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  • Downloading attachments to directory with IMAP in PHP, randomly works

    - by Nick
    I found PHP code online to download attachments to a directory using IMAP from here. http://www.nerdydork.com/download-pop3imap-email-attachments-with-php.html I modified it slightly changing $structure = imap_fetchstructure($mbox, $jk); $parts = ($structure->parts); to $structure = imap_fetchstructure($mbox, $jk); $parts = ($structure); to get it to run properly, as otherwise I got an error about how stdClass doesn't define a property called $parts. Doing that, I was able to download all the attachments. I tested it again recently though, and it didn't work. Well, it didn't work 6 times, worked the 7th, and then hasn't worked since. I'm thinking it has something to do with me screwing up the parts handling, since count($parts) keeps returning 1 for each message, so it's not finding any attachments I think. Since it downloaded the attachments at one point with no issues, I feel confident that the area things are getting screwed up is right here. Before this block of code is a for loop that goes through each message in the box, and after it is loop that just goes through $parts for each imap structure. Thanks for any help you can provide. I looked at the imap_fetchstructure page on php.net and can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Edit: I just double-checked the folder after typing up my question and it all popped up. I feel like I'm going nuts. I hadn't run the code since a few minutes before I started typing this, and it doesn't make sense to me that it would take this long to trigger. I have some 800 messages in the mailbox, but I figured since it printed my statement at the very end of the PHP that all of the file creation work was done.

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  • Porting some PHP to ColdFusion

    - by Oscar Godson
    OK, I'm working with converting some very basic PHP to port to a dev server where the client only has CF. Ive never worked with it, and I just need to know how to port a couple things: <?php $pageTitle = 'The City That Works'; $mainCSSURL = 'header_url=../images/banner-home.jpg&amp;second_color=484848&amp;primary_color=333&amp;link_color=09c&amp;sidebar_color=f2f2f2'; require('includes/header-inc.php'); ?> I know: <cfinclude template="includes/header-inc.cfm"> but how to i get the var to be passed to the include and then how do I use it on the subsequent included file? Also in my CSS (main.php) I have (at the top): <?php header('Content-type: text/css'); foreach($_GET as $css_property => $css_value) {define(strtoupper($css_property),$css_value);} ?> and im using those constants like this: #main-content a {color:#<?= LINK_COLOR ?>;} How can I get that to work also with CF? Never thought I'd be working with CF :)

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  • Server side form validation and POST data

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I have a user input form here: http://www.7bks.com/create (Google login required) When you first create a list you are asked to create a public username. Unfortuantely currently there is no constraint to make this unique. I'm working on the code to enforce unique usernames at the moment and would like to know the best way to do it. Tech details: appengine, python, webapp framework What I'm planning is something like this: first the /create form posts the data to /inputlist/ (this is the same as currently happens) /inputlist/ queries the datastore for the given username. If it already exists then redirect back to /create display the /create page with all the info previously but with an additional error message of "this username is already taken" My question is: Is this the best way of handling server side validation? What's the best way of storing the list details while I verify and modify the username? As I see it I have 3 options to store the list details but I'm not sure which is "best": Store the list details in the session cookie (I am using GAEsessions for cookies) Define a separate POST class for /create and post the list data back from /inputlist/ to the /create page (currently /create only has a GET class) Store the list in the datastore, even though the username is non-unique. Thank you very much for your help :) I'm pretty new to python and coding in general so if I've missed something obvious my apologies. Tom PS - I'm sure I can eventually figure it out but I can't find any documentation on POSTing data using the webapp appengine framework which I'd need in order to do solution 2 above :s maybe you could point me in the right direction for that too? Thanks! PPS - It's a little out of date now but you can see roughly how the /create and /inputlist/ code works at the moment here: 7bks.com Gist

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  • Discussion - Allowing / blocking user access to pages (Client Side Only!) - Javascript / Jquery

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR Using plain HTML / Javascript (Client Side) I want to prevent viewing of certain pages. The user will have to type a username and password and depending on that they get access to different pages. Answers can NOT include server side whatsoever It does not matter if they can break it easily. There is no sensitive information etc. Also the target audience will not have access to internet OR probably know what a cookie is... At some point the user will have to type username / password.(I can define the cookie here) Currently I thought of using cookies to set a cookie for each page to say "true" / "false" but that would get messy with so many cookies. Or setting an array within a cookie for each page? I have div field "#Content" which as it looks encompasses all of my content on the page so blocking out content will be as simple as replacing it with ("sorry you don't have access") etc. For Example: $.cookie("Access","page1, page2, page3"{ expires: 1 }); I am looking for anyway to do this does not have to be with cookies. Would be nice to get a discussion of different ways this can be done. So the question is: What do YOU think would be a good way to go about doing this with client side validation?

