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  • Obtaining MAC address

    - by rink.attendant.6
    According to Obtain client MAC address in ASP.NET Application, it is not possible. I am not entirely convinced because whenever I connect to Tim Hortons WiFi, my MAC address is known. Occasionally, the network is slow and I see this URL like this before being redirected to the Connect page: http://timhortonswifi.com/cp/tdl3/index.asp ?cmd=login &switchip=172.30.129.73 &mac=60:6c:66:17:1a:83 &ip=10.40.66.229 &essid=Tim%20Hortons%20WiFi &apname=TDL-ON-NEP-02177-WAP1 &apgroup=02177 &url=http%3A%2F%2Fweather%2Egc%2Eca%2Fcity%2Fpages%2Fon-72_metric_e%2Ehtml So according to this URL, the site knows the IP address of the router, my MAC address, the IP address assigned to my device by the router, the network SSID, some other pieces of information, and the URL I was trying to access prior to connecting. There's two options: Tim Hortons WiFi Basic and Tim Hortons WiFi Plus, where the "Plus" option allows me to connect to any Tim Hortons WiFi access point in Canada automatically with this device. Registration requires an email address, so I'm assuming this is possible by checking the MAC address and storing it in a database that routers ping upon connection. More info here. According to the extension of this page, I can safely assume it is ASP. How are they obtaining this information?

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  • dumping the source code for an anonymous function

    - by intuited
    I'm working with a lot of anonymous functions, ie functions declared as part of a dictionary, aka "methods". It's getting pretty painful to debug, because I can't tell what function the errors are happening in. Vim's backtraces look like this: Error detected while processing function NamedFunction..2111..2105: line 1: E730: using List as a String This trace shows that the error occurred in the third level down the stack, on the first line of anonymous function #2105. IE NamedFunction called anonymous function #2111, which called anonymous function #2105. NamedFunction is one declared through the normal function NamedFunction() ... endfunction syntax; the others were declared using code like function dict.func() ... endfunction. So obviously I'd like to find out which function has number 2105. Assuming that it's still in scope, it's possible to find out what Dictionary entry references it by dumping all of the dictionary variables that might contain that reference. This is sort of awkward and it's difficult to be systematic about it, though I guess I could code up a function to search through all of the loaded dictionaries for a reference to that function, watching out for circular references. Although to be really thorough, it would have to search not only script-local and global dictionaries, but buffer-local dictionaries as well; is there a way to access another buffer's local variables? Anyway I'm wondering if it's possible to dump the source code for the anonymous function instead. This would be a lot easier and probably more reliable.

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  • MS SQL Database with clustered GUID PKs - switch clustered index or switch to sequential (comb) GUID

    - by Eyvind
    We have a database in which all the PKs are GUIDs, and most of the PKs are also the clustered index for the table. We know that this is bad (due to the random nature of GUIDs). So, it seems there are basically two options here (short of throwing out GUIDs as PKs altogether, which we cannot do (at least not at this time)). We could change the GUID generation algorithm to e.g. the one that NHibernate uses, as detailed in this post, or we could, for the tables that are under the heaviest use, change to a different clustered index, e.g. an IDENTITY column, and keep the "random" GUIDs as PKs. Is it possible to give any general recommendations in such a scenario? The application in question has 500+ tables, the largest one presently at about 1,5 million rows, a few tables around 500 000 rows, and the rest significantly lower (most of them well below 10K). Furthermore, the application is installed at several customer sites already, so we have to take any possible negative effects for existing customer into consideration. Thanks!

