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  • If I let Google handle my emails for my domain, my Wordpress site won't send out emails anymore

    - by Fulvio
    Since I decided to let Google handle all my emails for my domain, while the domain is hosted on a 3rd party server, emails send out by a Wordpress installation no longer work. My supposition is that since all email is being routed to Google, my specific account on that server for that domain is unable to send out emails. I definitely wish to keep using google services for handling my emails since it comes with all the advantages connected to a Google account. However I need my Wordpress installation to send out administrative emails. I run my server with CPanel. How to configure that specific account and/or Wordpress to keep it able to send out emails? I don't need people to answer these emails sent out from server (eventually I might set a reply-to-address perhaps) thanks

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  • Knowledge Transfer without a Plan

    - by Kanini
    Hello...We are doing work for a particular client managing their CRM implementation. (The CRM itself is a product which has been largely customized to suit my client's needs). Now, they want us to manage the Oracle batch jobs/ETL as well. And for this, they are ready to provide us with Knowledge Transfer. (The Oracle batch jobs/ETL is managed in-house by the client now). After much persuasion, I got one of the Project Lead (designation-wise) to email the client asking for a KT Plan. (The Project Lead kept saying that they have never had KT plans before and all that for which I offered I will draft a template and even that was rejected!). Email from us to them - Can you please share with us the KT Plan? Response from them - Not sure what is expected from my side? The KT is planned for tomorrow from 11 am onwards where Functional knowledge of existing ETL Data migration package will be shared. How do you handle such a client? Most likely what is going to happen is this. The person who is giving the KT will say that I have given complete Knowledge Transfer and we will go back and say that "No, this was not covered. For this, they provided an overview alone and left it at that!" and so on... My Project Lead also did not respond to that email. He just said that the meeting is scheduled to happen at 11 AM (basically repeating whatever the email said and left for the day!). What could I possibly do? PS: Look for another job is a very helpful answer, but I am not looking for it. :-)

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  • Flash doesn't connect to socket even though policy allows it

    - by Bart van Heukelom
    In my Flash app, I'm connecting to my server like this: Security.loadPolicyFile("xmlsocket://example.com:12860"); socket = new Socket("example.com", 12869); socket.writeByte(...); ... socket.flush(); At port 12860 I'm running a socket policy server, which (according to this document) correctly serves up my policy like this: 00000000 3c 70 6f 6c 69 63 79 2d 66 69 6c 65 2d 72 65 71 <policy- file-req 00000010 75 65 73 74 2f 3e 00 uest/>. 00000000 3c 63 72 6f 73 73 2d 64 6f 6d 61 69 6e 2d 70 6f <cross-d omain-po 00000010 6c 69 63 79 3e 3c 73 69 74 65 2d 63 6f 6e 74 72 licy><si te-contr 00000020 6f 6c 20 70 65 72 6d 69 74 74 65 64 2d 63 72 6f ol permi tted-cro 00000030 73 73 2d 64 6f 6d 61 69 6e 2d 70 6f 6c 69 63 69 ss-domai n-polici 00000040 65 73 3d 22 6d 61 73 74 65 72 2d 6f 6e 6c 79 22 es="mast er-only" 00000050 20 2f 3e 3c 61 6c 6c 6f 77 2d 61 63 63 65 73 73 /><allo w-access 00000060 2d 66 72 6f 6d 20 64 6f 6d 61 69 6e 3d 22 2a 22 -from do main="*" 00000070 20 74 6f 2d 70 6f 72 74 73 3d 22 31 32 38 36 39 to-port s="12869 00000080 22 20 2f 3e 3c 2f 63 72 6f 73 73 2d 64 6f 6d 61 " /></cr oss-doma 00000090 69 6e 2d 70 6f 6c 69 63 79 3e 00 in-polic y>. I get no security warnings, which I used to get before the policy server was in place. Still, the connection to port 12869 doesn't work. It's made (I can see with Wireshark and on the server), but no data is sent by Flash. It might be worth knowing that the SWF itself is served from example.com as well.

