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  • MVC EditorFor bind to type in array

    - by BradBrening
    I have a ViewModel that, among other properties, contains an array of 'EmailAddress' objects. EmailAddress itself has properties such as "Address", and "IsPrimary". My view model breakdown is: public class UserDetailsViewModel { public BUser User { get; set; } public string[] Roles { get; set; } public EmailAddress[] EmailAddresses { get; set; } } I am showing a "User Details" page that is pretty standard. For example, I'm displaying data using @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.UserName) and @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.Comment) I also have a section on the page that lists all of the EmailAddress objects associated with the user: @if(Model.EmailAddresses.Length > 0) { foreach (var address in Model.EmailAddresses) { <div> @Html.DisplayFor(model => address.Address) </div> } } else { <div class="center">User does not have any email addresses.</div> } My problem is that I would like to show an "Add Email Address" form above the list of email addresses. I thought I would take the "normal" approach thusly: @using(Html.BeginForm(new { id=Model.User.UserName, action="AddUserEmailAddress" })) { <text>Address:</text> @Html.EditorFor(model => ** HERE I AM STUCK **) <input type="submit" value="Add Email" class="button" /> } As you may be able to tell, I am stuck here. I've tried model => Model.EmailAddresses[0] and model => Model.EmailAddresses.FirstOrDefault(). Both of these have failed horribly. I am sure that I am going about this all wrong. I've even thought of adding a "dummy" property to my ViewModel of type EmailAddress just so that I can bind to that in my EditorFor - but that seems to be a really bad hack. There has to be something simple that I'm overlooking! I would appreciate any help anyone can offer with this matter. Thank you in advance!

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  • Daemonize() issues on Debian

    - by djTeller
    Hi, I'm currently writing a multi-process client and a multi-treaded server for some project i have. The server is a Daemon. In order to accomplish that, i'm using the following daemonize() code: static void daemonize(void) { pid_t pid, sid; /* already a daemon */ if ( getppid() == 1 ) return; /* Fork off the parent process */ pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* If we got a good PID, then we can exit the parent process. */ if (pid > 0) { exit(EXIT_SUCCESS); } /* At this point we are executing as the child process */ /* Change the file mode mask */ umask(0); /* Create a new SID for the child process */ sid = setsid(); if (sid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Change the current working directory. This prevents the current directory from being locked; hence not being able to remove it. */ if ((chdir("/")) < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Redirect standard files to /dev/null */ freopen( "/dev/null", "r", stdin); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stdout); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stderr); } int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { daemonize(); /* Now we are a daemon -- do the work for which we were paid */ return 0; } I have a strange side effect when testing the server on Debian (Ubuntu). The accept() function always fail to accept connections, the pid returned is -1 I have no idea what causing this, since in RedHat & CentOS it works well. When i remove the call to daemonize(), everything works well on Debian, when i add it back, same accept() error reproduce. I've been monitring the /proc//fd, everything looks good. Something in the daemonize() and the Debian release just doesn't seem to work. (Debian GNU/Linux 5.0, Linux 2.6.26-2-286 #1 SMP) Any idea what causing this? Thank you

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  • How to override loading a TImage from the object inspector (at run-time)?

    - by Mawg
    Further to my previous question, which did not get a useful answer despite a bounty, I will try rephrasing the question. Basically, when the user clicks the ellipsis in the object inspector, Delphi opens a file/open dialog. I want to replace this handling with my own, so that I can save the image's path. I would have expected that all I need to do is to derive a class from TImage and override the Assign() function, as in the following code. However, when I do the assign function is never called. So, it looks like I need to override something else, but what? unit my_Image; interface uses Classes, ExtCtrls, Jpeg, Graphics; type Tmy_Image = class(Timage) private FPicture : TPicture; protected procedure OnChange(Sender: TObject); public { Public declarations } Constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; procedure SetPicture(picture : TPicture); procedure Assign(Source: TPersistent); override; published { Published declarations - available in the Object Inspector at design-time } property Picture : TPicture read FPicture write SetPicture; end; // of class Tmy_Image() procedure Register; implementation uses Controls, Dialogs; procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Standard', [Tmy_Image]); end; Constructor Tmy_Image.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited; // Call the parent Create method Hint := 'Add an image from a file|Add an image from a file'; // Tooltip | status bar text AutoSize := True; // Control resizes when contents change (new image is loaded) Height := 104; Width := 104; FPicture := TPicture.Create(); self.Picture.Bitmap.LoadFromResourceName(hInstance, 'picture_poperty_bmp'); end; procedure Tmy_Image.OnChange(Sender: TObject); begin Constraints.MaxHeight := Picture.Height; Constraints.MaxWidth := Picture.Width; Self.Height := Picture.Height; Self.Width := Picture.Width; end; procedure Tmy_Image.SetPicture(picture : TPicture); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.SetPicture', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; procedure Tmy_Image.Assign(Source: TPersistent); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.Assign', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; end.