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  • What's the pattern for a JSONP method that was initiated from a jQuery plugin?

    - by michielvoo
    I'm writing a jQuery plugin to render data retrieved from another domain in an element on the page. I follow the typical pattern for my jQuery plugin: $(selector).Plugin(options); In the plugin I get external data using jQuery.getScript(url, [success]). The external data source allows me to define the name of a method and it will wrap the data in a call to that method (JSONP): $.getScript("http://www.example.com/data?callback=global_callback", instance_callback); This effectively results in: <script type="text/javascript"> global_callback(data); </script> The scope of global_callback limits what the Plugin instance can do with the data. And the global_callback method has no knowledge of the selector or options that the plugin was instantiated with. I was thinking that global_callback would just store the data, and the plugin would retrieve the data in instance_callback. But I need to make sure that instance_callback will retrieve the correct data, I foresee a problem with multiple instances of the Plugin. How can I handle this? Thanks!

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  • Javascript changing source of an image

    - by Pete Herbert Penito
    Hi Everyone! I have some javascript which runs a timer that animates something on the website. It all works perfectly but I want to get an image to change when the animation is run, It uses jquery: if(options.auto && dir=="next" && !clicked) { timeout = setTimeout(function(){ if (document.images['bullet1'].src == "img/bulletwhite.png") { document.images['bullet1'].src = "img/bullet.png"; document.images['bullet2'].src = "img/bulletwhite.png"; } animate("next",false); },diff*options.speed+options.pause); } options.auto means that its automatically cycling, dir is the direction of the motion and clicked is whether or not the user clicked it. Is there something wrong with my syntax here? I ran firebug with it, and it doesn't throw any errors, it simply won't work. Any advice would help! I should mention that the src of bullet1 starts at bulletwhite.png and then I was hoping for it to change to bullet.png and have bullet2 change to bulletwhite.png.

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  • What is a good way to assign order #s to ordered rows in a table in Sybase

    - by DVK
    I have a table T (structure below) which initially contains all-NULL values in an integer order column: col1 varchar(30), col2 varchar(30), order int NULL I also have a way to order the "colN" columns, e.g. SELECT * FROM T ORDER BY some_expression_involving_col1_and_col2 What's the best way to assign - IN SQL - numeric order values 1-N to the order table, so that the order values match the order of rows returned by the above ORDER BY? In other words, I would like a single query (Sybase SQL syntax so no Oracle's rowcount) which assigns order values so that SELECT * FROM T ORDER BY order returns 100% same order of rows as the query above. The query does NOT necessarily need to update the table T in place, I'm OK with creating a copy of the table T2 if that'll make the query simpler. NOTE1: A solution must be real query or a set of queries, not involving a loop or a cursor. NOTE2: Assume that the data is uniquely orderable according to the order by above - no need to worry about situation when 2 rows can be assigned the same order at random. NOTE3: I would prefer a generic solution, but if you wish a specific example of ordering expression, let's say: SELECT * FROM T ORDER BY CASE WHEN col1="" THEN "AAAAAA" ELSE col1 END, ISNULL(col2, "ZZZ")

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  • TSQL - make a literal float value

