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  • How to check if a child-object is populated

    - by TheQ
    How can i check if a child-object of a linq-object is populated or not? Example code below. My model have two methods, one joins data, and the other does not: public static Member GetMemberWithPhoto(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { DataLoadOptions dataLoadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Member>(x => x.UserPhoto); db.LoadOptions = dataLoadOptions; var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } public static Member GetMember(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } Then my control have the following code: Member member1 = Member.GetMemberWithPhoto(memberId); Member member2 = Member.GetMember(memberId); Debug.WriteLine(member1.UserPhoto.ToString()); Debug.WriteLine(member2.UserPhoto.ToString()); The last line will generate a "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. I know that i can get rid of that exception just by not disposing the datacontext, but then the last line will generate a new query to the database, and i don't want that. What i would like is something like: Debug.WriteLine((member1.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member1.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Debug.WriteLine((member2.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member2.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Is it possible?

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  • How to implement iterator as an attribute of a class in Java

    - by de3
    Hi, let's say I have this simple MyArray class, with two simple methods: add, delete and an iterator. In the main method we can see how it is supposed to be used: public class MyArray { int start; int end; int[] arr; myIterator it; public MyArray(){ this.start=0; this.end=0; this.arr=new int[500]; it=new myIterator(); } public void add(int el){ this.arr[this.end]=el; this.end++; } public void delete(){ this.arr[this.start]=0; this.start++; } public static void main(String[] args){ MyArray m=new MyArray(); m.add(3); m.add(299); m.add(19); m.add(27); while(m.it.hasNext()){ System.out.println(m.it.next()); } } And then MyIterator should be implemented somehow: import java.util.Iterator; public class myIterator implements Iterator{ @Override public boolean hasNext() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } @Override public Object next() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public void remove() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } MyIterator should iterate arr from MyArray class, from start to end values; both are also attributes of MyArray. So, as MyIterator should use MyArray attributes, how should MyIterator be implemented? Perhaps I can send the current object in the initialization: it=new myIterator(this); But I guess it's not the best soultion. Or maybe MyArray itself should implement Iterator interface? How is this solved?

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  • lambda expressions in VB.NET... what am I doing wrong???

    - by Bob
    when I run this C# code, no problems... but when I translate it into VB.NET it compiles but blows due to 'CompareString' member not being allowed in the expression... I feel like I'm missing something key here... private void PrintButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1) { //Context using (ClientOM.ClientContext ctx = new ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text)) { //Get selected list string listTitle = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString(); ClientOM.Web site = ctx.Web; ctx.Load(site, s => s.Lists.Where(l => l.Title == listTitle)); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); ClientOM.List list = site.Lists[0]; //Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, l => l.Fields.Where(f => f.Hidden == false && (f.CanBeDeleted == true || f.InternalName == "Title"))); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); //Get items for the list ClientOM.ListItemCollection listItems = list.GetItems( ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()); ctx.Load(listItems); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); // DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE } MessageBox.Show("Document Created!"); } } but in VB.NET code this errors due to not being allowed 'CompareString' members in the ctx.Load() methods... Private Sub PrintButton_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) If ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1 Then 'Context Using ctx As New ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text) 'Get selected list Dim listTitle As String = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString() Dim site As ClientOM.Web = ctx.Web ctx.Load(site, Function(s) s.Lists.Where(Function(l) l.Title = listTitle)) ctx.ExecuteQuery() Dim list As ClientOM.List = site.Lists(0) 'Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, Function(l) l.Fields.Where(Function(f) f.Hidden = False AndAlso (f.CanBeDeleted = True OrElse f.InternalName = "Title"))) ctx.ExecuteQuery() 'Get items for the list Dim listItems As ClientOM.ListItemCollection = list.GetItems(ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()) ctx.Load(listItems) ' DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE ctx.ExecuteQuery() End Using MessageBox.Show("Document Created!") End If End Sub

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  • A question of long-running and disruptive branches

