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  • WPF ComboBox IsSynchronised Default Value

    - by LnDCobra
    I am trying to display a default value (or even NO value) when selected index is -1, or selecteditem is null. This normally works perfectly fine but when I enable IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem and set it to True, the first value in my DataTable gets displayed. How can I have both IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem ="True" and show no/default value when it is loaded. My Combo Box XAML: <GroupBox Name="ClientGroup" Header="Client" Margin="63,182,0,177" FontSize="14" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="298"> <ComboBox Name="Supplier" Grid.IsSharedSizeScope="True" ItemsSource="{Binding}" IsEditable="True" Text="Please Choose..." TextSearch.TextPath="CompanyName" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" Height="23" VerticalAlignment="Top" Margin="0,6,6,0" FontSize="11" StaysOpenOnEdit="True"> <ComboBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid Margin="0,5,0,5"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="CompanyName" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" SharedSizeGroup="EIC" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Text="{Binding CompanyName}" Grid.Column="0" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding EIC, StringFormat=' ({0})'}" Grid.Column="1" FontFamily="Courier New" FontWeight="Bold" FontSize="12" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemTemplate> </ComboBox> </GroupBox> My CS code behind: ClientGroup.DataContext = (new CompanyDealsDataSetTableAdapters.CompanyTableAdapter()).GetData(); When I start my application it automatically selects the first row in my data table. It works as expected when I remove IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem. Any ideas?

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  • Compiling cpp code in netbeans produce errors, how to solve it ?

    - by Rupertt Wind
    i use the netbeans with MinGW and MYSY make /debugger but when i compile a basic cpp code in it and run it it produces two erorrs this is the code runned and the output![alt text][1] box #include <iostream> void main() { cout << "Hello World!" << endl; cout << "Welcome to C++ Programming" << endl; } output is /usr/bin/make -f nbproject/Makefile-Debug.mk SUBPROJECTS= .build-conf make[1]: Entering directory `/d/Users/Home/Documents/NetBeansProjects/newApp' /usr/bin/make -f nbproject/Makefile-Debug.mk dist/Debug/MinGW-Windows/newapp.exe make[2]: Entering directory `/d/Users/Home/Documents/NetBeansProjects/newApp' mkdir -p dist/Debug/MinGW-Windows g++.exe -o dist/Debug/MinGW-Windows/newapp build/Debug/MinGW-Windows/newmain.o build/Debug/MinGW-Windows/newfile.o build/Debug/MinGW-Windows/main.o build/Debug/MinGW-Windows/newfile.o: In function `main': D:/Users/Home/Documents/NetBeansProjects/newApp/newfile.cpp:5: multiple definition of `main' build/Debug/MinGW-Windows/newmain.o:D:/Users/Home/Documents/NetBeansProjects/newApp/newmain.c:15: first defined here build/Debug/MinGW-Windows/main.o: In function `main': D:/Users/Home/Documents/NetBeansProjects/newApp/main.cpp:13: multiple definition of `main' build/Debug/MinGW-Windows/newmain.o:D:/Users/Home/Documents/NetBeansProjects/newApp/newmain.c:15: first defined here collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make[2]: *** [dist/Debug/MinGW-Windows/newapp.exe] Error 1 make[2]: Leaving directory `/d/Users/Home/Documents/NetBeansProjects/newApp' make[1]: *** [.build-conf] Error 2 make[1]: Leaving directory `/d/Users/Home/Documents/NetBeansProjects/newApp' make: *** [.build-impl] Error 2 BUILD FAILED (exit value 2, total time: 1s) how can i solve this ?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 1 and 2 on Mono 2.4 with Fluent NHibernate

    - by SztupY
    Hi! I'd like to create an application using ASP.NET MVC, that should run under mono 2.4 (compiling will be done on a Windows box). Has anyone getting luck with this? Here is what I've already tried: ASP.NET MVC on mono without any persistence model support, and using nhaml as the view engine S#aml architecture, which is a quite good framework imho, but it depends too much on stuff, that are not working good under mono (like windsor) The first part worked fine, I didn't encounter any major problems. But I couldn't get the second part working. It seems it's dependency on Castle.Windsor breaks the whole mono support (but there might be other parts too). Therefore I decided to create an alternative framework, that borrows some of the ideas of s#arp-architecture, but designed to be working under mono (and if I'm able to do this I'll release it for the community of course). The controller and view part is working fine (not much magic here though, they have been always working), but I have some questions before I start job on the persistence part: What NHibernate versions are working under mono? I've heard 1.2 is working fine. Does 2.0.1/2.1 beta work under mono? Does Fluent.NHibernate and NHibernate.Linq work under mono? (for the latter it seems it needs some dependcies that aren't avaialable in mono) Are there any good alternatives for persistence support to NHibernate under mono? Alternative questions: Are there any frameworks that have mono+persistence+asp.net mvc support already or am I the first one to think about this? If you have already done this: what are your opinions on stability/usability? Thanks for the answers EDIT: Updated the framework to support ASP.NET MVC 2: http://shaml.sztupy.hu/