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  • What is the best practice in regards to building composite dtos off of an aggregate root with domain

    - by Chance
    I'm trying to figure out the best approach/practice for assembling a composite data transfer object off of an aggregate root and would love to hear people's thoughts on this. For example, lets say I have a root that has a few domain objects as children. I want to assemble a specific view dto, based on some business logic, that either has attributes or full dto's of it's objects. What I'm struggling with is trying to figure out where that assembly should happen. I can see it going on the domain object of the aggregate root as there is some business logic associated with it. The benefits of this approach from what I've deduced thus far is that it should reduce the inevitable business logic from bleeding outisde of the domain object. It also allows for private methods that take care of tasks that could become more complex from an external builder. The downsides being that the domain object becomes much more entrenched in the application's workflow and represents much more than just the domain object. It also could become very large in the scenario where you need multiple composite Dtos. Alternatively, I could also see it belonging to some form of transfer object assembler where there is a builder for each domain object. The domain objects would still be responsible for GetDto() and UpdateFromDto(dto). Outside of that, the builder would handle the construction and deconstruction of composite dtos. The downside is kind of mentioned above, where I fear this will easily lead to developers unfamiliar with DDD bleeding a ton of business logic into the assembler which is what I want to desperately avoid. Any thoughts would be greatly apperciated.

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  • Windows Server 2012 Migration (DNS/AD DS Standard Eval to Essentials OEM) P2V -> Do I need a Secondary Domain Controller during migration?

    - by Aubrey Robertson
    This is my first post on this exchange (although not my first on stack exchange), so please have patience. I am a 3rd year student intern, and I have been tasked with virtualizing the server systems at the company I work for. I have come a long way, and I am almost ready to install the VM Server in migration mode. Here is some information: Source Server: Windows Server 2012 Standard Evaluation DNS Server (local only) Advanced Directory Domain Services File and Storage stuff A few other server roles Destination Server: Windows Server 2012 Essentials OEM (Hyper-V client) Running under a temporary Hyper-V host (will migrate the Hyper-V host back to the old machine after the original server is virtualized as a client). Sitting currently at the "Select Installation Mode" screen. I have been following the guides on Microsoft tech net, and today I spent most of the day getting rid of issues in the Best Practices Analyser on the source machine. I have 3 remaining issues (which are all related): ERROR: DNS: DNS servers on Ethernet (adapter name) should include the loopback address, but not as the first entry (flavour text indicates that, during migration, the DNS server may not be found) WARNING: All domains should have at least two domain controllers for redundancy. WARNING: DNS: Ethernet should be configured to use both a preferred and an alternate DNS Server. All of these issues can be resolved by deploying a secondary domain controller, but I have never done that before (see my concerns below). The main issue here that I am concerned with for installing in migration mode is the FIRST one (the error). If I try and set-up the new server deployment, and the adapter domain controller is listed as localhost, then this may cause the installation to fail. (at least, this is what the Microsoft documentation suggests). But I do not have another IP address to enter here as I have no other local domain controllers. So I did the first obvious thing that came to my mind, and tried to use Google DNS servers as my alternates. That did not work because they couldn't recognize other computers in the "forest". Now I'm no expert when it comes to DNS, so please forgive my ignorance. This DNS server is concerned only with Active Directory stuffs for the local network. If I go ahead with migration, and it fails, then I will just have to go ahead and install a secondary DNS server I suppose. The problem I have here is that I am limited by the amount of Windows Server keys I have available (I have 2); however, I do have access to a Linux box running Debian Wheezy that I set-up two weeks ago as a Mantis server. I could install Windows Server 2012 as a secondary DNS (I think) in a VM and use that, but then it seems like I will be wasting time, and probably the Windows key too, and if there's another way to do it with Linux that would be much better. Even better still, do I even need a secondary DNS server for migration at all? The hints said that during migration the original machine "might" not be found. Thank you for your time and consideration.

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  • How to transfer domain from Godaddy to another provider

    - by licorna
    I'm currently using godaddy for all of my company domains, and I'm very unsatisfied with their service, specially with their site, so we are trying to migrate those domains to another provider. The question is, How do I transfer my domains to another domain registrar? I'm not talking about transferring domain records (A, MX...) but to use the same domains with another provider, and redo all the configuration again. For example, one of our blogs is hosted in Slicehost and we feel very confortable with their record editing tool. As I have read prowebmasters I can see other people not very satisfied with Godaddy service. Thanks! edit: Thanks for the answers, they were all very informative.