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  • fluent nhibernate select n+1 problem

    - by Andrew Bullock
    I have a fairly deep object graph (5-6 nodes), and as I traverse portions of it NHProf is telling me I've got a "Select N+1" problem (which I do). The two solutions I'm aware of are Eager load children Break apart my object graph (and eager load) I don't really want to do either of these (although I may break the graph apart later as I forsee it growing) For now.... Is it possible to tell NHibernate (with fluentnhib) that whenever i try to access children, to load them all in one go, instead of selectn+1ing as i iterate over them? I'm also getting "unbounded results set"s, which is presumably the same problem (or rather, will be solved by the above solution if possible). Each child collection (throughout the graph) will only ever have about 20 members, but 20^5 is a lot, so i dont want to eager load everything when i get the root, but simply get all of a child collection whenever i go near it Edit: an afterthought.... what if i want to introduce paging when i want to render children? do i HAVE to break my object graph here, or is there some sneakyness i can employ to solve all these issues?

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  • CKEditor plugin to close editor

    - by David Lawson
    The problem with destroying the editor from within a plugin, is that certain code tries to use the editor after the destructive plugin code, when in fact the editor is no longer there, causing errors and instability. I have come up with the following code for a plugin which closes the editor using both async:true and setTimeout: var cancelAddCmd = { modes : { wysiwyg:1, source:1 }, async: true, exec : function( editor ) { if(confirm('Are you sure you want to cancel editing and discard all content?')) setTimeout(function() { editor.destroy(); }, 100); } }; The problem I see is that it uses a dodgy setTimout call that would likely have mixed results depending on the computer's speed of execution - 100ms might not have passed by the time it would be OK to destroy the editor. Is there a proper way to destroy the editor from within a plugin? Even with async: true; and no setTimeout errors are created. Maybe a possible solution would be to stop any existing/any more code related to the editor from running afterwards, if possible? I have tried using events, like on('afterCommandExec', function(){ editor.destroy(); }) and some other events, but that hasn't helped much... doesn't seem like there is an event for when the editor has jumped out of its stack call for handling the button. And there is no way to stop execution by disposing of the CKEditor instance more properly?

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  • How do I encapsulate form/post/validation[/redirect] in ViewUserControl in ASP.Net MVC 2

    - by paul
    What I am trying to achieve: encapsulate a Login (or any) Form to be reused across site post to self when Login/validation fails, show original page with Validation Summary (some might argue to just post to Login Page and show Validation Summary there; if what I'm trying to achieve isn't possible, I will just go that route) when Login succeeds, redirect to /App/Home/Index also, want to: stick to PRG principles avoid ajax keep Login Form (UserController.Login()) as encapsulated as possible; avoid having to implement HomeController.Login() since the Login Form might appear elsewhere All but the redirect works. My approach thus far has been: Home/Index includes Login Form: <%Html.RenderAction("Login","User");%> User/Login ViewUserControl<UserLoginViewModel> includes: <%=Html.ValidationSummary("") % using(Html.BeginForm()){} includes hidden form field "userlogin"="1" public class UserController : BaseController { ... [AcceptPostWhenFieldExists(FieldName = "userlogin")] public ActionResult Login(UserLoginViewModel model, FormCollection form){ if (ModelState.IsValid) { if(checkUserCredentials()) { setUserCredentials() return this.RedirectToAction<Areas.App.Controllers.HomeController>(x = x.Index()); } else { return View(); } } ... } Works great when: ModelState or User Credentials fail -- return View() does yield to Home/Index and displays appropriate validation summary. (I have a Register Form on the same page, using the same structure. Each form's validation summary only shows when that form is submitted.) Fails when: ModelState and User Credentials valid -- RedirectToAction<>() gives following error: "Child actions are not allowed to perform redirect actions." It seems like in the Classic ASP days, this would've been solved with Response.Buffer=True. Is there an equivalent setting or workaround now? Btw, running: ASP.Net 4, MVC 2, VS 2010, Dev/Debugging Web Server I hope all of that makes sense. So, what are my options? Or where am I going wrong in my approach? tia!