    - by Matt Enright
    We are about to begin prototyping a new application that will share some existing infrastructure assemblies with an existing application, and also involve a significant subset of the existing domain model. Parts of the domain model will likely undergo some serious changes for this new application, and the endgame for all of this, once the new application has been fully specified and is launch-ready is that we would like to re-unify the models of the two applications (as well as share a database, link functionality, etc.), but for the duration of development, prototyping, etc, we will be using a separate database so that we can change things without worrying about impact to development or use of the existing application. Since it is a prototype, there will be a pretty long window during which serious changes or rearchitecturing can occur as product management experiments with different workflows, different customer bases are surveyed, and we try and keep up. We have already made a Subversion branch, so as to not impact concurrent development on the mature application, and are toying with 2 potential ways of moving forward with this: Use the svn branch as the sole mechanism of separation. Make our changes to the existing domain models, and evaluate their impact on the existing application (and make requisite changes to ProjectA) when we have established that our long-running side branch is stable enough for re-entry to trunk. "Fork" the shared code (temporarily): Copy ProjectA.Entities to NewProject.Entities, and treat all of the NewProject code as self-contained. When all of the perturbations around the model have died down and we feel satisfied, manually re-integrate the changes (as granular or sweeping as warranted) back into ProjectA.Entities, updating ProjectA to use the improved models at each step (this can take place either before or after the subversion merge has occurred). The subversion merge will then not handle recombination of any of the heavy changes here. Note: the "fork" method only applies to the code we see significant changes in store for, and whose modification will break ProjectA - shared infrastructure stuff for example, we would just modify in place (on our branch) and let the merge sort out. Development is hard, go shopping. Naturally, after not coming to an agreement, we're turning it over to the oracle of power that is SO. Any experience with any of these methods, pain points to watch out for, something new entirely?

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  • How to have variables with dynamic data types in Java?

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I need to have a UserProfile class that it's just that, a user profile. This user profile has some vital user data of course, but it also needs to have lists of messages sent from the user friends. I need to save these messages in LinkedList, ArrayList, HashMap and TreeMap. But only one at a time and not duplicate the message for each data structure. Basically, something like a dynamic variable type where I could pick the data type for the messages. Is this, somehow, possible in Java? Or my best approach is something like this? I mean, have 2 different classes (for the user profile), one where I host the messages as Map<K,V> (and then I use HashMap and TreeMap where appropriately) and another class where I host them as List<E> (and then I use LinkedList and ArrayList where appropriately). And probably use a super class for the UserProfile so I don't have to duplicate variables and methods for fields like data, age, address, etc... Any thoughts?

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  • PHP 5.3 and interface \ArrayAccess

    - by Jakub Lédl
    I'm now working on a project and I have one class that implements the ArrayAccess interface. Howewer, I'm getting an error that says that my implementation: must be compatible with that of ArrayAccess::offsetSet(). My implementation looks like this: public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("..."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } So, to me it looks like my implementation is correct. Any idea what is wrong? Thanks very much! The class look like this: class HttpRequest implements \ArrayAccess { // tons of private variables, methods for working // with current http request etc. Really nothing that // could interfere with that interface. // ArrayAccess implementation public function offsetExists($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]); } public function offsetGet($offset) { return isset ($this->params[$offset]) ? $this->params[$offset] : NULL; } public function offsetSet($offset, $value) { if (!is_string($offset)) { throw new \LogicException("You can only assing to params using specified key."); } $this->params[$offset] = $value; } public function offsetUnset($offset) { unset ($this->params[$offset]); } }

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  • Logging in to Wordpress through CodeIgniter DX Authentication

    - by whobutsb
    Hello All, I'm about to start a very large project of rebuilding my companies intranet. The plan is to have most of the intranet live in a CI application. I chose to use CI because i'm very familiar with all the CI methods. Some sections of the intranet are going to be wordpress blogs. For example the Human Resources Dept. and the Marketing Dept will have their own wordpress blogs. Ideally my plan is to log on to the intranet, with a CI authentication library like DXAuth by querying the Active Directory of the company. When I return the AD information for the user I will by saving their group memberships into a session. It would be fantastic if I could have that session information of the user be used by wordpress to log the user as an editor if they are a member of the Marketing Group. And allow users who are not members of the group be able to comment on that blog, with out logging into wordpress. My question is if there are any CI classes or Wordpress Plugins, or tutorals out there, of this sort of integration with the two systems. Thank you for your help!