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  • How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

    - by Wion
    Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

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  • Which is faster, copying everything at once or one thing at a time?

    - by fredley
    I am transferring a bunch (20+) of large (1GB+) files to my external flash drive over USB 2.0. Is it quicker to just sling them all over at once (as in one at a time but not waiting for the previous transfer to finish) so that there are multiple transfers going on, or transfer one, wait for it to finish, transfer the next. The files are coming from a variety of locations so I can't do one single big transfer. Are there any other advantages to one way or the other that are worth considering?

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  • Can't ping devices by IP address for devices allocated IPs by DHCP

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I have a home network with a Trendnet wireless router and a Windows Domain. The Domain Controller/DNS server is a Windows 2000 Server and is configured to forward queries to DNS servers provided by the ISP. The router provides DHCP and is configured with the Windows 2000 Server as the DNS server. The network has been set up for a couple of years and usually works fine. When I connect iPhones to the network over WiFi, the router can ping the iPhones through its browser based admin interface, but Windows machines that are part of the Windows Domain cannot. A laptop was connected to the network over WiFi that wasn't joined to the domain and it could see the iPhones. The router UI shows that the laptop has a reserved IP allocated via DHCP. All machines either have a static or DHCP allocated IP on the 192.168.0.* subnet. Router - 192.168.0.1 - Static - Wired Windows Domain Controller - 192.168.0.8 - Static - Virtual Windows 7 Workstation - 192.168.0.200 - DHCP Auto - Wired VMWare ESXi Host - 192.168.0.201 - Static? - Wired iPhone 1 - 192.168.0.202 - DHCP Auto - WiFi iPhone 2 - 192.168.0.203 - DHCP Auto - WiFi Windows Vista Laptop - 192.168.0.204 - DHCP Reserved - WiFi Using the Windows 7 machine (200), I try to ping each machine and the only DHCP machine that responds is itself. The other DHCP machines fail with Reply from 192.168.0.200: Destination host unreachable.. Using nslookup fails with *** domain.controller.name can't find 192.168.0.203: Non-existent domain. Using the Windows 2000 Domain Controller (8), I try to ping each machine and the only DHCP machine that responds is the Windows 7 machine (200). Pinging the other DHCP machines fails with Request timed out.. Using nslookup also fails with *** domain.controller.name can't find 192.168.0.203: Non-existent domain. Using the iPhone 2 (203), I try to ping (Network Ping Lite) the machines with static IP addresses and that works fine. When I try to ping the Windows 7 machine (200) it is unable to get a response. How do I configure the DNS server/Windows Domain/Router properly so that the Windows Domain machines can see the IPs allocated via DHCP?

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  • Issue with www to non www redirect

    - by bob
    Hello, I am on slicehost and I followed the articles that they gave for DNS redirection and the www to non www url redirection does work. However, what if I want a www.domain.com to be the default domain. Would I put www.domain.com. as my DNS record name or would I keep domain.com. as my DNS record and then do something else. Basically, what happens is if someone goes to the url www.domain.com/directory/something.html they will be redirected to domain.com and not domain.com/directory/something.html I would like the second thing to happen, not just go to domain.com and call it a day. I am running nginx and am confounded on how to solve this issue. I'm not sure whether its an nginx issue or a dns issue. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • DNS subdomain problem - Hover.com

    - by Ryan Sullivan
    I use hover.com to manage my domain names. I have having a huge problem with setting a sub-domain to a specific IP address: I want the sub-domain on a particular domain name that I have. I set an A type record for that sub-domain and pointed it towards the IP address; it is not working at all. The thing that is confusing me is that when I set the IP address to a sub-domain on a different domain name it works just fine. Also, I have since deleted the DNS record from the domain that it happened to work on, and when I type that address into a browser it still resolves to the IP I had it set to. I am not sure what is going on at all. If this seems confusing I am sorry, but I am very confused about the whole thing myself. If any clarification is needed, just ask and I will try to clear things up.

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  • emails not working after domain has been forwarded to new hosting?

    - by jan
    What's the best course of action after the forwarding of domain has been done and apparently the email has been forgotten to be taken into account? I just forwarded the domain to a new server hosting and i forgot to take into account the emails from the old provider? A few concerns arise: the emails won't be lost, right? will pointing the MX records to the old mail server IP address fix this issue right away? Thanks!