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  • Best practice for defining CSS rules via JavaScript

    - by Tim Whitlock
    I'm loading a stylesheet that is only required when javascript is enabled. More to the point, it mustn't be present if JavaScript is disabled. I'm doing this as soon as possible (in the head) before any javascript libraries are loaded. (I'm loading all scripts as late as possible). The code for loading this stylesheet externally is simple, and looks like this: var el = document.createElement('link'); el.setAttribute('href','/css/noscript.css'); el.setAttribute('rel','stylesheet'); el.setAttribute('type','text/css'); document.documentElement.firstChild.appendChild(el); It's working fine, but all my CSS file contains at the moment is this: .noscript { display: none; } This doesn't really warrant loading a file, so I'm thinking of just defining the rule dynamically in JavaScript. What's best practice for this?. A quick scan of various techniques shows that it requires a fair bit of cross-browser hacking. P.S. pleeease don't post jQuery examples. This must be done with no libraries.

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  • Attempting to find a formula for tessellating rectangles onto a board, where middle square can't be

    - by timemirror
    I'm working on a spatial stacking problem... at the moment I'm trying to solve in 2D but will eventually have to make this work in 3D. I divide up space into n x n squares around a central block, therefore n is always odd... and I'm trying to find the number of locations that a rectangle of any dimension less than n x n (eg 1x1, 1x2, 2x2 etc) can be placed, where the middle square is not available. So far I've got this.. total number of rectangles = ((n^2 + n)^2 ) / 4 ..also the total number of squares = (n (n+1) (2n+1)) / 6 However I'm stuck in working out a formula to find how many of those locations are impossible as the middle square would be occupied. So for example: [] [] [] [] [x] [] [] [] [] 3 x 3 board... with 8 possible locations for storing stuff as mid square is in use. I can use 1x1 shapes, 1x2 shapes, 2x1, 3x1, etc... Formula gives me the number of rectangles as: (9+3)^2 / 4 = 144/4 = 36 stacking locations However as the middle square is unoccupiable these can not all be realized. By hand I can see that these are impossible options: 1x1 shapes = 1 impossible (mid square) 2x1 shapes = 4 impossible (anything which uses mid square) 3x1 = 2 impossible 2x2 = 4 impossible etc Total impossible combinations = 16 Therefore the solution I'm after is 36-16 = 20 possible rectangular stacking locations on a 3x3 board. I've coded this in C# to solve it through trial and error, but I'm really after a formula as I want to solve for massive values of n, and also to eventually make this 3D. Can anyone point me to any formulas for these kind of spatial / tessellation problem? Also any idea on how to take the total rectangle formula into 3D very welcome! Thanks!

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  • Highlight a word with jQuery

    - by nickf
    I basically need to highlight a particular word in a block of text. For example, pretend I wanted to highlight the word "dolor" in this text: <p> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit. </p> <p> Quisque bibendum sem ut lacus. Integer dolor ullamcorper libero. Aliquam rhoncus eros at augue. Suspendisse vitae mauris. </p> How do I convert the above to something like this: <p> Lorem ipsum <span class="myClass">dolor</span> sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit. </p> <p> Quisque bibendum sem ut lacus. Integer <span class="myClass">dolor</span> ullamcorper libero. Aliquam rhoncus eros at augue. Suspendisse vitae mauris. </p> Is this possible with jQuery? Edit: As Sebastian pointed out, this is quite possible without jQuery - but I was hoping there might be a special method of jQuery which would let you do selectors on the text itself. I'm already using jQuery heavily on this site, so keeping everything wrapped up in jQuery would make things perhaps a bit more tidy.

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  • How can I get a Silverlight application to check for an update without the user clicking a button?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have made an out-of-browser silverlight application which I want to automatically update every time there is a new .xap file uploaded to the server. When the user right-clicks the application and clicks on Updates, the default is set to "Check for updates, but let me choose whether to download and install them": This leads me to believe that it is possible to make my Silverlight application automatically detect if there is a new .xap file present on the server, and if there is, the Silverlight client will automatically ask the user if he would like to install it. This however is not the case. I upload a new .xap file and the Silverlight application does nothing. Even if I add this to my App.xaml.cs: -- private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { this.RootVisual = new BaseApp(); if (Application.Current.IsRunningOutOfBrowser) { Application.Current.CheckAndDownloadUpdateAsync(); } } and update the .xap file, the Silverlight application does nothing. This information leads me to believe that I have to make a button which the user clicks to see if there is an update. But I don't want the user to have to click a button every day to see if there is an update. I want the application to check by itself if there is a new .xap file and if there is, let the client ask the user if he wants the update. How do I make my Silverlight application check, each time it starts, if there is a new .xap file, and if there is, pass control to the Silverlight client to ask the user if he wants to download it, as the above dialogue implies is possible?