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  • Obtain reference to View in ActionScript class within ViewNavigatorApplication

    - by chb
    I've got a very simple project in FlashBuilder 4.5. It's a mobile application of type ViewNavigatorApplication with a single view, MapView. In the MapView.mxml file, I've got a Flex component of type Map declared in xml. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:View xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" name="CatBusMapView"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import com.esri.ags.Map; .... ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> .... </fx:Declarations> <esri:Map id="cbm"> ... </esri:Map> </s:View> In this same project, I've an actionscript class called UserGeolocation. In this class, I'm attempting to get a reference to this map component. So far, I can get a reference to the top-level application, its ViewNavigator and the NavigationStack of said ViewNavigator. However, I cannot find a way to access the MapView, much less the map I've declared within it. I'm aware of methods like firstView() and activeView(), but I want an absolute solution, one that retrieves the view regardless of whether or not it's first or active. I've tried navigator.getChildByName("MapView") with no luck.

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  • Iterate over defined elements of a JS array

    - by sibidiba
    I'm using a JS array to Map IDs to actual elements, i.e. a key-value store. I would like to iterate over all elements. I tried several methods, but all have its caveats: for (var item in map) {...} Does iterates over all properties of the array, therefore it will include also functions and extensions to Array.prototype. For example someone dropping in the Prototype library in the future will brake existing code. var length = map.lenth; for (var i = 0; i < length; i++) { var item = map[i]; ... } does work but just like $.each(map, function(index, item) {...}); They iterate over the whole range of indexes 0..max(id) which has horrible drawbacks: var x = []; x[1]=1; x[10]=10; $.each(x, function(i,v) {console.log(i+": "+v);}); 0: undefined 1: 1 2: undefined 3: undefined 4: undefined 5: undefined 6: undefined 7: undefined 8: undefined 9: undefined 10: 10 Of course my IDs wont resemble a continuous sequence either. Moreover there can be huge gaps between them so skipping undefined in the latter case is unacceptable for performance reasons. How is it possible to safely iterate over only the defined elements of an array (in a way that works in all browsers and IE)?

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  • Why won't Internet Explorer (or Chrome) display my 'Loading...' gif but Firefox will?

    - by codeLes
    I have a page that fires several xmlHttp requests (synchronous, plain-vanilla javascript, I'd love to be using jquery thanks for mentioning that). I'm hiding/showing a div with a loading image based on starting/stopping the related javascript functions (at times I have a series of 3 xmlhttp request spawning functions nested). div = document.getElementById("loadingdiv"); if(div) { if(stillLoading) { div.style.visibility='visible'; div.style.display=''; } else { div.style.visibility='hidden'; div.style.display='none'; } } In Firefox this seems to work fine. The div displays and shows the gif for the required processing. In IE/Chrome however I get no such feedback. I am only able to prove that the div/image will even display by putting alert() methods in place with I call the above code, this stops the process and seems to give the browsers in question the window they need to render the dom change. I want IE/Chrome to work like it works in Firefox. What gives?

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  • Dom Traversal to Automate Keyboard Focus - Spatial Navigation

    - by Steve
    I'm going to start with a little background that will hopefully help my question make more sense. I am developing an application for a television. The concept is simple and basically works by overlaying a browser over the video plane of the TV. Now being a TV, there is no mouse or additional pointing device. All interaction is done through a remote control. Therefore, the user needs to be able to visually tell which element they are currently focused upon. To indicate that an element is focused, I currently append a colored transparent image over the element to indicate focus. Now, when a user hits the arrow keys, I need to respond by focusing on the correct elements according to the key pressed. So, if the down arrow is pressed I need to focus on the next focusable element in the DOM tree (which may be a child or sibling), and if they hit the up arrow, I need to respond to the previous element. This would essentially simulate spatial navigation within a browser. I am currently setting an attribute (focusable=true) on any DOM elements that should be able to receive focus. What I would like to do is determine the previous or next focusable element (i.e. attribute focusable=true) and apply focus to the element. I was hoping to traverse the DOM tree to determine the next and previously focusable elements, but I am not sure how to perform this in JQuery, or in general. I was leaning towards trying to use the JQuery tree travesal methods like next(), prev(), etc. What approach would you take to solve this type of issue? Thanks

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  • Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

    - by Dan Tao
    I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

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  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS in NSURLConnection: how to debug?