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  • General workflow to allow multiple OpenIDs to be associated with one app account

    - by BobTodd
    I have a (typical?) scenario: that my app's users can use multiple openids mapped to one app account (like stackoverflow). For me the unique thing on the account is the email address, so this binds openids to the profile. Question is, how to allow a user to start using a second openid once one is setup. I am asking as I have read that it is a security hole to allow automatic account openid syncing simply based on the provider-supplied email address as someone could easily spoof someone's email address to create a spoof openid and falsely access the account (how I am not sure) - although this seems to be exactly how stack operates. See options a. and b. below. Problem for me with a. is what happens if the original openid no longer works for whatever reason - how would you set-up a new openid? Would b. be more acceptable if we used email verification? Does anyone have an article detailing a "standard" way (set of user stories) for this - it seems to be an increasingly popular way to authenticate. I have tried to detail this in a rough decision tree... 1. My Site > authentication landing page - user chooses an openid (facebook, google, myopenid etc), redirection > 2. Provider site returns with token (includes user registering a new openid, logging in or is already logged in to Provider site) 3. My Site > use token id to lookup user 3.1 Profile exists? Yes > authenticate. ends. No > 3.1.1 was email address supplied by provider? Yes > lookup user by email address 3.1.1.1 Profile exists? Yes > a. error message - please login with existing openid and associate this openid (from special page) Yes > b. or associate this openid with existing profile automatically. authenticate. ends. No > Register profile. With registration email address follow 3.1.1, except this time where email is unique, we will associate openid. ends

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  • How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

    - by SleepyBobos
    I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

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  • Adding user role constraint redirects Browser to jsf.js script?

    - by simgineer
    My JSF form login was working with Constraint 1 however when I added Constraint 2 to my web.xml doing a submit on the form now takes me to a jsf javascript page. Can someone tell me what I am doing wrong? I would like only administrators to be able to access the /admin/* pages and only registered users to access the entire site included admin files. BTW after I see the java script page I can still navigate to the intended page in the browser, I just don't want the user to see the intermediate js page or need to know the target page URL. Constraint 1 <security-constraint> <display-name>Admin</display-name> <web-resource-collection> <url-pattern>/admin/*</url-pattern> </web-resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <role-name>ADMIN</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> Constraint 2 <security-constraint> <display-name>Users</display-name> <web-resource-collection> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </web-resource-collection> <auth-constraint> <role-name>USER</role-name> </auth-constraint> </security-constraint> Here is the undesired url I am being redirected to: javax.faces.resource/jsf.js.xhtml?ln=javax.faces&stage=Development Here is the start of the jsf.js.xhtml... /** @project JSF JavaScript Library @version 2.0 @description This is the standard implementation of the JSF JavaScript Library. */ /** * Register with OpenAjax */ if (typeof OpenAjax !== "undefined" && typeof OpenAjax.hub.registerLibrary !== "undefined") { OpenAjax.hub.registerLibrary("jsf", "www.sun.com", "2.0", null); } // Detect if this is already loaded, and if loaded, if it's a higher version if (!((jsf && jsf.specversion && jsf.specversion >= 20000 ) && (jsf.implversion && jsf.implversion >= 3))) { ... Notes I'm using Firefox 10.0.4, Glassfish 3.1 w JSF2.0 lib, j_security_check, and my login realm setup is similar to this

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  • help with generating models from database for many to many in doctrine

    - by ajsie
    im using doctrine and i have set up some test tables to be generated into models: I want a many-to-many relationship models (3 tables converted into 3 models) (things are simplified to make the point clear) mysql tables: user: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR group: id INT // primary key name VARCHAR user_group: user_id INT // primary and foreign key to user.id group_id INT // primary and foreign key to group.id i thought that it would generate these models (from the documentation): // User.php class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Group as Groups', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'group_id' ) ); } } // Group.php class Group extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as Users', array( 'refClass' => 'UserGroup', 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'user_id' ) ); } } // UserGroup.php class UserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id') ); $this->hasColumn('group_id') ); } } but it generated this: // User.php abstract class BaseUser extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id')); } } // Group.php abstract class BaseGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('id'); $this->hasColumn('name'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('UserGroup', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'group_id')); } } // UserGroup.php abstract class BaseUserGroup extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('user_id'); $this->hasColumn('group_id'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasOne('User', array( 'local' => 'user_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); $this->hasOne('Group', array( 'local' => 'group_id', 'foreign' => 'id')); } } as you can see, there is no 'refClass' in the 'User' and 'Group' models pointing to the 'UserGroup'. the 'UserGroup' table in this case is just another table from Doctrine's perspective not a reference table. I've checked my table definitions in mysql. They are correct. user_group has 2 columns (primary keys and foreign keys), each one pointing to the primary key in either User or Group. But i want the standard many-to-many relationship models in Doctrine models. I'd appreciate some help. I have struggled to figure it out for a half day now. What is wrong? Thanks!

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  • Custom WM profile - issues with codec