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  • NPTL Default Stack Size Problem

    - by eyazici
    Hello, I am developing a multithread modular application using C programming language and NPTL 2.6. For each plugin, a POSIX thread is created. The problem is each thread has its own stack area, since default stack size depends on user's choice, this may results in huge memory consumption in some cases. To prevent unnecessary memory usage I used something similar to this to change stack size before creating each thread: pthread_attr_t attr; pthread_attr_init (&attr); pthread_attr_getstacksize(&attr, &st1); if(pthread_attr_setstacksize (&attr, MODULE_THREAD_SIZE) != 0) perror("Stack ERR"); pthread_attr_getstacksize(&attr, &st2); printf("OLD:%d, NEW:%d - MIN: %d\n", st1, st2, PTHREAD_STACK_MIN); pthread_attr_setdetachstate(&attr, PTHREAD_CREATE_DETACHED); /* "this" is static data structure that stores plugin related data */ pthread_create(&this->runner, &attr, (void *)(void *)this->run, NULL); EDIT I: pthread_create() section added. This did not work work as I expected, the stack size reported by pthread_attr_getstacksize() is changed but total memory usage of the application (from ps/top/pmap output) did not changed: OLD:10485760, NEW:65536 - MIN: 16384 When I use ulimit -s MY_STACK_SIZE_LIMIT before starting application I achieve the expected result. My questions are: 1-) Is there any portable(between UNIX variants) way to change (default)thread stack size after starting application(before creating thread of course)? 2-) Is it possible to use same stack area for every thread? 3-) Is it possible completely disable stack for threads without much pain?

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  • Pass table as parameter to SQLCLR TV-UDF

    - by Skeolan
    We have a third-party DLL that can operate on a DataTable of source information and generate some useful values, and we're trying to hook it up through SQLCLR to be callable as a table-valued UDF in SQL Server 2008. Taking the concept here one step further, I would like to program a CLR Table-Valued Function that operates on a table of source data from the DB. I'm pretty sure I understand what needs to happen on the T-SQL side of things; but, what should the method signature look like in the .NET (C#) code? What would be the parameter datatype for "table data from SQL Server?" e.g. /* Setup */ CREATE TYPE InTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), Lat FLOAT, Lon FLOAT) GO CREATE TYPE OutTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), NeighborName VARCHAR(50), Distance FLOAT) GO CREATE ASSEMBLY myCLRAssembly FROM 'D:\assemblies\myCLR_UDFs.dll' WITH PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS GO CREATE FUNCTION GetDistances(@locations InTableType) RETURNS OutTableType AS EXTERNAL NAME myCLRAssembly.GeoDistance.SQLCLRInitMethod GO /* Execution */ DECLARE @myTable InTableType INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('aaa', -50.0, -20.0) INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('bbb', -20.0, -50.0) SELECT * FROM @myTable DECLARE @myResult OutTableType INSERT INTO @myResult MyCLRTVFunction @myTable --returns a table result calculated using the input The lat/lon - distance thing is a silly example that should of course be better handled entirely in SQL; but I hope it illustrates the general intent of table-in - table-out through a table-valued UDF tied to a SQLCLR assembly. I am not certain this is possible; what would the SQLCLRInitMethod method signature look like in the C#? public class GeoDistance { [SqlFunction(FillRowMethodName = "FillRow")] public static IEnumerable SQLCLRInitMethod(<appropriateType> myInputData) { //... } public static void FillRow(...) { //... } } If it's not possible, I know I can use a "context connection=true" SQL connection within the C# code to have the CLR component query for the necessary data given the relevant keys; but that's sensitive to changes in the DB schema. So I hope to just have SQL bundle up all the source data and pass it to the function. Bonus question - assuming this works at all, would it also work with more than one input table?