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  • bottom align text in div with floated H1?

    - by Cliff
    I have a block of text, and inside the block I have an h1 tag floated left. I would like the first line of text to align with the bottom of the first line of text. Here is the sample site: http://myhealthsense.abyteshosting.com/ The block in question is the block under the header that says "Welcome! I am a..." I want the 'Welcome!' to have it's bottom aligned with the rest of the sentence, and for the next line to wrap under the 'Welcome!'. As it is now, there are two lines wrapped to the right of 'Welcome!'. Of course I could do this easily if all the text was together in a line, and I could use spans to set the sizes. But, since this is all generated out of drupal, the content comes as it is. In other words, the text in the block comes from the database, and is generated in a div, but the 'welcome!' has to be in the template. If I put it in the content div, my user will mess it up every time they edit the content. Any hints are appreciated.

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  • How to produce an HTTP 403-equivalent WCF Message from an IErrorHandler?

    - by Andras Zoltan
    I want to write an IErrorHandler implementation that will handle AuthenticationException instances (a proprietary type), and then in the implementation of ProvideFault provide a traditional Http Response with a status code of 403 as the fault message. So far I have my first best guess wired into a service, but WCF appears to be ignoring the output message completely, even though the error handler is being called. At the moment, the code looks like this: public class AuthWeb403ErrorHandler : IErrorHandler { #region IErrorHandler Members public bool HandleError(Exception error) { return error is AuthenticationException; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, ref Message fault) { //first attempt - just a stab in the dark, really HttpResponseMessageProperty property = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); property.SuppressEntityBody = true; property.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.Forbidden; property.StatusDescription = "Forbidden"; var m = Message.CreateMessage(version, null); m.Properties[HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name] = property; fault = m; } #endregion } With this in place, I just get the standard WCF html 'The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.' - which is what would happen if there was no IErrorHandler. Is this a feature of the behaviours added by WebServiceHost? Or is it because the message I'm building is simply wrong!? I can verify that the event log is indeed not receiving anything. My current test environment is a WebGet method (both XML and Json) hosted in a service that is created with the WebServiceHostFactory, and Asp.Net compatibility switched off. The service method simply throws the exception in question.

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  • Seperation of notification confirmation+storage and handling notification asp.net mvc

    - by bastijn
    After a payment from my web application to a 3rd party the 3rd party sends, next to the direct confirmation message, a notification message. This notification message is stored in my database for future use and I have to send a notification confirmed back. For this purpose I currently use a: return Content("received") Which is standard protocol for the service. Currently, I process the incoming notification by first storing it, than handling it (updating account credits etc in my application) and in the end sending a response. This all works well. But I want to seperate handling the notification and storing+responding to the webservice. The problem is that the "return Content()" is ending my controller method and therefore I cannot simply first send the confirmation message back to the webservice and than call my handle_Notification() method. So the solution would be to replace the return Content() part with something equal which doesn't involve a "return", is this possible, as I do not now the complete URL calling I cannot easily create a simple HTTP POST web request (I tried, might have made an error but did not work). Another solution would be to have some kind of timer or listener which either periodically checks for new notifications in the Database which have to be handled or a listener listening to DB new notifications or something. What is the standard procedure on this, if any?