    - by David B
    I understand the host of issues in comparing floats, and lament their use in this case - but I'm not the table author and have only a small hurdle to climb... Someone has decided to use floats as you'd expect GUIDs to be used. I need to retrieve all the records with a specific float value. sp_help MyTable -- Column_name Type Computed Length Prec -- RandomGrouping float no 8 53 Here's my naive attempt: --yields no results SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = 0.867153569942739 And here's an approximately working attempt: --yields 2 records SELECT RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.867153569942739 - 0.00000001 AND 0.867153569942739 + 0.00000001 -- 0.867153569942739 -- 0.867153569942739 In my naive attempt, is that literal a floating point literal? Or is it really a decimal literal that gets converted later? If my literal is not a floating point literal, what is the syntax for making a floating point literal? EDIT: Another possibility has occurred to me... it may be that a more precise number than is displayed is stored in this column. It may be impossible to create a literal that represents this number. I will accept answers that demonstrate that this is the case. EDIT: response to DVK. TSQL is MSSQLServer's dialect of SQL. This script works, and so equality can be performed deterministically between float types: DECLARE @X float SELECT top 1 @X = RandomGrouping FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping BETWEEN 0.839110948199148 - 0.000000000001 AND 0.839110948199148 + 0.000000000001 --yields two records SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE RandomGrouping = @X I said "approximately" because that method tests for a range. With that method I could get values that are not equal to my intended value. The linked article doesn't apply because I'm not (intentionally) trying to straddle the world boundaries between decimal and float. I'm trying to work with only floats. This isn't about the non-convertibility of decimals to floats.

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  • Implementing eval and load functions inside a scripting engine with Flex and Bison.

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    Hy guys, i'm developing a scripting engine with flex and bison and now i'm implementing the eval and load functions for this language. Just to give you an example, the syntax is like : import std.*; load( "some_script.hy" ); eval( "foo = 123;" ); println( foo ); So, in my lexer i've implemented the function : void hyb_parse_string( const char *str ){ extern int yyparse(void); YY_BUFFER_STATE prev, next; /* * Save current buffer. */ prev = YY_CURRENT_BUFFER; /* * yy_scan_string will call yy_switch_to_buffer. */ next = yy_scan_string( str ); /* * Do actual parsing (yyparse calls yylex). */ yyparse(); /* * Restore previous buffer. */ yy_switch_to_buffer(prev); } But it does not seem to work. Well, it does but when the string (loaded from a file or directly evaluated) is finished, i get a sigsegv : Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0xb7f2b801 in yylex () at src/lexer.cpp:1658 1658 if ( YY_CURRENT_BUFFER_LVALUE->yy_buffer_status == YY_BUFFER_NEW ) As you may notice, the sigsegv is generated by the flex/bison code, not mine ... any hints, or at least any example on how to implement those kind of functions? PS: I've succesfully implemented the include directive, but i need eval and load to work not at parsing time but execution time (kind of PHP's include/require directives).

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  • Poco library for c++, declare namespace for custom element

    - by Mikhail
    I want to create an XML document by building a DOM document from scratch, with syntax like: AutoPtr<Document> doc = new Document; AutoPtr<Element> root = doc->createElement("root"); doc->appendChild(root); AutoPtr<Element> element1 = doc->createElementNS("http://ns1", "ns1:element1"); root->appendChild(element1); AutoPtr<Element> element2 = doc->createElementNS("http://ns1", "ns1:element2"); root->appendChild(element2); DOMWriter writer; writer.setNewLine("\n"); writer.setOptions(XMLWriter::PRETTY_PRINT); writer.writeNode(std::cout, doc); But, when I write it, I get next result: <root> <ns1:element1 xmlns:ns1="http://ns1"/> <ns1:element2 xmlns:ns1="http://ns1"/> </root> So namespace ns1 declared two times, and I want to declare it inside "root" element. Is there way to get next representation: <root xmlns:ns1="http://ns1"/> <ns1:element1/> <ns1:element2/> </root>

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  • Is private members hacking a defined behaviour ?

    - by ereOn
    Hi, Lets say I have the following class: class BritneySpears { public: int getValue() { return m_value; }; private: int m_value; }; Which is an external library (that I can't change). I obviously can't change the value of m_value, only read it. Even subclassing BritneySpears won't work. What if I define the following class: class AshtonKutcher { public: int getValue() { return m_value; }; public: int m_value; }; And then do: BritneySpears b; // Here comes the ugly hack AshtonKutcher* a = reinterpret_cast<AshtonKutcher*>(&b); a->m_value = 17; // Print out the value std::cout << b.getValue() << std::endl; I know this is a bad practice. But just for curiosity: is this guaranted to work ? Is it a defined behaviour ? Bonus question: Have you ever had to use such an ugly hack ? Thanks !