    - by dominolog
    Hello I create my custom WM encoder profile. The reason I need a custom, non standard WM profile is that I need that the video resolution must be the same as input video stream. I created below profile but after I encode my video and audio with it, the WMP while loading says that the WMV1 codec is not found and prompts me for downloading WM encoder codecs. After installing them, the problem still exists. <profile version="589824" storageformat="1" name="mReplay Hi-End profile; WM Format 9; Audio &amp; Video" description="Streams: 1 audio 1 video"> <streamconfig majortype="{73647561-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" streamnumber="1" streamname="Audio Stream" inputname="Audio409" bitrate="320008" bufferwindow="-1" reliabletransport="0" decodercomplexity="" rfc1766langid="en-us" > <wmmediatype subtype="{00000161-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" bfixedsizesamples="1" btemporalcompression="0" lsamplesize="14861"> <waveformatex wFormatTag="353" nChannels="2" nSamplesPerSec="44100" nAvgBytesPerSec="40001" nBlockAlign="14861" wBitsPerSample="16" codecdata="008800000F0035E80000"/> </wmmediatype> </streamconfig> <streamconfig majortype="{73646976-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" streamnumber="2" streamname="Video Stream" inputname="Video409" bitrate="100000" bufferwindow="-1" reliabletransport="0" decodercomplexity="AU" rfc1766langid="en-us" vbrenabled="1" vbrquality="95" bitratemax="0" bufferwindowmax="0"> <videomediaprops maxkeyframespacing="80000000" quality="100"/> <wmmediatype subtype="{31564D57-0000-0010-8000-00AA00389B71}" bfixedsizesamples="0" btemporalcompression="1" lsamplesize="0"> <videoinfoheader dwbitrate="100000" dwbiterrorrate="0" avgtimeperframe="400000"> <rcsource left="0" top="0" right="0" bottom="0"/> <rctarget left="0" top="0" right="0" bottom="0"/> <bitmapinfoheader biwidth="0" biheight="0" biplanes="1" bibitcount="24" bicompression="WMV1" bisizeimage="0" bixpelspermeter="0" biypelspermeter="0" biclrused="0" biclrimportant="0"/> </videoinfoheader> </wmmediatype> </streamconfig> <streamprioritization> <stream number="1" mandatory="0"/> <stream number="2" mandatory="0"/> </streamprioritization> </profile>

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  • Improving Javascript Load Times - Concatenation vs Many + Cache

    - by El Yobo
    I'm wondering which of the following is going to result in better performance for a page which loads a large amount of javascript (jQuery + jQuery UI + various other javascript files). I have gone through most of the YSlow and Google Page Speed stuff, but am left wondering about a particular detail. A key thing for me here is that the site I'm working on is not on the public net; it's a business to business platform where almost all users are repeat visitors (and therefore with caches of the data, which is something that YSlow assumes will not be the case for a large number of visitors). First up, the standard approach recommended by tools such as YSlow is to concatenate it, compress it, and serve it up in a single file loaded at the end of your page. This approach sounds reasonably effective, but I think that a key part of the reasoning here is to improve performance for users without cached data. The system I currently have is something like this * All javascript files are compressed and loaded at the bottom of the page * All javascript files have far future cache expiration dates, so will remain (for most users) in the cache for a long time * Pages only load the javascript files that they require, rather than loading one monolithic file, most of which will not be required Now, my understanding is that, if the cache expiration date for a javascript file has not been reached, then the cached version is used immediately; there is no HTTP request sent at to the server at all. If this is correct, I would assume that having multiple tags is not causing any performance penalty, as I'm still not having any additional requests on most pages (recalling from above that almost all users have populated caches). In addition to this, not loading the JS means that the browser doesn't have to interpret or execute all this additional code which it isn't going to need; as a B2B application, most of our users are unfortunately stuck with IE6 and its painfully slow JS engine. Another benefit is that, when code changes, only the affected files need to be fetched again, rather than the whole set (granted, it would only need to be fetched once, so this is not so much of a benefit). I'm also looking at using LabJS to allow for parallel loading of the JS when it's not cached. So, what do people think is a better approach? In a similar vein, what do you think about a similar approach to CSS - is monolithic better?

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  • problem with struts actions and redirections

    - by Casey
    I am trying to update a simple web app that was built with struts2, jsp and standard servlets. I am trying to redirect a url to a specific action but can't seem to get it to work right. For example, the url that is correct is: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/search.action Here is my web.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <!DOCTYPE web-app PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD Web Application 2.3//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-app_2_3.dtd"><web-app> <display-name>theapp</display-name> <filter> <filter-name>struts2</filter-name> <filter-class> org.apache.struts2.dispatcher.FilterDispatcher </filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>struts2</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> And here is my struts.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <!DOCTYPE struts PUBLIC "-//Apache Software Foundation//DTD Struts Configuration 2.0//EN" "http://struts.apache.org/dtds/struts-2.0.dtd"> <default-action-ref name="search" /> <action name="search" method="search" class="com.theapp.SearchAction" > <result>index.jsp</result> <result name="input" >index.jsp</result> <result name="error" type="redirect">site_locator_mobile/error.action</result> </action> The problem here is that if I don't specify the correct url as above, I just get the index.jsp file, but without any properties in index.jsp being processed because the information is contained in the servlet. What I would like to is if someone just entered: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/ than they would be taken to: http://localhost:8080/theapp/lookup/search.action Thanks

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  • Problem with character encoding on email sent via PHP?

    - by cosgrove
    Hi everybody, Having some trouble sending properly formatted HTML e-mail from a PHP script. I am running PHP 5.3.0 and Apache 2.2.11 on Windows XP Professional. The output looks like this: Agent Summary for Support on Tuesday April 20 2010=20 Ext. Name Time Volume 137 Agent Name 01:27:25 1 138 =09 00:00:00 0 139 =09 00:00:00 0 You see the =20 and =09 in there? If you look at the HTML you also see = signs being turned into =3D. I figure this is a character encoding issue as I read the following at Wikipedia: ISO-8859-1 and Windows-1252 confusion It is very common to mislabel text data with the charset label ISO-8859-1, even though the data is really Windows-1252 encoded. In Windows-1252, codes between 0x80 and 0x9F are used for letters and punctuation, whereas they are control codes in ISO-8859-1. Many web browsers and e-mail clients will interpret ISO-8859-1 control codes as Windows-1252 characters in order to accommodate such mislabeling but it is not standard behaviour and care should be taken to avoid generating these characters in ISO-8859-1 labeled content. This looks like the problem but I don't know how to fix. My code looks like this: ob_start(); report_queue_summary($yesterday,$yesterday,$first_extension,$last_extension,$queue); $body_report = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); $body_footer = "This is an automatically generated e-mail."; $message = new Mail_mime(); $html = $body_header.$body_report.$body_footer; $message->setHTMLBody($html); $body = $message->get(); $extraheaders = array("From"=>"***redacted***","To"=>$recipient, "Subject"=>"Agent Summary for $yesterday [$queue]", "Content-type"=>"text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"); $headers = $message->headers($extraheaders); # setup e-mail; $host = "*********"; $port = "26"; $username = "*****"; $password = "*****"; # Send e-mail $smtp = Mail::factory('smtp', array ('host' => $host, 'port' => $port, 'auth' => true, 'username' => $username, 'password' => $password)); $mail = $smtp->send($recipient, $extraheaders, $body); if (PEAR::isError($mail)) { echo("" . $mail->getMessage() . ""); } else { echo("Message successfully sent!"); } Is the problem that I'm using output buffering?