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  • loading js files and other dependent js files asynchronously

    - by taber
    I'm looking for a clean way to asynchronously load the following types of javascript files: a "core" js file (hmm, let's just call it, oh i don't know, "jquery!" haha), x number of js files that are dependent on the "core" js file being loaded, and y number of other unrelated js files. I have a couple ideas of how to go about it, but not sure what the best way is. I'd like to avoid loading scripts in the document body. So for example, I want the following 4 javascript files to load asynchronously, appropriately named: /js/my-contact-page-js-functions.js // unrelated/independent script /js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js // the "core" script /js/jquery.color.min.js // dependent on jquery being loaded http://thirdparty.com/js/third-party-tracking-script.js // another unrelated/independent script But this won't work because it's not guaranteed that jQuery is loaded before the color plugin... (function() { a=[ '/js/my-contact-page-functions.js', '/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js', '/js/jquery.color.js', 'http://cdn.thirdparty.com/third-party-tracking-script.js', ], d=document, h=d.getElementsByTagName('head')[0], s, i, l=a.length; for(i=0;i<l;i++){ s=d.createElement('script'); s.type='text/javascript'; s.async=true; s.src=a[i]; h.appendChild(s); } })(); Is it pretty much not possible to load jquery and the color plugin asynchronously? (Since the color plugin requires that jQuery is loaded first.) The first method I was considering is to just combine the color plugin script with jQuery source into one file. Then another idea I had was loading the color plugin like so: $(window).ready(function() { $.getScript("/js/jquery.color.js"); }); Anyone have any thoughts on how you'd go about this? Thanks!

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  • jQuery not and classes

    - by Giles B
    Hi Guys, I have 2 anchor links (a.selector) and when one is clicked it has a class applied to it of 'active-arrow' and the click also removes the class of the same name from the other anchor as well as lowering the opacity to 0.2. I then want to have a fade effect when the user hovers over the anchor that doesn't have 'active-arrow' applied to it so that it goes to full opacity when mouseenters and back to 0.2 when mouseleaves. The problem im having is that both .not and :not don't seem to be working as expected, the hover effect works but if I click on the anchor whilst hovering the 'active-arrow' class is applied but when mouseleaves the opacity is faded down to 0.2 again even though the 'active-arrow' class is applied. Also the hover then doesn't work for the other a link which has had 'active-arrow' removed. Bit of a hard one to explain so heres some code that hopefully helps a bit. *//If a.selector doesn't have the class 'active-arrow' then run the hoverFade function* $("a.selector").not(".active-arrow").hoverFade(); //Functions for first element $('a.selector-1').click(function () { $('a.selector-2').removeClass('active-arrow'); //Remove background image from corresponding element $('ul#storage-items-2').fadeOut(1200).addClass('hide'); //Fade out then hide corresponding list $(this).addClass('active-arrow', 'fast'); //Add background image to current element $('ul#storage-items-1').removeClass('hide').fadeIn(1800); //Unhide and fade in the list $('a.selector-2').fadeTo(500, 0.2); //Fade corresponding element $(this).fadeTo(800, 1);//Fade this element to full opacity }); I only included the code for teh first anchor (a.selector-1) as the code for the second anchor is identical but just changes the class names to a.selector-2. Also the hoverFade function is in a seperate file so we can re-use it. jQuery.fn.hoverFade = function() { return this.each(function(){ $(this).hover( function () { $(this).fadeTo(500, 0.8); }, function () { $(this).fadeTo(500, 0.2); }); }); } Each anchor link fades in and fades out a UL as well. Any help is most appreciated Thanks Giles

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  • Android:Multi touch doesn't work as expected?

    - by user187532
    Hi folks, Help me in resolving the below issue. I have three image buttons on screen. All these three buttons controlled under ontouchlistner as below. buttonOne.setOnTouchListener(this); buttonTwo.setOnTouchListener(this); buttonThree.setOnTouchListener(this); I override "public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event)". Under this i check for these three image buttons touch events like below. ImageButton imageBtn = (ImageButton) v; if ( imageBtn == buttonOne ) // first button touch ..Log.. else if ( imageBtn == buttonTwo ) ..Log.. else if ( imageBtn == buttonThree ) // first button touch ..Log.. My problem is, as it is under multi touch event handler like above, it does not detect when touch all three button at a time to try to produce multi touch effect, instead it detects only one imagebutton touch at a time even though i touch all three image buttons. As i am developing this project on Android 1.6 SDK, is there any problem accessing my requirement(multi touch) (or) it is a known issue? I am hoping that, when it works for single button touch, why shouldn't it work when clicking three imagebuttons at a time to produce three logs printed as per my above code? How do i resolve it for my case? Please don't question me why i am still developing on 1.6 for such a requirement. Thank you. Appreciate your suggestions !