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  • Unity Configuration and Same Assembly

    - by tyndall
    I'm currently getting an error trying to resolve my IDataAccess class. The value of the property 'type' cannot be parsed. The error is: Could not load file or assembly 'TestProject' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. (C:\Source\TestIoC\src\TestIoC\TestProject\bin\Debug\TestProject.vshost.exe.config line 14) This is inside a WPF Application project. What is the correct syntax to refer to the Assembly you are currently in? is there a way to do this? I know in a larger solution I would be pulling Types from seperate assemblies so this might not be an issue. But what is the right way to do this for a small self-contained test project. Note: I'm only interested in doing the XML config at this time, not the C# (in code) config. UPDATE: see all comments My XML config: <configuration> <configSections> <section name="unity" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration.UnityConfigurationSection, Microsoft.Practices.Unity.Configuration" /> </configSections> <unity> <typeAliases> <!-- Lifetime manager types --> <typeAlias alias="singleton" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ContainerControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="external" type="Microsoft.Practices.Unity.ExternallyControlledLifetimeManager, Microsoft.Practices.Unity" /> <typeAlias alias="IDataAccess" type="TestProject.IDataAccess, TestProject" /> <typeAlias alias="DataAccess" type="TestProject.DataAccess, TestProject" /> </typeAliases> <containers> <container name="Services"> <types> <type type="IDataAccess" mapTo="DataAccess" /> </types> </container> </containers> </unity> </configuration>

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  • Indentation control while developing a small python like language

    - by sap
    Hello, I'm developing a small python like language using flex, byacc (for lexical and parsing) and C++, but i have a few questions regarding scope control. just as python it uses white spaces (or tabs) for indentation, not only that but i want to implement index breaking like for instance if you type "break 2" inside a while loop that's inside another while loop it would not only break from the last one but from the first loop as well (hence the number 2 after break) and so on. example: while 1 while 1 break 2 'hello world'!! #will never reach this. "!!" outputs with a newline end 'hello world again'!! #also will never reach this. again "!!" used for cout end #after break 2 it would jump right here but since I don't have an "anti" tab character to check when a scope ends (like C for example i would just use the '}' char) i was wondering if this method would the the best: I would define a global variable, like "int tabIndex" on my yacc file that i would access in my lex file using extern. then every time i find a tab character on my lex file i would increment that variable by 1. when parsing on my yacc file if i find a "break" keyword i would decrement by the amount typed after it from the tabIndex variable, and when i reach and EOF after compiling and i get a tabIndex != 0 i would output compilation error. now the problem is, whats the best way to see if the indentation got reduced, should i read \b (backspace) chars from lex and then reduce the tabIndex variable (when the user doesn't use break)? another method to achieve this? also just another small question, i want every executable to have its starting point on the function called start() should i hardcode this onto my yacc file? sorry for the long question any help is greatly appreciated. also if someone can provide an yacc file for python would be nice as a guideline (tried looking on Google and had no luck). thanks in advance.

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  • MS Query Analizer/Management Studio replacement?

    - by kprobst
    I've been using SQL Server since version 6.5 and I've always been a bit amazed at the fact that the tools seem to be targeted to DBAs rather than developers. I liked the simplicity and speed of the Query Analizer for example, but hated the built-in editor, which was really no better than a syntax coloring-capable Notepad. Now that we have Management Studio the management part seems a bit better but from a developer standpoint the tools is even worse. Visual Studio's excellent text editor... without a way to customize keyboard bindings!? Don't get me started on how unusable is the tree-based management hierarchy. Why can't I re-root the tree on a list of stored procs for example the way the Enterprise Manager used to allow? Now I have a treeview that needs to be scrolled horizontally, which makes it eminently useless. The SQL server support in Visual Studio is fantastic for working with stored procedures and functions, but it's terrible as a general ad hoc data query tool. I've tried various tools over the years but invariably they seem to focus on the management side and shortchange the developer in me. I just want something with basic admin capabilities, good keyboard support and requisite DDL functionality (ideally something like the Query Analyzer). At this point I'm seriously thinking of using vim+sqlcmd and a console... I'm that desperate :) Those of you who work day in and day out with SQL Server and Visual Studio... do you find the tools to be adequate? Have you ever wished they were better and if you have found something better, could you share please? Thanks!