    - by baswell
    I have an iPhone app that downloads URLs. (PDFs to display) Easy: self.conn = [NSURLConnection connectionWithRequest:self.request delegate:self]; where self.conn is a retained property. For specific URLs, this throws EXC_BAD_ACCESS. The URL is valid and is constructed in the same way as URLs that do work. (90% of URLs are fine) These ones work: http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YARG_11-Mar-2010.pdf http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YARK_11-Mar-2010.pdf These don't: http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YAMK_11-Mar-2010.pdf http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YATN_11-Mar-2010.pdf Spot the difference? Yeah, me neither. Also no difference in response headers from the server for them. To clarify, the ones that work ALWAYS work, the ones that don't NEVER work. So not some random release/retain issue it seems. For the ones that don't work, none of the methods in my delegate are ever called, it fails hard before that. And with no error message, just EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Sooo.... Any way to debug what is going on inside NSURLConnection?

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  • How do I make a lock that allows only ONE thread to read from the resource ?

    - by mare
    I have a file that holds an integer ID value. Currently reading the file is protected with ReaderWriterLockSlim as such: public int GetId() { _fileLock.EnterUpgradeableReadLock(); int id = 0; try { if(!File.Exists(_filePath)) CreateIdentityFile(); FileStream readStream = new FileStream(_filePath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(readStream); string line = sr.ReadLine(); sr.Close(); readStream.Close(); id = int.Parse(line); return int.Parse(line); } finally { SaveNextId(id); // increment the id _fileLock.ExitUpgradeableReadLock(); } } The problem is that subsequent actions after GetId() might fail. As you can see the GetId() method increments the ID every single time, disregarding what happens after it has issued an ID. The issued ID might be left hanging (as said, exceptions might occur). As the ID is incremented, some IDs might be left unused. So I was thinking of moving the SaveNextId(id) out, remove it (the SaveNextId() actually uses the lock too, except that it's EnterWriteLock). And call it manually from outside after all the required methods have executed. That brings out another problem - multiple threads might enter the GetId() method before the SaveNextId() gets executed and they might all receive the same ID. I don't want any solutions where I have to alter the IDs after the operation, correcting them in any way because that's not nice and might lead to more problems. I need a solution where I can somehow callback into the FileIdentityManager (that's the class that handles these IDs) and let the manager know that it can perform the saving of the next ID and then release the read lock on the file containing the ID. Essentialy I want to replicate the relational databases autoincrement behaviour - if anything goes wrong during row insertion, the ID is not used, it is still available for use but it also never happens that the same ID is issued. Hopefully the question is understandable enough for you to provide some solutions..

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  • How to store and collect data for mining such information as most viewed for last 24 hours, last 7 d

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, Let's imagine that we have high traffic project (a tube site) which should provide sorting using this options (NOT IN REAL TIME). Number of videos is about 200K and all information about videos is stored in MySQL. Number of daily video views is about 1.5KK. As instruments we have Hard Disk Drive (text files), MySQL, Redis. Views top viewed top viewed last 24 hours top viewed last 7 days top viewed last 30 days top rated last 365 days How should I store such information? The first idea is to log all visits to text files (single file per hour, for example visits_20080101_00.log). At the beginning of each hour calculate views per video for previous hour and insert this information into MySQL. Then recalculate totals (for last 24 hours) and update statistics in tables. At the beginning of every day we have to do the same but recalculate for last 7 days, last 30 days, last 365 days. This method seems to be very poor for me because we have to store information about last 365 days for each video to make correct calculations. Is there any other good methods? Probably, we have to choose another instruments for this? Thank you.

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • MVC JsonResult with the [Authorize] attribute going to Logon but not displaying the view

    - by likestoski
    I am seeing odd behavior with MVC 3 methods that return a JsonResult when used with the Authorize attribute. What looks like happens is the Authorize is correctly evaluated when I am not logged in but instead of redirecting to the logon form the Json response is the logon form. Is there an addition attribute that directs the response to not return a value but instead redirect the user to the logon form, preferebly with the correct returnUrl value? What I did as a demo was to setup a new MVC3 site and added AspNetMembership to my DB using the aspnet_regsql.exe command. All that is setup and logging me in correctly. The behavior of the JsonResult doesn't seem right and I'm hoping I have just missed an attribute to make it work properly. Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks in advance. Here is the Account Controller (leaving out the Post action which is not part of this question). public class AccountController : Controller { public ActionResult LogOn() { return View(); } [Authorize] public JsonResult AuthorizedAction() { return Json("Only returns if I am authorized"); } } Here is the Html markup: <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.11.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#btnTest").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Account/AuthorizedAction", data: {}, success: function (result) { $("#testMe").html(result); }, error: function (result) { $("#testMe").html('Something broke in the ajax request'); } }); }); }); </script> <input type="button" id="btnTest" value="Test me" /> <div id="testMe">I have initial text</div> The Result: 1) When logged in I get 'Only returns if I am authorized' in my test div 2) When not logged and I have a break point in my Logon() method I see this value Request["returnUrl"] "/Account/AuthorizedAction" The test div I have displays the logon form :) this seems like I'm just not handling this properly.