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  • How to reconcile my support of open-source software and need to feed and house myself?

    - by Guzba
    I have a bit of a dilemma and wanted to get some other developers' opinions on it and maybe some guidance. So I have created a 2D game for Android from the ground up, learning and re factoring as I went along. I did it for the experience, and have been proud of the results. I released it for free as ad supported with AdMob not really expecting much out of it, but curious to see what would happen. Its been a few of months now since release, and it has become very popular (250k downloads!). Additionally, the ad revenue is great and is driving me to make more good games and even allowing me to work less so that I can focus on my own works. When I originally began working on the game, I was pretty new to concurrency and completely new to Android (had Java experience though). The standard advice I got for starting an Android game was to look at the sample games from Google (Snake, Lunar Lander, ...) so I did. In my opinion, these Android sample games from Google are decent to see in general what your code should look like, but not actually all that great to follow. This is because some of their features don't work (saving game state), the concurrency is both unexplained and cumbersome (there is no real separation between the game thread and the UI thread since they sync lock each other out all the time and the UI thread runs game thread code). This made it difficult for me as a newbie to concurrency to understand how it was organized and what was really running what code. Here is my dilemma: After spending this past few months slowly improving my code, I feel that it could be very beneficial to developers who are in the same position that I was in when I started. (Since it is not a complex game, but clearly coded in my opinion.) I want to open up the source so that others can learn from it but don't want to lose my ad revenue stream, which, if I did open the source, I fear I would when people released versions with the ad stripped, or minor tweaks that would fragment my audience, etc. I am a CS undergrad major in college and this money is giving me the freedom to work less at summer job, thus giving me the time and will to work on more of my own projects and improving my own skills while still paying the bills. So what do I do? Open the source at personal sacrifice for the greater good, or keep it closed and be a sort of hypocritical supporter of open source?

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  • Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

    - by Owen
    Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

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  • php regex guitar tab (tabs or tablature, a type of music notation)

    - by John
    I am in the process of creating a guitar tab to rtttl (Ring Tone Text Transfer Language) converter in PHP. In order to prepare a guitar tab for rtttl conversion I first strip out all comments (comments noted by #- and ended with -#), I then have a few lines that set tempo, note the tunning and define multiple instruments (Tempo 120\nDefine Guitar 1\nDefine Bass 1, etc etc) which are stripped out of the tab and set aside for later use. Now I essentially have nothing left except the guitar tabs. Each tab is prefixed with it's instrument name in conjunction with the instrument name noted prior. Some times we have tabs for 2 separate instruments that are linked because they are to be played together, ie a Guitar and a Bass Guitar playing together. Example 1, Standard Guitar Tab: |Guitar 1 e|--------------3-------------------3------------| B|------------3---3---------------3---3----------| G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------0-----------0-------0-----------0------| A|------2---------------2---2---------------2----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| Example 2, Conjunction Tab: |Guitar 1 e|--------------3-------------------3------------| B|------------3---3---------------3---3----------| G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------0-----------0-------0-----------0------| A|------2---------------2---2---------------2----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| | | |Bass 1 G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------2-----------2-------2-----------2------| A|------3---------------3---3---------------3----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| I have considered other methods of identifying the tabs with no solid results. I am hoping that someone who does regular expressions could help me find a way to identify a single guitar tab and if possible also be able to match a tab with multiple instruments linked together. Once the tabs are in an array I will go through them one line at a time and convert them into rtttl lines (exploded at each new line "\n"). I do not want to separate the guitar tabs in the document via explode "\n\n" or something similar because it does not identify the guitar tab, rather, it is identifying the space between the tabs - not on the tabs themselves. I have been messing with this for about a week now and this is the only major hold up I have. Everything else is fairly simple. As of current, I have tried many variations of the regex pattern. Here is one of the most recent test samples: <?php $t = " |Guitar 1 e|--------------3-------------------3------------| B|------------3---3---------------3---3----------| G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------0-----------0-------0-----------0------| A|------2---------------2---2---------------2----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| |Guitar 1 e|--------------3-------------------3------------| B|------------3---3---------------3---3----------| G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------0-----------0-------0-----------0------| A|------2---------------2---2---------------2----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| | | |Bass 1 G|----------0-------0-----------0-------0--------| D|--------2-----------2-------2-----------2------| A|------3---------------3---3---------------3----| E|----3-------------------3-------------------3--| "; preg_match_all("/^.*?(\\|).*?(\\|)/is",$t,$p); print_r($p); ?> It is also worth noting that inside the tabs, where the dashes and #'s are, you may also have any variation of letters, numbers and punctuation. The beginning of each line marks the tuning of each string with one of the following case insensitive: a,a#,b,c,c#,d,d#,e,f,f#,g or g. Thanks in advance for help with this most difficult problem.