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  • jscript1.js error in webforms when applying routing

    - by Sean N
    Hello I have a project using webforms. I applied routing on one of the page. My route is structure like this : http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/ = http://localhost:3576/Request/{role}/{action}/{id} Everything works great but i have a javascript error: Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; InfoPath.2; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729) Timestamp: Fri, 7 May 2010 13:35:54 UTC Message: Syntax error Line: 3 Char: 1 Code: 0 URI: http://localhost:3576/Request/Admin/Rejected/JScript1.js I think it's trying to route to the file where i stored my javascript functions. Any suggestion?

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  • Publishing a WCF Server and client and their endpoints

    - by Ahmadreza
    Imagine developing a WCF solution with two projects (WCF Service/ and web application as WCF Client). As long as I'm developing these two projects in visual studio and referencing service to client (Web Application) as server reference there is no problem. Visual studio automatically assign a port for WCF server and configure all needed configuration including Server And Client binging to something like this in server: <service behaviorConfiguration="DefaultServiceBehavior" name="MYWCFProject.MyService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="MYWCFProject.IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> and in client: <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8731/MyService.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IMyService" contract="MyWCFProject.IMyService" name="WSHttpBinding_IMyService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> </client> The problem is I want to frequently publish this two project in two different servers as my production servers and Service url will be "http://mywcfdomain/MyService.svc". I don't want to change config file every time I publish my server project. The question is: is there any feature in Visual Studio 2008 to automatically change the URLs or I have to define two different endpoints and I set them within my code (based on a parameter in my configuration for example Development/Published).

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  • Passing filtering functions to Where() in LINQ-to-SQL

    - by Daniel
    I'm trying to write a set of filtering functions that can be chained together to progressively filter a data set. What's tricky about this is that I want to be able to define the filters in a different context from that in which they'll be used. I've gotten as far as being able to pass a very basic function to the Where() clause in a LINQ statement: filters file: Func<item, bool> returnTrue = (i) => true; repository file: public IQueryable<item> getItems() { return DataContext.Items.Where(returnTrue); } This works. However, as soon as I try to use more complicated logic, the trouble begins: filters file: Func<item, bool> isAssignedToUser = (i) => i.assignedUserId == userId; repository file: public IQueryable<item> getItemsAssignedToUser(int userId) { return DataContext.Items.Where(isAssignedToUser); } This won't even build because userId isn't in the same scope as isAssignedToUser(). I've also tried declaring a function that takes the userId as a parameter: Func<item, int, bool> isAssignedToUser = (i, userId) => i.assignedUserId == userId; The problem with this is that it doesn't fit the function signature that Where() is expecting: Func<item, bool> There must be a way to do this, but I'm at a loss for how. I don't feel like I'm explaining this very well, but hopefully you get the gist. Thanks, Daniel

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  • Call to a member function num_rows() on a non-object

    - by Patrick
    I need to get the number of rows of a query (so I can paginate results). As I'm learning codeigniter (and OO php) I wanted to try and chain a -num_rows() to the query, but it doesn't work: //this works: $data['count'] = count($this->events->findEvents($data['date'], $data['keyword'])); //the following doesn't work and generates // Fatal Error: Call to a member function num_rows() on a non-object $data['count2'] = $this->events->findEvents($data['date'], $data['keyword'])->num_rows(); the model returns an array of objects, and I think this is the reason why I can't use a method on it. function findEvents($date, $keyword, $limit = NULL, $offset = NULL) { $data = array(); $this->db->select('events.*, venues.*, events.venue AS venue_id'); $this->db->join('venues', 'events.venue = venues.id'); if ($date) { $this->db->where('date', $date); } if ($keyword) { $this->db->like('events.description', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('venues.description', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('band', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('venues.venue', $keyword); $this->db->or_like('genre', $keyword); } $this->db->order_by('date', 'DESC'); $this->db->order_by('events.priority', 'DESC'); $this->db->limit($limit, $offset); //for pagination purposes $Q = $this->db->get('events'); if ($Q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($Q->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } } $Q->free_result(); return $data; } Is there anything that i can do to be able to use it? EG, instead of $data[] = $row; I should use another (OO) syntax?