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  • Tokenizing a string with unequal number of spaces between fields

    - by gatechgrad
    I am tryint to tokenize entries from a file. However I am not able to use the line.split("") option because of unequal number of spaces between files. I am copying a few lines from my file below: "08-09-2010 21:21:46 00:22:7f:a6:9b:69 -79" "08-09-2010 21:21:46 04:4f:aa:b4:49:49 -79" "08-09-2010 21:21:46 04:4f:aa:31:4e:59 tikona 18002090044 -83" "08-09-2010 21:21:46 00:22:7f:26:9b:69 tikona 18002090044 -74" "08-09-2010 21:21:46 04:4f:aa:34:0d:c9 tikona 18002090044 -82" "08-09-2010 21:21:46 04:4f:aa:71:4e:59 -85" "08-09-2010 21:21:46 04:4f:aa:34:21:89 tikona 18002090044 -75" "08-09-2010 21:21:46 04:4f:aa:34:49:49 tikona 18002090044 -77" "08-09-2010 21:21:46 04:4f:aa:74:0d:c9 -85" "08-09-2010 21:22:47 18 APs were seen " I need to access the first column (which is a datetime object) the second column (00:22...) and the last column (-79 etc.). I have no trouble accessing the first and second columns, but not the last column. When I do a info=line.spilt(""), since the third column might or might no entries, I am not able to determine the token number. How do i access the 4th column? Is there a way i can use info[i].contains(" -")?

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  • Design by contract: predict methods needed, discipline yourself and deal with code that comes to min

    - by fireeyedboy
    I like the idea of designing by contract a lot (at least, as far as I understand the principal). I believe it means you define intefaces first before you start implementing actual code, right? However, from my limited experience (3 OOP years now) I usually can't resist the urge to start coding pretty early, for several reasons: because my limited experience has shown me I am unable to predict what methods I will be needing in the interface, so I might as well start coding right away. or because I am simply too impatient to write out the whole interfaces first. or when I do try it, I still wind up implementing bits of code already, because I fear I might forget this or that imporant bit of code, that springs to mind when I am designing the interfaces. As you see, especially with the last two points, this leads to a very disorderly way of doing thing. Tasks get mixed up. I should draw a clear line between designing interfaces and actual coding. If you, unlike me, are a good/disciplined planner, as intended above, how do you: ...know the majority of methods you will be needing up front so well? Especially if it's components that implement stuff you are not familiar with yet. ...keep yourself from resisting the urge to start coding right away? ...deal with code that comes to mind when you are designing the intefaces?

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  • Decisions in teaching someone else to program: language selection

    - by Dinah
    My friend would like for me to guide her into learning programming. She's already proven enormous aptitude for thinking like a programmer but is scared of the idea of programming since in her mind it's relegated to some magical realm accessible only to smart people and trained computer scientists (ironically, I am neither but that's beside the point). My main question is the age-old and irritating question: which language should I chose? I've limited it down to these: PHP: dead simple to start with and I remember enough of the language to answer all novice questions. However, I can think of a million reasons why I wouldn't recommend this as a first language. The most diplomatic of which is that there's no desktop app option to which I would feel comfortable subjecting a novice. Python: supposed to be wonderful for beginners and generally everything I've heard about it screams that this is the correct choice. That's the problem: everything I've heard about it. I don't know it yet and have a lot of projects going on right now so I don't feel like learning it yet -- but I'm going to be the tech-support when any little thing goes wrong. I know there are tons of online resources but in the frustration of the moment, it's always going to be just me. C#: this is the language I'm most comfortable with so I know I can be good tech support. I also love this language and its versatility and community. The big drawback here is that I remember when I first learned it after doing mainly PHP, Perl, and JavaScript and I found the experience overwhelming. You are simultaneously learning: programming concepts, C# syntax, strong typing, OOP, and a complex powerful IDE with a bazillion options and buttons all over it.

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  • Python: speed up removal of every n-th element from list.