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  • Is there some way to make variables like $a and $b in regard to strict?

    - by Axeman
    In light of Michael Carman's comment, I have decided to rewrite the question. Note that 11 comments appear before this edit, and give credence to Michael's observation that I did not write the question in a way that made it clear what I was asking. Question: What is the standard--or cleanest way--to fake the special status that $a and $b have in regard to strict by simply importing a module? First of all some setup. The following works: #!/bin/perl use strict; print "\$a=$a\n"; print "\$b=$b\n"; If I add one more line: print "\$c=$c\n"; I get an error at compile time, which means that none of my dazzling print code gets to run. If I comment out use strict; it runs fine. Outside of strictures, $a and $b are mainly special in that sort passes the two values to be compared with those names. my @reverse_order = sort { $b <=> $a } @unsorted; Thus the main functional difference about $a and $b--even though Perl "knows their names"--is that you'd better know this when you sort, or use some of the functions in List::Util. It's only when you use strict, that $a and $b become special variables in a whole new way. They are the only variables that strict will pass over without complaining that they are not declared. : Now, I like strict, but it strikes me that if TIMTOWTDI (There is more than one way to do it) is Rule #1 in Perl, this is not very TIMTOWDI. It says that $a and $b are special and that's it. If you want to use variables you don't have to declare $a and $b are your guys. If you want to have three variables by adding $c, suddenly there's a whole other way to do it. Nevermind that in manipulating hashes $k and $v might make more sense: my %starts_upper_1_to_25 = skim { $k =~ m/^\p{IsUpper}/ && ( 1 <= $v && $v <= 25 ) } %my_hash ;` Now, I use and I like strict. But I just want $k and $v to be visible to skim for the most compact syntax. And I'd like it to be visible simply by use Hash::Helper qw<skim>; I'm not asking this question to know how to black-magic it. My "answer" below, should let you know that I know enough Perl to be dangerous. I'm asking if there is a way to make strict accept other variables, or what is the cleanest solution. The answer could well be no. If that's the case, it simply does not seem very TIMTOWTDI.

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  • KnockoutJS showing a sorted list by item category

    - by Darksbane
    I just started learning knockout this week and everything has gone well except for this one issue. I have a list of items that I sort multiple ways but one of the ways I want to sort needs to have a different display than the standard list. As an example lets say I have this code var BetterListModel = function () { var self = this; food = [ { "name":"Apple", "quantity":"3", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$1", },{ "name":"Ice Cream", "quantity":"1", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$6", },{ "name":"Pear", "quantity":"2", "category":"Fruit", "cost":"$2", },{ "name":"Beef", "quantity":"1", "category":"Meat", "cost":"$3", },{ "name":"Milk", "quantity":"5", "category":"Dairy", "cost":"$4", }]; self.allItems = ko.observableArray(food); // Initial items // Initial sort self.sortMe = ko.observable("name"); ko.utils.compareItems = function (l, r) { if (self.sortMe() =="cost"){ return l.cost > r.cost ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="category"){ return l.category > r.category ? 1 : -1 } else if (self.sortMe() =="quantity"){ return l.quantity > r.quantity ? 1 : -1 }else { return l.name > r.name ? 1 : -1 } }; }; ko.applyBindings(new BetterListModel()); and the HTML <p>Your values:</p> <ul class="deckContents" data-bind="foreach:allItems().sort(ko.utils.compareItems)"> <li><div style="width:100%"><div class="left" style="width:30px" data-bind="text:quantity"></div><div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:name"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:cost"></div> <div class="left fixedWidth" data-bind="text:category"></div><div style="clear:both"></div></div></li> </ul> <select data-bind="value:sortMe"> <option selected="selected" value="name">Name</option> <option value="cost">Cost</option> <option value="category">Category</option> <option value="quantity">Quantity</option> </select> </div> So I can sort these just fine by any field I might sort them by name and it will display something like this 3 Apple $1 Fruit 1 Beef $3 Meat 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy 2 Pear $2 Fruit Here is a fiddle of what I have so far http://jsfiddle.net/Darksbane/X7KvB/ This display is fine for all the sorts except the category sort. What I want is when I sort them by category to display it like this Fruit 3 Apple $1 Fruit 2 Pear $2 Fruit Meat 1 Beef $3 Meat Dairy 1 Ice Cream $6 Dairy 5 Milk $4 Dairy Does anyone have any idea how I might be able to display this so differently for that one sort?

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  • C - What is the proper format to allow a function to show an error was encountered?