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  • Accessing a Class Member from a First-Class Function

    - by dbyrne
    I have a case class which takes a list of functions: case class A(q:Double, r:Double, s:Double, l:List[(Double)=>Double]) I have over 20 functions defined. Some of these functions have their own parameters, and some of them also use the q, r, and s values from the case class. Two examples are: def f1(w:Double) = (d:Double) => math.sin(d) * w def f2(w:Double, q:Double) = (d:Double) => d * q * w The problem is that I then need to reference q, r, and s twice when instantiating the case class: A(0.5, 1.0, 2.0, List(f1(3.0), f2(4.0, 0.5))) //0.5 is referenced twice I would like to be able to instantiate the class like this: A(0.5, 1.0, 2.0, List(f1(3.0), f2(4.0))) //f2 already knows about q! What is the best technique to accomplish this? Can I define my functions in a trait that the case class extends? EDIT: The real world application has 7 members, not 3. Only a small number of the functions need access to the members. Most of the functions don't care about them.

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  • How to add objects to NSArray from a different class with ARC

    - by Space Dust
    I needed to convert my code to ARC. I have an NSArray that I use to draw a path. I fill the objects of NSArray values from a different class. Problem is after converting to ARC, NSArray returns always null I can not see what I am doing wrong. bug.h @interface Ladybug : CCSprite <CCTargetedTouchDelegate>{ CCArray *linePathPosition; } @property (nonatomic, strong) CCArray *linePathPosition; @end bug.m @synthesize linePathPosition; -(id) init { if( (self=[super init] )) { self.linePathPosition = [[CCArray alloc] init]; } return self; } -(void) updatePosition:(CGPoint) position { [self.linePathPosition addObject:[NSValue valueWithCGPoint:position]]; NSLog(@"line path %@",linePathPosition); } -(void) breakMoveLadyBug { [self.linePathPosition removeAllObjects]; } In main .m - (void)ccTouchMoved:(UITouch *)touch withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { Ladybug *ladybug1 = (Ladybug *)[self getChildByTag:99]; CCMotionStreak* streak = (CCMotionStreak *)[self getChildByTag:999]; CGPoint touchLocation = [touch locationInView: [touch view]]; CGPoint curPosition = [[CCDirector sharedDirector] convertToGL:touchLocation]; if (ladybug1.isSelected) { streak.position = curPosition; [ladybug1 updatePosition:curPosition]; NSLog(@"Cur position %@",NSStringFromCGPoint(curPosition)); if (!ladybug1.isMoving) { [ladybug1 startMoveLadyBug]; } } } Log: Cur position {331, 110} line path (null) What am I doing wrong? What is the proper way to define and init NSArray with ARC?

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  • Catching / blocking SIGINT during system call

    - by danben
    I've written a web crawler that I'd like to be able to stop via the keyboard. I don't want the program to die when I interrupt it; it needs to flush its data to disk first. I also don't want to catch KeyboardInterruptedException, because the persistent data could be in an inconsistent state. My current solution is to define a signal handler that catches SIGINT and sets a flag; each iteration of the main loop checks this flag before processing the next url. However, I've found that if the system happens to be executing socket.recv() when I send the interrupt, I get this: ^C Interrupted; stopping... // indicates my interrupt handler ran Traceback (most recent call last): File "crawler_test.py", line 154, in <module> main() ... File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/socket.py", line 397, in readline data = recv(1) socket.error: [Errno 4] Interrupted system call and the process exits completely. Why does this happen? Is there a way I can prevent the interrupt from affecting the system call?

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  • Accessing Members of Containing Objects from Contained Objects.

    - by Bunkai.Satori
    If I have several levels of object containment (one object defines and instantiates another object which define and instantiate another object..), is it possible to get access to upper, containing - object variables and functions, please? Example: class CObjectOne { public: CObjectOne::CObjectOne() { Create(); }; void Create(); std::vector<ObjectTwo>vObejctsTwo; int nVariableOne; } bool CObjectOne::Create() { CObjectTwo ObjectTwo(this); vObjectsTwo.push_back(ObjectTwo); } class CObjectTwo { public: CObjectTwo::CObjectTwo(CObjectOne* pObject) { pObjectOne = pObject; Create(); }; void Create(); CObjectOne* GetObjectOne(){return pObjectOne;}; std::vector<CObjectTrhee>vObjectsTrhee; CObjectOne* pObjectOne; int nVariableTwo; } bool CObjectTwo::Create() { CObjectThree ObjectThree(this); vObjectsThree.push_back(ObjectThree); } class CObjectThree { public: CObjectThree::CObjectThree(CObjectTwo* pObject) { pObjectTwo = pObject; Create(); }; void Create(); CObjectTwo* GetObjectTwo(){return pObjectTwo;}; std::vector<CObjectsFour>vObjectsFour; CObjectTwo* pObjectTwo; int nVariableThree; } bool CObjectThree::Create() { CObjectFour ObjectFour(this); vObjectsFour.push_back(ObjectFour); } main() { CObjectOne myObject1; } Say, that from within CObjectThree I need to access nVariableOne in CObjectOne. I would like to do it as follows: int nValue = vObjectThree[index].GetObjectTwo()->GetObjectOne()->nVariable1; However, after compiling and running my application, I get Memory Access Violation error. What is wrong with the code above(it is example, and might contain spelling mistakes)? Do I have to create the objects dynamically instead of statically? Is there any other way how to achieve variables stored in containing objects from withing contained objects?

