "Pythony" is appreciated.

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  • How can I limit asp.net control actions based on user role?

    - by Duke
    I have several pages or views in my application which are essentially the same for both authenticated users and anonymous users. I'd like to limit the insert/update/delete actions in formviews and gridviews to authenticated users only, and allow read access for both authed and anon users. I'm using the asp.net configuration system for handling authentication and roles. This system limits access based on path so I've been creating duplicate pages for authed and anon paths. The solution that comes to mind immediately is to check roles in the appropriate event handlers, limiting what possible actions are displayed (insert/update/delete buttons) and also limiting what actions are performed (for users that may know how to perform an action in the absence of a button.) However, this solution doesn't eliminate duplication - I'd be duplicating security code on a series of pages rather than duplicating pages and limiting access based on path; the latter would be significantly less complicated. I could always build some controls that offered role-based configuration, but I don't think I have time for that kind of commitment right now. Is there a relatively easy way to do this (do such controls exist?) or should I just stick to path-based access and duplicate pages? Does it even make sense to use two methods of authorization? There are still some pages which are strictly for either role so I'll be making use of path-based authorization anyway. Finally, would using something other than path-based authorization be contrary to typical asp.net design practices, at least in the context of using the asp.net configuration system?

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  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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