    - by BrainSteel
    I have a question about what a function should do if the arguments to said function don't line up quite right, through no fault of the function call. Since that sentence doesn't make much sense, I'll offer my current issue. To keep it simple, here is the most relevant and basic function I have. float getYValueAt(float x, PHYS_Line line, unsigned short* error) *error = 0; if(x < line.start.x || x > line.end.x){ *error = 1; return -1; } if(line.slope.value != 0){ //line's equation: y - line.start.y = line.slope.value(x - line.start.x) return line.slope.value * (x - line.start.x) + line.start.y; } else if(line.slope.denom == 0){ if(line.start.x == x) return line.start.y; else{ *error = 1; return -1; } } else if(line.slope.num == 0){ return line.start.y; } } The function attempts to find the point on a line, given a certain x value. However, under some circumstances, this may not be possible. For example, on the line x = 3, if 5 is passed as a value, we would have a problem. Another problem arises if the chosen x value is not within the interval the line is on. For this, I included the error pointer. Given this format, a function call could work as follows: void foo(PHYS_Line some_line){ unsigned short error = 0; float y = getYValueAt(5, some_line, &error); if(error) fooey(); else do_something_with_y(y); } My question pertains to the error. Note that the value returned is allowed to be negative. Returning -1 does not ensure that an error has occurred. I know that it is sometimes preferred to use the following method to track an error: float* getYValueAt(float x, PHYS_Line line); and then return NULL if an error occurs, but I believe this requires dynamic memory allocation, which seems even less sightly than the solution I was using. So, what is standard practice for an error occurring?

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  • jquery load a specific #Div content from multiple html files

    - by Vikram
    Hello friends I am trying to make a Content Slider for my site. I have multiple HTML files and the structure of these files is like this: <div id="title"><h2>Title of the Slide</h2></div> <div id="image"><a href="http://mylink.com"><img src="image.jpg" width="600" height="300" alt="image"</a></div> <div id="content">Lorem Ipsum is simply dummy text of the printing and typesetting industry. Lorem Ipsum has been the industry's standard dummy text ever since the 1500s.</div> I have been trying to use the following script get content (but no success): <?php function render($position="") { ob_start(); foreach(glob("/slides/*.html") as $fileName) { $fname = basename( $fileName ); $curArr = file($fname); $slides[$fname ]['title'] = $curArr[0]; $slides[$fname ]['image'] = $curArr[1]; $slides[$fname ]['content'] = $curArr[2]; foreach($slides as $key => $value){ ?> <div id="slide-title"> <?php echo $value['title'] ?> </div> <div id="slide-content"> <?php echo $value['image'] ?> </div> <div id="slide-image"> <?php echo $value['content'] ?> </div> <?php }} ?> <?php return ob_get_clean(); } But then I came to know about a jQuery function.... (again no success) jQuery.noConflict(); (function($){ $(document).ready(function () { $('#slide-title').load('slides/slide1.html #title'); $('#slide-content').load('slides/slide1.html #content'); $('#slide-image').load('slides/slide1.html #image'); }); })(jQuery); Now My questions are..... Am I using the right syntax. How do I get the content from multiple files using jQuery. Please Note : My knowledge on Programming is almost '0'. I have just started learning it.

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  • current page highlights on child pages

    - by user557318
    Im trying to achieve current page highlights on wordpress similar to this site Alex Soth. I'm very nearly there with my css. At present i have current page highlights on pages, ie. home,calendar, projects. However when it come to current page highlights on child pages i have a problem. the indented child page list appears on hover when selecting a child page, but after page selection the menu reverts back to the standard pages menu with no visible child menus? unlike the link to the Alex Soth site where the extended menu stays and current page is highlighted I know that the answer will be a simple piece of css involving current_page_item and possible position:relative to obtain the menu staying visible after selection. But i can for the life of me work it out. Any ideas Ive attached my relivant pieces of css below?? thanks /* =Link Styles ------------------------------------------------------------------*/ input#submit { cursor: pointer; } input#searchsubmit { background: url(images/search.png) no-repeat center; } input#searchsubmit:hover { background: url(images/search.png) no-repeat center #3399FF !important; cursor: pointer; } .navigation a:hover, input#submit { background: #3399FF; color: #3399FF !important; } a { color: #666; } a:hover, a:hover span { color: #c11501 !important;background-color: #fae100; } .entry sup a, #main_nav .current_page_item a, #main_nav .current_page_ancestor a { color: #666 !important; } #main_nav h1.masthead a { color: #666; } #main_nav h1.masthead a:hover { border-right: none; } h2 a, #main_nav a { color: #3399FF; } img a, img a:hover { text-decoration: none; } .post a, .navigation a { font-weight: bold; color: #000; } .navigation a { background: #EEE; color: #666; font-weight: normal; padding: 3px 0px; border-radius: 0px; -webkit-border-radius: 0px; -moz-border-radius: 0px; } .post sup { font-size: 11px; color: #aaa; } .post sup a { border: 0; margin: 0; font-weight: normal; font-size: 10px; } #supplementary .post_nav ul.about_nav li a, #supplementary .post_nav ul.single_post_meta a, #supplementary ul.contact_key li a { color: #888888; border-bottom: 0; } /* =Main Menu ------------------------------------------------------------------*/ #main_nav ul.menu li { position: relative; } #main_nav ul.menu li:hover ul.sub-menu, #main_nav ul.menu li:hover ul.children { display: block; }

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  • What do I need to distribute (keys, certs) for Python w/ SSL-socket connection?