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  • apache subdomain configuration

    - by terrid25
    I seem to be having a small problem with setting up a subdomain in apache under CentOS. I have the following: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.domain.co.uk ServerAlias domain.co.uk dev.domain.co.uk DocumentRoot "/var/www/html/domain/web" DirectoryIndex index.php Alias /sf /var/www/html/symfony14/web/sf <Directory "/var/www/html/domain/web"> AllowOverride All Allow from All </Directory> </VirtualHost> <Directory "/var/www/html/symfony14/web/sf"> AllowOverride All Allow from All </Directory> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName test.domain.co.uk DocumentRoot "/var/www/html/domain_test/web" DirectoryIndex index.php Alias /sf /var/www/html/symfony14/web/sf <Directory "/var/www/html/domain_test/web"> AllowOverride All Allow from All </Directory> </VirtualHost> So going to www.domain.co.uk and domain.co.uk display the contents from /var/www/html/domain, but going to test.domain.co.uk also displays the same folder contents. Is this because of the ServerAlias ? Thanks

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  • Domain driven design: Manager and service

    - by ryudice
    I'm creating some business logic in the application but I'm not sure how or where to encapsulate it, I've used the repository pattern for data access, I've seen some projects that use DDD that have some classes with the "Service" suffix and the "manager" suffix, what are each of this clases suppose to take care of in DDD?

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  • Domain policy template won't show any controls

    - by Kingnebula
    I have the following code that i found on the net. The problem is that it adds in nicely with the group policy editor and i can see it's Catogary under administrative controls but it doesn't show any controls for user input. What am i doing wrong here? CLASS USER category EmailStationary POLICY "SetEmailStationary" EXPLAIN "This policy sets the value for stationary" KEYNAME "Software\Microsoft\Office\11.0\Common\MailSettings" PART "What is the new stationary to use" EDITTEXT VALUENAME "NewStationery" END PART END POLICY END category

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  • Following Domain Driven Design with MVVM/WPF

    - by msfanboy
    Hello, I have plain POCOs here and as INotifyPropertyChanged is a Interface for the Views need its implemented in the ViewModel not the Model. Now I want to show validation errors in the View beside every textbox the user typed in data. I do not want to implemented the IDataErrorInfo interface in my Models because lets assume I am not allowed to touch them as they come from another Service/Supplier. I do not want to put my IsCustomerFirstNameLenthValid Method into the Model because I could not have access to it or I just dont want to pollute my Models with interface`s having nothing to do there! How can I validate my naked POCO`s in the ViewModel and forward the results to the View by showing validation errors ?

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  • cross-domain javascript

    - by rutherford
    I am producing a javascript-based widget. Nothing complex just a few document.writes... When I place it inline in the page it renders fine in all browsers. When I place it externally and load it via it fails to render in Firefox and IE but not Chrome. Anyone know why and a possible workaround?

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  • Get domain name (not subdomain) in php

    - by Cyclone
    I have a URL which can be any of the following formats: http://example.com https://example.com http://example.com/foo http://example.com/foo/bar www.example.com example.com foo.example.com www.foo.example.com foo.bar.example.com http://foo.bar.example.com/foo/bar example.net/foo/bar Essentially, I need to be able to match any normal URL. How can I extract example.com (or .net, whatever the tld happens to be. I need this to work with any TLD.) from all of these via a single regex? This is in PHP. Thanks for the help!

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  • deserialization on client sied in Domain Service

    - by ankit
    i have 2 classes. Person and Contact. Person class has property named "ContactNumber" which returns the Contact type, and this property is marked as "Datamember" for serialization. i have marked Contact type as "DAtaContract". on client side i am able to get the values, but when i try to insert a value and then do submit, i get the below exception. Failed to deserialize change-set. Failed to convert value of type 'Dictionary`2' to type 'Contact' Stack Trace is: at System.Web.Ria.DataServiceSubmitRequest.GetChangeSet(DomainService domainService) at System.Web.Ria.DataServiceSubmitRequest.Invoke(DomainService domainService) at System.Web.Ria.DataService.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) can anyone give me the solution ?

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