    - by ChristopheD
    I'm trying to solve this programming riddle and althought the solution (see code below) works correct, it is too slow for succesful submission. Any pointers as how to make this run faster? (removal of every n-th element from a list)? Or suggestions for a better algorithm to calculate the same; seems I can't think of anything else then brute-force for now... Basically the task at hand is: GIVEN: L = [2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,........] 1. Take the first remaining item in list L (in the general case 'n'). Move it to the 'lucky number list'. Then drop every 'n-th' item from the list. 2. Repeat 1 TASK: Calculate the n-th number from the 'lucky number list' ( 1 <= n <= 3000) My current code (it calculates the 3000 first lucky numbers in about a second on my machine - but unfortunately too slow): """ SPOJ Problem Set (classical) 1798. Assistance Required URL: http://www.spoj.pl/problems/ASSIST/ """ sieve = range(3, 33900, 2) luckynumbers = [2] while True: wanted_n = input() if wanted_n == 0: break while len(luckynumbers) < wanted_n: item = sieve[0] luckynumbers.append(item) items_to_delete = set(sieve[::item]) sieve = filter(lambda x: x not in items_to_delete, sieve) print luckynumbers[wanted_n-1]

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  • Static method , Abstract method , Interface method comparision ?

    - by programmerist
    When i choose these methods? i can not decide which one i must prefer or when will i use one of them?which one give best performance? First Type Usage public abstract class _AccessorForSQL { public virtual bool Save(string sp, ListDictionary ld, CommandType cmdType); public virtual bool Update(); public virtual bool Delete(); public virtual DataSet Select(); } class GenAccessor : _AccessorForSQL { DataSet ds; DataTable dt; public override bool Save(string sp, ListDictionary ld, CommandType cmdType) { } public override bool Update() { return true; } public override bool Delete() { return true; } public override DataSet Select() { DataSet dst = new DataSet(); return dst; } Second Type Usage Also i can write it below codes: public class GenAccessor { public Static bool Save() { } public Static bool Update() { } public Static bool Delete() { } } Third Type Usage Also i can write it below codes: public interface IAccessorForSQL { bool Delete(); bool Save(string sp, ListDictionary ld, CommandType cmdType); DataSet Select(); bool Update(); } public class _AccessorForSQL : IAccessorForSQL { private DataSet ds; private DataTable dt; public virtual bool Save(string sp, ListDictionary ld, CommandType cmdType) { } } } I can use first one below usage: GenAccessor gen = New GenAccessor(); gen.Save(); I can use second one below usage: GenAccessor.Save(); Which one do you prefer? When will i use them? which time i need override method ? which time i need static method?

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  • Beginner question - Loop invariants (Specifically Ch.3 of "Accelerated C++")

    - by Owen
    Hi - as I said, a complete beginner question here. I'm currently working my way through "Accelerated C++" and just came across this in chapter 3: // invariant: // we have read count grades so far, and // sum is the sum of the first count grades while (cin >> x) { ++count; sum += x; } The authors follow this by explaining that the invariant needs special attention paid to it because when the input is read into the variable x, we will have read count+1 grades and thus the invariant will be untrue. Similarly, when we have incremented the counter, the variable sum will no longer be the sum of the last count grades (in case you hadn't guessed, it's the traditional program for calculating student marks). What I don't understand is why this matters. Surely for just about any other loop, a similar statement would be true? For example, here is the book's first while loop (the output is filled in later): // invariant: we have written r rows so far while (r != rows) { // write a row of output std::cout << std::endl; ++r; } Once we have written the appropriate row of output, surely the invariant is false until we have incremented r, just as in the other example? It's probably something really obvious, anyone could enlighten me as to what makes these two cases different, that'd be great - and thanks in advance for taking the time to answer such a complete novice question. Owen

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  • Why is TransactionScope operation is not valid?

    - by Cragly
    I have a routine which uses a recursive loop to insert items into a SQL Server 2005 database The first call which initiates the loop is enclosed within a transaction using TransactionScope. When I first call ProcessItem the myItem data gets inserted into the database as expected. However when ProcessItem is called from either ProcessItemLinks or ProcessItemComments I get the following error. “The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction” I am running this in debug with VS 2008 on Windows 7 and have the MSDTC running to enable distributed transactions. The code below isn’t my production code but is set out exactly the same. The AddItemToDatabase is a method on a class I cannot modify and uses a standard ExecuteNonQuery() which creates a connection then closes and disposes once completed. I have looked at other posting on here and the internet and still cannot resolve this issue. Any help would be much appreciated. using (TransactionScope processItem = new TransactionScope()) { foreach (Item myItem in itemsList) { ProcessItem(myItem); } processItem.Complete(); } private void ProcessItem(Item myItem) { AddItemToDatabase(myItem); ProcessItemLinks(myItem); ProcessItemComments(myItem); } private void ProcessItemLinks(Item myItem) { foreach (Item link in myItem.Links) { ProcessItem(link); } } private void ProcessItemComments(Item myItem) { foreach (Item comment in myItem.Comments) { ProcessItem(comment); } } Here is top part of the stack trace. Unfortunatly I cant show the build up to this point as its company sensative information which I can not disclose. Hope this is enough information. at System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) at System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open()