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  • Navigating between pages in a Facebook Platform iframe application

    - by Jimmy Cuadra
    I'm working on a Facebook Platform application that runs in iframe mode, and I'm having trouble understanding how to navigate between pages within the app. Let's say the first page that is loaded within the iframe at my canvas URL is one.html. Within that page, there is a link to two.html that just changes the source of the iframe and doesn't reload the Facebook chrome. When I do this, all the Facebook fb_sig_* query string parameters that Facebook passes to the original page aren't included, and so two.html has no awareness of the connection to Facebook and no ability to make API calls to generate the content for the page. One possible solution would be to manually extract all the Facebook parameters from one.html and append it to the link to two.html myself. This seems really ugly and I figured there had to be a cleaner way. For reference, my application is written in Perl and uses the WWW::Facebook::API module as a client library. I didn't see anything in it that I can use to easily reconstruct the Facebook parameters for use with links in iframe apps. Another possible solution would be to store all the Facebook parameters in a session on my server on the first page load, and just use the values in that session on subsequent page views. But what happens if the data I've stored no longer matches what Facebook would have sent if it were a completely new request (i.e. something in the user's Facebook session changed)? Is there something obvious I'm missing? What is the standard approach to navigating between pages within an iframe app? Facebook's documentation is atrocious and I haven't been able to find anything that clearly explains how this works. I also realize this wouldn't be an issue with an app using FBML instead of an iframe, but my understanding is that iframe apps are now encouraged over FBML apps, though again this seems ambiguous since so much of Facebook's documentation is outdated and contradictory.

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  • Session variables with Cucumber Stories

    - by Matthew Savage
    I am working on some Cucumber stories for a 'sign up' application which has a number of steps. Rather then writing a Huuuuuuuge story to cover all the steps at once, which would be bad, I'd rather work through each action in the controller like a regular user. My problem here is that I am storing the account ID which is created in the first step as a session variable, so when step 2, step 3 etc are visited the existing registration data is loaded. I'm aware of being able to access controller.session[..] within RSpec specifications however when I try to do this in Cucumber stories it fails with the following error (and, I've also read somewhere this is an anti-pattern etc...): Using controller.session[:whatever] or session[:whatever] You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! The error occurred while evaluating nil.session (NoMethodError) Using session(:whatever) wrong number of arguments (1 for 0) (ArgumentError) So, it seems accession the session store isn't really possible. What I'm wondering is if it might be possible to (and I guess which would be best..): Mock out the session store etc Have a method within the controller and stub that out (e.g. get_registration which assigns an instance variable...) I've looked through the RSpec book (well, skimmed) and had a look through WebRat etc, but I haven't really found an answer to my problem... To clarify a bit more, the signup process is more like a state machine - e.g. the user progresses through four steps before the registration is complete - hence 'logging in' isn't really an option (it breaks the model of how the site works)... In my spec for the controller I was able to stub out the call to the method which loads the model based on the session var - but I'm not sure if the 'antipattern' line also applies to stubs as well as mocks? Thanks!

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  • Returning ifstream in a function