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  • Any teams out there using TypeMock? Is it worth the hefty price tag?

    - by dferraro
    Hi, I hope this question is not 'controversial' - I'm just basically asking - has anyone here purchased TypeMock and been happy (or unhappy) with the results? We are a small dev shop of only 12 developers including the 2 dev managers. We've been using NMock so far but there are limitations. I have done research and started playing with TypeMock and I love it. It's super clean syntax and lets you basically mock everything, which is great for legacy code. The problem is - how do I justify to my boss spending 800-1200$ per license for an API which has 4-5 competitors that are completly free? 800-1200$ is how much Infragistrics or Telerik cost per license - and there sure as hell isn't 4-5 open source comparable UI frameworks... Which is why I find it a bit overpriced, albeit an awesome library... Any opinions / experiences are greatly appreciated. EDIT: after finding MOQ I thought I fell in love - until I found out that it's not fully supported in VB.NET because VB lacks lambda sub routines =(. Is anyone using MOQ for VB.NET? The problem is we are a mixed shop - we use C# for our CRM development and VB for everything else. Any guidence is greatly appreciated again

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  • "Session is Closed!" - NHibernate

    - by Alexis Abril
    This is in a web application environment: An initial request is able to successfully complete, however any additional requests return a "Session is Closed" response from the NHibernate framework. I'm using a HttpModule approach with the following code: public class MyHttpModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.EndRequest += ApplicationEndRequest; context.BeginRequest += ApplicationBeginRequest; } public void ApplicationBeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(SessionFactory.Instance.OpenSession()); } public void ApplicationEndRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { ISession currentSession = CurrentSessionContext.Unbind( SessionFactory.Instance); currentSession.Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { } } SessionFactory.Instance is my singleton implementation, using FluentNHibernate to return an ISessionFactory object. In my repository class, I attempt to use the following syntax: public class MyObjectRepository : IMyObjectRepository { public MyObject GetByID(int id) { using (ISession session = SessionFactory.Instance.GetCurrentSession()) return session.Get<MyObject>(id); } } This allows code in the application to be called as such: IMyObjectRepository repo = new MyObjectRepository(); MyObject obj = repo.GetByID(1); I have a suspicion my repository code is to blame, but I'm not 100% sure on the actual implementation I should be using. I found a similar issue on SO here. I too am using WebSessionContext in my implementation, however, no solution was provided other than writing a custom SessionManager. For simple CRUD operations, is a custom session provider required apart from the built in tools(ie WebSessionContext)?

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  • Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean?

    - by Alex Worden
    Hi, Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean? I'm trying to refactor some cut/pasted code from two separate projects into a common class. In one of the projects, the code lives in a class I'll call "MyClient" that is being instantiated from Spring. It is injected with another spring-instantiated class "MyRegistry", then the MyClient class uses that class to look up an endpoint. All I really need is the endpoint String in my refactored class, which can be initialized via a Setter. I really cannot have a dependency on MyRegistry from MyClient in the refactored code. So, my question is this... is there a way I can inject the endpoint String from spring that was looked up in the MyRegistry class. So, I currently have: <bean id="registryService" class="foo.MyRegistry"> ...properties set etc... </bean> <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="registry" ref="registryService"/> </bean> But I'd like to have (and I know this is imaginary Spring syntax) <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="endPoint" value="registryService.getEndPoint('bar')"/> </bean> where MyRegistry will have a method getEndPoint(Stirng endPointName) Hope that makes sense from a the standpoint of what I'm trying to achieve. Please let me know if something like this is possible in Spring!

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