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  • Why does Http Web Request and IWebProxy work at wierd times

    - by Mike Webb
    Another question about Web proxy. Here is my code: IWebProxy Proxya = System.Net.WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy(); Proxya.Credentials = CredentialCache.DefaultNetworkCredentials; HttpWebRequest rqst = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(targetServer); rqst.Proxy = Proxya; rqst.Timeout = 5000; try { rqst.GetResponse(); } catch(WebException wex) { connectErrMsg = wex.Message; proxyworks = false; } This code fails the first time it is called. After that on successive calls it works sometimes, but not others. It also never hits the catch block. Now the weird part. If I add a MessageBox.Show(msg) call in the first section of code before the GetResponse() call this all will work every time. Here is an example: try { // ========Here is where I make the call and get the response======== System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("Getting Response"); // ========This makes the whole thing work every time======== rqst.GetResponse(); } catch(WebException wex) { connectErrMsg = wex.Message; proxyworks = false; } I'm baffled about why it is behaving this way. I don't know if the timeout is not working (it's in milliseconds, not seconds, so should timeout after 5 seconds, right?...) or what is going on. The most confusing this is that the message box call makes it all work. So any help and suggestions on what is happening is appreciated. These are the kind of bugs that drive me absolutely out of my mind.

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  • - (void)keyboardWasShown not called when switching to another UITextField

    - by Shawn
    I'm having a strange problem that I don't understand. I have a UIScrollView with several UITextField objects. When I switch to the view, I set the first UITextField as firstresponder, and the keyboardWasShown method gets called due to the UIKeyboardDidShowNotification that the view is registered for. The weird thing is, when I touch the next UITextField, the keyboardWasShown method is not called. I don't understand this, since Apple's documentation says "If your interface has multiple text fields, the user can tap between them to edit the values in each one. When that happens, however, the keyboard does not disappear but the system does still generate UIKeyboardDidShowNotification notifications each time editing begins in a new text field." My code I've copied directly from Apple's documentation as well, and it works properly, but it only gets called the first time. What am I missing? - (void)registerForKeyboardNotifications { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(keyboardWasShown:) name:UIKeyboardDidShowNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(keyboardWasHidden:) name:UIKeyboardDidHideNotification object:nil]; } - (void)keyboardWasShown:(NSNotification *)aNotification { //if (keyboardShown) return; NSDictionary* info = [aNotification userInfo]; CGSize kbSize = [[info objectForKey:UIKeyboardBoundsUserInfoKey] CGRectValue].size; CGRect bkgndRect = activeField.superview.frame; bkgndRect.size.height += kbSize.height; [activeField.superview setFrame:bkgndRect]; [scrollView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(0.0, activeField.frame.origin.y) animated:YES]; keyboardShown = YES; UIBarButtonItem *doneButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(done)]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = doneButton; [doneButton release]; }

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  • Navigating between pages in a Facebook Platform iframe application

    - by Jimmy Cuadra
    I'm working on a Facebook Platform application that runs in iframe mode, and I'm having trouble understanding how to navigate between pages within the app. Let's say the first page that is loaded within the iframe at my canvas URL is one.html. Within that page, there is a link to two.html that just changes the source of the iframe and doesn't reload the Facebook chrome. When I do this, all the Facebook fb_sig_* query string parameters that Facebook passes to the original page aren't included, and so two.html has no awareness of the connection to Facebook and no ability to make API calls to generate the content for the page. One possible solution would be to manually extract all the Facebook parameters from one.html and append it to the link to two.html myself. This seems really ugly and I figured there had to be a cleaner way. For reference, my application is written in Perl and uses the WWW::Facebook::API module as a client library. I didn't see anything in it that I can use to easily reconstruct the Facebook parameters for use with links in iframe apps. Another possible solution would be to store all the Facebook parameters in a session on my server on the first page load, and just use the values in that session on subsequent page views. But what happens if the data I've stored no longer matches what Facebook would have sent if it were a completely new request (i.e. something in the user's Facebook session changed)? Is there something obvious I'm missing? What is the standard approach to navigating between pages within an iframe app? Facebook's documentation is atrocious and I haven't been able to find anything that clearly explains how this works. I also realize this wouldn't be an issue with an app using FBML instead of an iframe, but my understanding is that iframe apps are now encouraged over FBML apps, though again this seems ambiguous since so much of Facebook's documentation is outdated and contradictory.