    - by wrongusername
    Here's probably a very noobish question for you: How (if at all possible) can I return an ifstream from a function? Basically, I need to obtain the filename of a database from the user, and if the database with that filename does not exist, then I need to create that file for the user. I know how to do that, but only by asking the user to restart the program after creating the file. I wanted to avoid that inconvenience for the user if possible, but the function below does not compile in gcc: ifstream getFile() { string fileName; cout << "Please enter in the name of the file you'd like to open: "; cin >> fileName; ifstream first(fileName.c_str()); if(first.fail()) { cout << "File " << fileName << " not found.\n"; first.close(); ofstream second(fileName.c_str()); cout << "File created.\n"; second.close(); ifstream third(fileName.c_str()); return third; //compiler error here } else return first; } EDIT: sorry, forgot to tell you where and what the compiler error was: main.cpp:45: note: synthesized method ‘std::basic_ifstream<char, std::char_traits<char> >::basic_ifstream(const std::basic_ifstream<char, std::char_traits<char> >&)’ first required here EDIT: I changed the function to return a pointer instead as Remus suggested, and changed the line in main() to "ifstream database = *getFile()"; now I get this error again, but this time in the line in main(): main.cpp:27: note: synthesized method ‘std::basic_ifstream<char, std::char_traits<char> >::basic_ifstream(const std::basic_ifstream<char, std::char_traits<char> >&)’ first required here

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  • Write asynchronously to file in perl

    - by Stefhen
    Basically I would like to: Read a large amount of data from the network into an array into memory. Asynchronously write this array data, running it thru bzip2 before it hits the disk. repeat.. Is this possible? If this is possible, I know that I will have to somehow read the next pass of data into a different array as the AIO docs say that this array must not be altered before the async write is complete. I would like to background all of my writes to disk in order as the bzip2 pass is going to take much longer than the network read. Is this doable? Below is a simple example of what I think is needed, but this just reads a file into array @a for testing. use warnings; use strict; use EV; use IO::AIO; use Compress::Bzip2; use FileHandle; use Fcntl; my @a; print "loading to array...\n"; while(<>) { $a[$. - 1] = $_; } print "array loaded...\n"; my $aio_w = EV::io IO::AIO::poll_fileno, EV::WRITE, \&IO::AIO::poll_cb; aio_open "./out", O_WRONLY || O_NONBLOCK, 0, sub { my $fh = shift or die "error while opening: $!\n"; aio_write $fh, undef, undef, $a, -1, sub { $_[0] > 0 or die "error: $!\n"; EV::unloop; }; }; EV::loop EV::LOOP_NONBLOCK;

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  • Programatically send SMS to email using Verizon Motorola Droid on Android

    - by Dave
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone knew the proper way to send an SMS message to an e-mail address using Verizon's CDMA Motorola Droid phone. The internal messaging application appears to automagically do this. While 3rd party applications like SMSPopup don't seem to be able to properly reply to e-mail addresses unless you compose the message inside the messaging application. When the internal messaging application sends a SMS message there's a corresponding 'RIL_REQUEST_CDMA_SEND_SMS' entry in the logcat (adb logcat -b radio). When you send a SMS to an e-mail address it prints the same thing, so behind the scenes it looks as though it is sending an sms. The interesting thing is that if you look at the content provider sent box the messages are addressed to various 1270XX-XXX-XXXX numbers. On other services you can send e-mail addresses by sending a SMS to a predefined short sms number. And then formatting your SMS as emailaddress subject message i.e. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SMS_gateway#Carrier-Provided_SMS_to_E-Mail_Gateways For example, using T-mobile's number (500) you can send a SMS to an e-mail using the following: SmsManager smsMgr = SmsManager.getDefault(); smsMgr.sendTextMessage("500", null, "[email protected] message sent to an e-mail address from a SMS", null, null); Does anyone know if It is possible to programatically send SMS to email messages from a CDMA Android phone? Does Verizon actually send your replies as SMS messages or are they actually sent as MMS or normal http email messages? Any ideas about how to intercept what the raw message being sent to see what's going on? It might be possible that Verizon somehow generates a fake number temporarily tied to an e-mail address (since repeated messages are not sent to the same number). But, that seems pretty heavy handed. Thanks!