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  • Page_Load or Page_Init

    - by balexandre
    Let's take a really simple example on using jQuery to ajaxify our page... $.load("getOrders.aspx", {limit: 25}, function(data) { // info as JSON is available in the data variable }); and in the ASP.NET (HTML part) page (only one line) <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="getOrders.aspx.cs" Inherits="getOrders" %> and in the ASP.NET (Code Behind) page public partial class getOrders : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string lmt = Request["limit"]; List<Orders> ords = dll.GetOrders(limit); WriteOutput( Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(ords) ); } private void WriteOutput(string s) { Response.Clear(); Response.Write(s); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); } } my question is Should it be protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) or protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) So we can save some milliseconds as we don't actually need to process the events for the page, or will Page_Init lack of some sorting of a method by the time it is called? P.S. Currently works fine in both methods, but I just want to understand the ins and outs of choosing one method over the other

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  • What new Unicode functions are there in C++0x?

    - by luiscubal
    It has been mentioned in several sources that C++0x will include better language-level support for Unicode(including types and literals). If the language is going to add these new features, it's only natural to assume that the standard library will as well. However, I am currently unable to find any references to the new standard library. I expected to find out the answer for these answers: Does the new library provide standard methods to convert UTF-8 to UTF-16, etc.? Does the new library allowing writing UTF-8 to files, to the console (or from files, from the console). If so, can we use cout or will we need something else? Does the new library include "basic" functionality such as: discovering the byte count and length of a UTF-8 string, converting to upper-case/lower-case(does this consider the influence of locales?) Finally, are any of these functions are available in any popular compilers such as GCC or Visual Studio? I have tried to look for information, but I can't seem to find anything? I am actually starting to think that maybe these things aren't even decided yet(I am aware that C++0x is a work in progress).

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  • Writing a generic function that can take a Writer as well as an OutputStream

    - by ebruchez
    I wrote a couple of functions that look like this: def myWrite(os: OutputStream) = {} def myWrite(w: Writer) = {} Now both are very similar and I thought I would try to write a single parametrized version of the function. I started with a type with the two methods that are common in the Java OutputStream and Writer: type Writable[T] = { def close() : Unit def write(cbuf: Array[T], off: Int, len: Int): Unit } One issue is that OutputStream writes Byte and Writer writes Char, so I parametrized the type with T. Then I write my function: def myWrite[T, A[T] <: Writable[T]](out: A[T]) = {} and try to use it: val w = new java.io.StringWriter() myWrite(w) Result: <console>:9: error: type mismatch; found : java.io.StringWriter required: ?A[ ?T ] Note that implicit conversions are not applicable because they are ambiguous: both method any2ArrowAssoc in object Predef of type [A](x: A)ArrowAssoc[A] and method any2Ensuring in object Predef of type [A](x: A)Ensuring[A] are possible conversion functions from java.io.StringWriter to ?A[ ?T ] myWrite(w) I tried a few other combinations of types and parameters, to no avail so far. My question is whether there is a way of achieving this at all, and if so how. (Note that the implementation of myWrite will need, internally, to know the type T that parametrizes the write() method, because it needs to create a buffer as in new ArrayT.)

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  • Is it possible in SQLAlchemy to filter by a database function or stored procedure?

    - by Rico Suave
    We're using SQLalchemy in a project with a legacy database. The database has functions/stored procedures. In the past we used raw SQL and we could use these functions as filters in our queries. I would like to do the same for SQLAlchemy queries if possible. I have read about the @hybrid_property, but some of these functions need one or more parameters, for example; I have a User model that has a JOIN to a bunch of historical records. These historical records for this user, have a date and a debit and credit field, so we can look up the balance of a user at a specific point in time, by doing a SUM(credit) - SUM(debit) up until the given date. We have a database function for that called dbo.Balance(user_id, date_time). I can use this to check the balance of a user at a given point in time. I would like to use this as a criterium in a query, to select only users that have a negative balance at a specific date/time. selection = users.filter(coalesce(Users.status, 0) == 1, coalesce(Users.no_reminders, 0) == 0, dbo.pplBalance(Users.user_id, datetime.datetime.now()) < -0.01).all() This is of course a non-working example, just for you to get the gist of what I'd like to do. The solution looks to be to use hybrd properties, but as I mentioned above, these only work without parameters (as they are properties, not methods). Any suggestions on how to implement something like this (if it's even possible) are welcome. Thanks,