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  • No long-running conversations - IllegalArgumentException: Stack must not be null

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Hi all, I have a very simple application with just 2 pages on WebLogic 10.3.2 (11g), Seam 2.2.0.GA. I have a command button in each, which makes a redirect-after-post to the other. This works well, as I see the URL of the current page I am seeing in the address bar. BUT, even though I have no long-running conversations defined, after a random number of clicks, and - I think - after a random number of seconds (~10s - 60s) I get the lovely exception at the end of this post. Now, if I have understood how temporary conversations work when redirecting this happens: When I first see my application, the url is http://localhost:7001/myapp When I click the button in pageA.xhtml, I end up in "pageB.xhtml?cid=26". This is normal because Seam extends the temporary conversation of the first request to last until the renderResponse phase of the redirect. So, it uses the cid (Conversation Id) of the extended temporary conversation to find any propagated parameters. When I click the button in pageB.xhtml, I end up in pageA.xhtml?cid=26 The same cid was given to the new extended temporary conversation. This is normal because the conversation ended at the end of the previous redirect-after-post, and not the number 26 is free to use as a cid. Is this all correct? If yes, why does this happen: If I re-type the applications home address (showing pageA) and re-click, I end up in pageB.xhtml?cid=29, which is a different number than 26. But 26 has ended after the previous RenderResponse phase, befire I re-types the url. Why is it not used instead of 29? So, to sup up, 2 questions: Why do I get the exception, even though I have not started any long-running conversations? What happens exactly with the cid? On what basis does it change? Cheers,

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  • Perl : get substring which matches regex error

    - by Michael Mao
    I am very new to Perl, so please bear with my simple question: Here is the sample output: Most successful agents in the Emarket climate are (in order of success): 1. agent10896761 ($-8008) 2. flightsandroomsonly ($-10102) 3. agent10479475hv ($-10663) Most successful agents in the Emarket climate are (in order of success): 1. agent10896761 ($-7142) 2. agent10479475hv ($-8982) 3. flightsandroomsonly ($-9124) I am interested only in agent names as well as their corresponding balances, so I am hoping to get the following output: agent10896761 -8008 flightsandroomsonly -10102 agent10479475hv -10663 agent10896761 -7142 agent10479475hv -8982 flightsandroomsonly -9124 For later processes. This is the code I've got so far: #!/usr/bin/perl -w open(MYINPUTFILE, $ARGV[0]); while(<MYINPUTFILE>) { my($line) = $_; chomp($line); # regex match test if($line =~ m/agent10479475/) { if($line =~ m/($-[0-9]+)/) { print "$1\n"; } } if($line =~ m/flightsandroomsonly/) { print "$line\n"; } } The second regex match has nothing wrong, 'cause that is printing out the whole line. However, for the first regex match, I've got some other output such like: $ ./compareResults.pl 3.txt 2. flightsandroomsonly ($-10102) 0479475 0479475 3. flightsandroomsonly ($-9124) 1. flightsandroomsonly ($-8053) 0479475 1. flightsandroomsonly ($-6126) 0479475 If I "escape" the braces like this if($line =~ m/\($-[0-9]+\)/) { print "$1\n"; } Then there is never a match for the first regex... So I'm stuck with a problem of making that particular regex work. Any hints for this? Many thanks in advance.

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  • "Executing SQL directly; no cursor" error when using SCOPE_IDENTITY

    - by Chris
    There wasn't much on google about this error, so I'm askin here. I'm switching a PHP web application from using MySQL to SQL Server 2008 (using ODBC, not php_mssql). Running queries or anything else isn't a problem, but when I try to do scope_identity (or any similar functions), I get the error "Executing SQL directly; no cursor". I'm doing this immediately after an insert, so it should still be in scope. Running the same insert statement then query for the insert ID works fine in SQL Server Management Studio. Here's my code right now (everything else in the database wrapper class works fine for other queries, so I'll assume it isn't relevant right now): function insert_id(){ $x = $this->query_first("SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY('session_log') as insert_id"); echo "($x)"; return $x; } query_first being a function that returns the first result from the first field of a query (basically the equivalent of execute_scalar() on .net). The full error message: Warning: odbc_exec() [function.odbc-exec]: SQL error: [Microsoft][SQL Server Native Client 10.0][SQL Server]Executing SQL directly; no cursor., SQL state 01000 in SQLExecDirect in C:[...]\Database_MSSQL.php on line 110