    - by fandingo
    I'm trying to write a generic server-client application that will be able to exchange data amongst servers. I've read over quite a few OpenSSL documents, and I have successfully setup my own CA and created a cert (and private key) for testing purposes. I'm stuck with Python 2.3, so I can't use the standard "ssl" library. Instead, I'm stuck with PyOpenSSL, which doesn't seem bad, but there aren't many documents out there about it. My question isn't really about getting it working. I'm more confused about the certificates and where they need to go. Here are my two programs that do work: Server: #!/bin/env python from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER|SSL.VERIFY_FAIL_IF_NO_PEER_CERT, verify_cb) # ?????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('./Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('Dmgr-cert.pem') # ?????? ctx.load_verify_locations('./CAcert.pem') server = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) server.bind(('', 50000)) server.listen(3) a, b = server.accept() c = a.recv(1024) print(c) Client: from OpenSSL import SSL import socket import pickle def verify_cb(conn, cert, errnum, depth, ok): print('Got cert: %s' % cert.get_subject()) return ok ctx = SSL.Context(SSL.TLSv1_METHOD) ctx.set_verify(SSL.VERIFY_PEER, verify_cb) # ?????????? ctx.use_privatekey_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/private/Dmgr-key.pem') ctx.use_certificate_file('/home/justin/code/work/CA/Dmgr-cert.pem') # ????????? ctx.load_verify_locations('/home/justin/code/work/CA/CAcert.pem') sock = SSL.Connection(ctx, socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM)) sock.connect(('10.0.0.3', 50000)) a = Tester(2, 2) b = pickle.dumps(a) sock.send("Hello, world") sock.flush() sock.send(b) sock.shutdown() sock.close() I found this information from ftp://ftp.pbone.net/mirror/ftp.pld-linux.org/dists/2.0/PLD/i586/PLD/RPMS/python-pyOpenSSL-examples-0.6-2.i586.rpm which contains some example scripts. As you might gather, I don't fully understand the sections between the " # ????????." I don't get why the certificate and private key are needed on both the client and server. I'm not sure where each should go, but shouldn't I only need to distribute one part of the key (probably the public part)? It undermines the purpose of having asymmetric keys if you still need both on each server, right? I tried alternating removing either the pkey or cert on either box, and I get the following error no matter which I remove: OpenSSL.SSL.Error: [('SSL routines', 'SSL3_READ_BYTES', 'sslv3 alert handshake failure'), ('SSL routines', 'SSL3_WRITE_BYTES', 'ssl handshake failure')] Could someone explain if this is the expected behavior for SSL. Do I really need to distribute the private key and public cert to all my clients? I'm trying to avoid any huge security problems, and leaking private keys would tend to be a big one... Thanks for the help!

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  • Spring Framework 3.0.5 MVC Issue

    - by user578923
    I know that this may be absolutely dumb but for the life of me I cannot figure out why I'm getting these errors in my Spring Project, it is basically from the MVC tutorial with a few modifications. This is the error I get when running my tomcat server. `Caused by: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/web/servlet/mvc/SimpleFormController at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:634) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java:142) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(URLClassLoader.java:277) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(URLClassLoader.java:73) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:212) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:205) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:321) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:294) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:266) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1581) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1511) at org.springframework.util.ClassUtils.forName(ClassUtils.java:257) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinition.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanDefinition.java:408) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.doResolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanFactory.java:1271) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanFactory.java:1242) ... 54 more Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.SimpleFormController at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:217) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:205) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:321) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:294) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:266) ... 71 more` I just cannot figure out the issue with my classpath...I would appreciate any help. Here are all the jars in my classpath. I know that the class is inside the web-servlet jar but it's not seeing it. Is there a conflict? aopalliance.jar aspectjweaver.jar commons-codec.jar commons-dbcp.jar commons-logging.jar commons-pool.jar jstl.jar org.springframework.aop-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.asm-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.aspects-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.beans-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.context.support-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.context-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.core-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.expression-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.instrument.tomcat-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.instrument-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.jdbc-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.jms-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.orm-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.oxm-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.test-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.transaction-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.web.portlet-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.web.servlet-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.web.struts-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar org.springframework.web-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar postgresql-9.0-801.jdbc3.jar servlet-api.jar spring-security-config-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar spring-security-core-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar spring-security-web-3.0.5.RELEASE.jar standard.jar

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  • Undefined template methods trick ?

    - by Matthieu M.
    A colleague of mine told me about a little piece of design he has used with his team that sent my mind boiling. It's a kind of traits class that they can specialize in an extremely decoupled way. I've had a hard time understanding how it could possibly work, and I am still unsure of the idea I have, so I thought I would ask for help here. We are talking g++ here, specifically the versions 3.4.2 and 4.3.2 (it seems to work with both). The idea is quite simple: 1- Define the interface // interface.h template <class T> struct Interface { void foo(); // the method is not implemented, it could not work if it was }; // // I do not think it is necessary // but they prefer free-standing methods with templates // because of the automatic argument deduction // template <class T> void foo(Interface<T>& interface) { interface.foo(); } 2- Define a class, and in the source file specialize the interface for this class (defining its methods) // special.h class Special {}; // special.cpp #include "interface.h" #include "special.h" // // Note that this specialization is not visible outside of this translation unit // template <> struct Interface<Special> { void foo() { std::cout << "Special" << std::endl; } }; 3- To use, it's simple too: // main.cpp #include "interface.h" class Special; // yes, it only costs a forward declaration // which helps much in term of dependencies int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Interface<Special> special; foo(special); return 0; }; It's an undefined symbol if no translation unit defined a specialization of Interface for Special. Now, I would have thought this would require the export keyword, which to my knowledge has never been implemented in g++ (and only implemented once in a C++ compiler, with its authors advising anyone not to, given the time and effort it took them). I suspect it's got something to do with the linker resolving the templates methods... Do you have ever met anything like this before ? Does it conform to the standard or do you think it's a fortunate coincidence it works ? I must admit I am quite puzzled by the construct...

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  • What is the most idiomatic way to emulating Perl's Test::More::done_testing?