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  • Allowed unicode characters in IDN host labels

    - by Roland Franssen
    Hi all, Im currently working on a "proper" URI validator and currently it all comes down to hostname validation, the rest isnt that tricky. Im stuck at IDN hostname labels (e.g. containing unicode; possible punycode encoded strings have been decoded at this point). My first idea was basicly a regex for TLD's not supporting IDN and one for those who do (http://www.mozilla.org/projects/security/tld-idn-policy-list.html (?)). Respectively; ^[a-zA-Z0-9-]+$ and ^[a-zA-Z0-9-\p{L}]+$ However this is not an ideal situation, since every IDN registrar can decide which characters to allow and which not. What im looking for is a proper, consistent, up2date data table of unicode characters allowed in various TLD's; im getting this idea i have to find all the data myself at russian and chinese registry sites (which is quite difficult). So before spitting down the web.. i wondered is there such a list? Or are there better approaches, best/common practices etc? (I want the validation to be as strict as possible.) Any help is welcome! // Roland

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  • Combine NotifyIcon and ToolTip

    - by Greycrow
    I have been working with NotifyIcon in order to show an icon in the taskbar. This program has no Windows Form. I perhaps could create one and make it invisible but I was hoping to avoid it. The ToolTip functions attached to NotifyIcon are somewhat lacking, and one of the gurus here suggested I look at the ToolTip functionality. It is possible to attach ToolTip to a form. Is is possible to attach it to just the NotifyIcon? I'm trying do this: NotifyIcon CTicon = new NotifyIcon(); ToolTip toolTip = new ToolTip(); toolTip.SetToolTip(CTicon, "Test"); And I get the error "cannot convert from 'System.Windows.Forms.NotifyIcon' to 'System.Windows.Forms.Control'. Is there a way to convert? I also tried: toolTip.SetToolTip(CTicon.Container, "Test"); but a container is apparently not a valid control either. I apologize for my total lack of understanding of how this may or may not work. Thanks in advance.

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  • Regex to remove conditional comments

    - by cnu
    I want a regex which can match conditional comments in a HTML source page so I can remove only those. I want to preserve the regular comments. I would also like to avoid using the .*? notation if possible. The text is foo <!--[if IE]> <style type="text/css"> ul.menu ul li{ font-size: 10px; font-weight:normal; padding-top:0px; } </style> <![endif]--> bar and I want to remove everything in <!--[if IE]> and <![endif]--> EDIT: It is because of BeautifulSoup I want to remove these tags. BeautifulSoup fails to parse and gives an incomplete source EDIT2: [if IE] isn't the only condition. There are lots more and I don't have any list of all possible combinations. EDIT3: Vinko Vrsalovic's solution works, but the actual problem why beautifulsoup failed was because of a rogue comment within the conditional comment. Like <!--[if lt IE 7.]> <script defer type="text/javascript" src="pngfix_253168.js"></script><!--png fix for IE--> <![endif]--> Notice the <!--png fix for IE--> comment? Though my problem was solve, I would love to get a regex solution for this.

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  • Rolling comments inside a log4net file

    - by Maestro1024
    Rolling comments inside a log4net file Is it possible to roll the data inside the log file? So I have an xml config file like <log4net> <appender name="LogFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <ConversionPattern value="%d{yyyy-MM-dd hh:mm:ss} – %-5p: %m%n" /> </layout> <param name="File" value="c:\log.txt" /> <param name="AppendToFile" value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="1" /> <maximumFileSize value="5MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="false" /> </appender> <root> <level value="DEBUG" /> <appender-ref ref="LogFileAppender" /> </root> </log4net> What I want is to have a 5MB file that when it gets to the end will pull off the first line of the file and then add a new line at the end. Is that possible (I do not see it in the documentation)?

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  • CATiledLayer blanking tiles before drawing contents