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  • How to have Android Service communicate with Activity

    - by Scott Saunders
    I'm writing my first Android application and trying to get my head around communication between services and activities. I have a Service that will run in the background and do some gps and time based logging. I will have an Activity that will be used to start and stop the Service. So first, I need to be able to figure out if the Service is running when the Activity is started. There are some other questions here about that, so I think I can figure that out (but feel free to offer advice). My real problem: if the Activity is running and the Service is started, I need a way for the Service to send messages to the Activity. Simple Strings and integers at this point - status messages mostly. The messages will not happen regularly, so I don't think polling the service is a good way to go if there is another way. I only want this communication when the Activity has been started by the user - I don't want to start the Activity from the Service. In other words, if you start the Activity and the Service is running, you will see some status messages in the Activity UI when something interesting happens. If you don't start the Activity, you will not see these messages (they're not that interesting). It seems like I should be able to determine if the Service is running, and if so, add the Activity as a listener. Then remove the Activity as a listener when the Activity pauses or stops. Is that actually possible? The only way I can figure out to do it is to have the Activity implement Parcelable and build an AIDL file so I can pass it through the Service's remote interface. That seems like overkill though, and I have no idea how the Activity should implement writeToParcel() / readFromParcel(). Is there an easier or better way? Thanks for any help.

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  • Big problem with regular expression in Lex (lexical analyzer)

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I have some content like this: author = "Marjan Mernik and Viljem Zumer", title = "Implementation of multiple attribute grammar inheritance in the tool LISA", year = 1999 author = "Manfred Broy and Martin Wirsing", title = "Generalized Heterogeneous Algebras and Partial Interpretations", year = 1983 author = "Ikuo Nakata and Masataka Sassa", title = "L-Attributed LL(1)-Grammars are LR-Attributed", journal = "Information Processing Letters" And I need to catch everything between double quotes for title. My first try was this: ^(" "|\t)+"title"" "*=" "*"\"".+"\"," Which catches the first example, but not the other two. The other have multiple lines and that's the problem. I though about changing to something with \n somewhere to allow multiple lines, like this: ^(" "|\t)+"title"" "*=" "*"\""(.|\n)+"\"," But this doesn't help, instead, it catches everything. Than I though, "what I want is between double quotes, what if I catch everything until I find another " followed by ,? This way I could know if I was at the end of the title or not, no matter the number of lines, like this: ^(" "|\t)+"title"" "*=" "*"\""[^"\""]+"," But this has another problem... The example above doesn't have it, but the double quote symbol (") can be in between the title declaration. For instance: title = "aaaaaaa \"X bbbbbb", And yes, it will always be preceded by a backslash (\). Any suggestions to fix this regexp?

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  • ‘Empty’ results from MQL Query. Freebase Schema: /film/film/starring & /film/actor/film

    - by user1879631
    First post here, so I hope this is enough detail. I started using freebase-python today to get film information for a program that I’m working on. One thing that I need to grab is a list of actors that starred in a film. I’ve followed some tutorials and guides on the way to do this, and can get a list of films for a director or the director of a film, but when I try to do the same with an actor or a film’s cast, I get ‘null’ results. I have the same problem in both Python and the Freebase MQL Query Editor, and you can see what I've tried below. Links to all of the examples below written in the editor can be found here, as Stack Overflow wouldn't let me post links underneath each example on my first post! Working director query in Python: import freebase fb = freebase.mqlread q = {'type':'/film/film', 'name':'Inception', 'directed_by':[]} fb(q) Working director's filmography query in Python: import freebase fb = freebase.mqlread q = {'type':'/film/director', 'name': 'Christopher Nolan', 'film':[]} fb(q) Based on these tests, I tried to do the same with actors, but with odd results: Not working cast list query in Python: import freebase fb = freebase.mqlread q = {'type':'/film/film', 'name':'Inception', 'starring':[]} fb(q) Not working actor's filmography query in Python: import freebase fb = freebase.mqlread q = {'type':'/film/actor', 'name':'Leonardo DiCaprio', 'film':[]} fb(q) Strangely, I get an accurate number of actors/films back, but no names. Does anyone have any idea what the problem might be? Thanks a lot, I'd appreciate any advice.

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