    - by DVK
    I have to build unit tests for in environment with a very old version of Test::More (perl5.8 with $Test::More::VERSION being '0.80') which predates the addition of done_testing(). Upgrading to newer Test::More is out of the question for practical reasons. And I am trying to avoid using no_tests - it's generally a bad idea not catching when your unit test exits prematurely - say due to some logic not executing when you expected it to. What is the most idiomatic way of running a configurable amount of tests, assuming no no_tests or done_testing() is used? Details: My unit tests usually take the form of: use Test::More; my @test_set = ( [ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] ,[ "Test #1", $param1, $param2, ... ] # ,... ); foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } sub run_test { # $expected_tests += count_tests($test); ok(test1($test)) || diag("Test1 failed"); # ... } The standard approach of use Test::More tests => 23; or BEGIN {plan tests => 23} does not work since both are obviously executed before @tests is known. My current approach involves making @tests global and defining it in the BEGIN {} block as follows: use Test::More; BEGIN { our @test_set = (); # Same set of tests as above my $expected_tests = 0; foreach my $test (@tests) { my $expected_tests += count_tests($test); } plan tests = $expected_tests; } our @test_set; # Must do!!! Since first "our" was in BEGIN's scope :( foreach my $test (@test_set) { run_test($test); } # Same sub run_test {} # Same I feel this can be done more idiomatically but not certain how to improve. Chief among the smells is the duplicate our @test_test declarations - in BEGIN{} and after it. Another approach is to emulate done_testing() by calling Test::More->builder->plan(tests=>$total_tests_calculated). I'm not sure if it's any better idiomatically-wise.

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  • Binding on a port with netpipes/netcat

    - by mindas
    I am trying to write a simple bash script that is listening on a port and responding with a trivial HTTP response. My specific issue is that I am not sure if the port is available and in case of bind failure I fall back to next port until bind succeeds. So far to me the easiest way to achieve this was something like: for (( i=$PORT_BASE; i < $(($PORT_BASE+$PORT_RANGE)); i++ )) do if [ $DEBUG -eq 1 ] ; then echo trying to bind on $i fi /usr/bin/faucet $i --out --daemon echo test 2>/dev/null if [ $? -eq 0 ] ; then #success? port=$i if [ $DEBUG -eq 1 ] ; then echo "bound on port $port" fi break fi done Here I am using faucet from netpipes Ubuntu package. The problem with this is that if I simply print "test" to the output, curl complains about non-standard HTTP response (error code 18). That's fair enough as I don't print HTTP-compatible response. If I replace echo test with echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest", curl still complains: user@server:$ faucet 10020 --out --daemon echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest" ... user@client:$ curl ip.of.the.server:10020 curl: (56) Failure when receiving data from the peer I think the problem lies in how faucet is printing the response and handling the connection. For example if I do the server side in netcat, curl works fine: user@server:$ echo -ne "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n\r\ntest\r\n" | nc -l 10020 ... user@client:$ curl ip.of.the.server:10020 test user@client:$ I would be more than happy to replace faucet with netcat in my main script, but the problem is that I want to spawn independent server process to be able to run client from the same base shell. faucet has a very handy --daemon parameter as it forks to background and I can use $? (exit status code) to check if bind succeeded. If I was to use netcat for a similar purpose, I would have to fork it using & and $? would not work. Does anybody know why faucet isn't responding correctly in this particular case and/or can suggest a solution to this problem. I am not married neither to faucet nor netcat but would like the solution to be implemented using bash or it's utilities (as opposed to write something in yet another scripting language, such as Perl or Python).

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  • How do I add "Press any key to boot from usb" when installing Windows from a flash drive? (Grub4dos question / how to remove a bootloader)

    - by Vincent
    Hi there! I've been struggling with this problem for a while now and finially decided to ask for help. Let me first explain what the main purpose of the app is: to provide the a very easy to use way of backing up files, after which I format the drive and start Windows 7 setup. I do this by booting WinPE, which runs a script to detect Windows installations and then opens a file browser. After the file browser is closed, the script continues and formats the drive that contains the Windows installation, and starts an unattended Windows 7 install. Now here is the problem: When you start Windows setup or WinPE from a dvd, you get a nice option to "Press any key to boot from DVD". This is to prevent the computer from booting the DVD when the first phase of the installation is complete and the computer reboots. However, when booting from a flash drive, Windows does not provide this option: it simply boots the flash drive every reboot. To replicate the "press any key" function, I installed Grub4Dos, which works great. It provides a small menu, the first standard item being "Continue installation", the second being "start installation". After quite a lot of tweaking, I got everything working: Start installation starts WinPE, which in turn starts the Windows installation. At first reboot, the Grub4Dos menu comes up, counts 5 seconds and boots the second stage of the installation. Here, I am greeted with the error: "Windows setup could not configure windows to run on this computer's hardware." When I boot into WinPE the normal way (put the bootmgr on the stick root) and change my bios to boot from the primary hdd after first reboot, I don't get this error. I've been looking around, and the only thing I could find was that the BIOS automatically names the boot device hd0, and that Windows can only be run / installed to hd 0. I'm not sure if this is the problem. I read about remapping to solve this problem, but to do that you have to know the phisical location of the hard drive and partition, like hd(0,1). I want this flash drive to work on any PC, regardless of where the OS is installed, so that's not really a possibility. A possible fix I thought of is removing the bootloader from the flash drive when I'm in WinPE. That way, when the pc reboots the BIOS will not see the flash drive as a boot drive and instead boot the primary hdd. I have yet to find a way to do this. Thank you for reading my question, and if you have any suggestion, please do.

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