    - by Greg Plesur
    All, I'm having trouble getting behavior that I want from CATiledLayer. Is there a way that I can trigger the tiles to redraw without having the side-effect that their areas are cleared to white first? I've already subclassed CATiledLayer to set fadeDuration to return 0. To be more specific, here are the details of what I'm seeing and what I'm trying to achieve: I have a UIScrollView with a big content size...~12000x800. Its content view is a UIView backed by a CATiledLayer. The UIView is rendered with a lot of custom-drawn lines Everything works fine, but the contents of the UIView sometimes change. When that happens, I'd like to redraw the tiles as seamlessly as possible. When I use setNeedsDisplay on the view, the tiles redraw but they are first cleared to white and there's a fraction-of-a-second delay before the new content is drawn. I've already subclassed CATiledLayer so that fadeDuration is set to 0. The behavior that I want seems like it should be possible...when you zoom in on the scrollview and the content gets redrawn at a higher resolution, there's no blanking before the redraw; the new content is drawn right on top of the old one. That's what I'm looking for. Thanks; I appreciate your ideas. Update: Just to follow up - I realized that the tiles weren't being cleared to white before the redraw, they're being taken out entirely; the white that I was seeing is the color of the view that's beneath my CATiledLayer-backed view. As a quick hack/fix, I put a UIImageView beneath the UIScrollView, and before triggering a redraw of the CATiledLayer-backed view I render its visible section into the UIImageView and let it show. This smooths out the redraw significantly. If anyone has a better solution, like keeping the redraw-targeted tiles from going away before being redrawn in the first place, I'd still love to hear it.

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  • Flash vs. Ajax Abilities

    - by Alex
    Hey everyone. I want to develop an application that does a bunch of cool stuff. The first thing that I need in it is to get information about the page a person is browsing. With that said, I need for example to know how long a user stayed in a page and where was the scrollbar. While getting that data, It's all saved to a database. The thing is, I prefer doing that in Flash [although I have no experience in it] over Ajax since I want to hide the code - which as far as I know not possible in Javascript/Ajax. So, can I do all that in Flash? - Read the content of the page, get the status of the scroll bar.. Plus, I then need to go threw the gathered information that is saved in the database. Since there could be many calculations i thought C++ .Net is better than PHP [which I know better]. Is that all possible or am I just crazy? :) Thanks ahead.

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  • Is there any danger in calling free() or delete instead of delete[]? [closed]

    - by Matt Joiner
    Possible Duplicate: ( POD )freeing memory : is delete[] equal to delete ? Does delete deallocate the elements beyond the first in an array? char *s = new char[n]; delete s; Does it matter in the above case seeing as all the elements of s are allocated contiguously, and it shouldn't be possible to delete only a portion of the array? For more complex types, would delete call the destructor of objects beyond the first one? Object *p = new Object[n]; delete p; How can delete[] deduce the number of Objects beyond the first, wouldn't this mean it must know the size of the allocated memory region? What if the memory region was allocated with some overhang for performance reasons? For example one could assume that not all allocators would provide a granularity of a single byte. Then any particular allocation could exceed the required size for each element by a whole element or more. For primitive types, such as char, int, is there any difference between: int *p = new int[n]; delete p; delete[] p; free p; Except for the routes taken by the respective calls through the delete-free deallocation machinery?

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  • Multiple sendto() using UDP socket

    - by ereOn
    Hi, I have a network software which uses UDP to communicate with other instances of the same program. For different reasons, I must use UDP here. I recently had problems sending huge ammounts of data over UDP and had to implement a fragmentation system to split my messages into small data chunks. So far, it worked well but I now encounter an issue when I have to send a lot of data chunks. I have the following algorithm: Split message into small data chunks (around 1500 bytes) Iterate over the data chunks list and for each, send it using sendto() However, when I send a lot of data chunks, the receiver only gets the first 6 messages. Sometimes it misses the sixth and receives the seventh. It depends. Anyway, sendto() always indicates success. This always happen when I test my software over a loopback interface (127.0.0.1) but never over my LAN network. If I add something like std::cout << "test" << std::endl; between the sendto() then every frame is received. I am aware that UDP allows packet loss and that my frames might be loss for a lot of reasons and I suppose it has to do with the rate I am sending the data chunks at. What would be the right approach here ? Implementing some acknowledgement mechanism (just like TCP) seems overkill. Adding some arbitrary waiting time between the sendto() is ugly and will probably decrease performance. Increasing (if possible) the receiver UDP internal buffer ? I don't even know if this is possible. Something else ? I really need your advices here. Thank very much.

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