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  • Dependencyproperty doesn't have value on load

    - by Jakob
    My problem is this, I have a UC called profile that contains another UC called FollowImageControl. In my Profile.xaml i declaretively bind a property of FollowImageControl called FollowerId to a CurrentUserId from Profile.xaml.cs. Problem is that I CurrentUserId is assigned in Profile.xaml.cs; the Profile.xaml code-behind. This means that I do not initially get the FollowerId. I have these methods in the FollowImageControl.xaml.cs: public static readonly DependencyProperty _followUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("FollowUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(FollowImageControl), null); public Guid FollowUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_followUserId); } set { SetValue(_followUserId, value); } } public FollowImageControl() { // Required to initialize variables InitializeComponent(); LoggedInUserId = WebContext.Current.User.UserId; var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); if (ctx.IsFollowingUser(LoggedInUserId, FollowUserId).Value) SwitchToDelete.Begin(); } private void AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { if (LoggedInUserId != FollowUserId) { var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); ctx.FollowUser(FollowUserId, LoggedInUserId); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } THE WEIRD THING IS that when i insert breakpoints the FollowerUserId in FollowImageControl() is 0, but it has a value in AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown, and there is no inbetween logic that sets the value of it. How is this??? Here's a little more code info: This is my binding from profile.xaml <internalCtrl:FollowImageControl FollowUserId="{Binding ElementName=ProfileCtrl, Path=CurrentUserId}" /> this is my constructor in profile.xaml.cs wherein the CurrentUserId is set public static readonly DependencyProperty _CurrentUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(Profile), null); public Guid CurrentUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_CurrentUserId); } set { SetValue(_CurrentUserId, value); } } public Profile(Guid UserId) { CurrentUserId = UserId; InitializeComponent(); Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(Profile_Loaded); } I'm seriously dumbfound that one minute the FollowerId has no value, and the next it holds the right, without me having changed the value in the code-behind.

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  • Handling a mix of server side code and html in a resource file?

    - by Brandon
    I'm trying to convert an ASP.NET web application to use resource files. I haven't used resource files before, so I'm just toying around with them and was wondering if this is possible. I have a message that returns from a search when no results are found, that prompts the user to return to the home page. A lot of these pages have methods to determine what is the proper page to send the user to, so there are many sections with markup similar to this: Sorry, but we could not find an item matching your search criteria. Please adjust your search criteria or <a href="<%= SomeMethodToDetermineUri() %>">return to (SomePage)</a>. So basically, some type of message, followed by a link or a list of links. Getting the message part works fine, it's the server side code to generate links thats the problem. What is the best way to put that into a resource file? It is able to recognize the html link part just fine, but the server side code gets inserted as plain text. Is the only way to break it into 2 resources? (Which seems messy) <%= Resources.Master.NoSearchResultsFound %> <a href="<%= SomeMethodToDetermineUri() %>"> <%= Resources.Master.NoSearchResultsFoundReturnLinkText %> </a>. Or is there a way to get the page to evaluate the server code?

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  • Call instance method with objc_msgSend

    - by user772349
    I'm trying to use the objc_msgSend method to call some method dynamically. Say I want call some method in Class B from Class A and there are two methods in class B like: - (void) instanceTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; + (void) methodTestWithStr1:(NSString *)str1 str2:(NSString *)str1; And I can call the class method like this in Class A successfully: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassB"), sel_registerName("methodTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); And I can call the instance method like this in Class A successfully as well: objc_msgSend([[objc_getClass("ClassB") alloc] init], sel_registerName("instanceTestWithStr1:str2:"), @"111", @"222"); But the thing is to get a instance of Class B I have to call "initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX" instead of "init" so that to pass some necessary parameters to class B to do the init stuff. So I stored a instance of ClassB in class A as variable: self.classBInstance = [[ClassB alloc] initWithXXXXX:XXXXXX:XXXXXX]; And then I call the method like this (successfully): The problem is, I want to call a method by simply applying the classname and the method sel like "ClassName" and "SEL" and then call it dynamically: If it's a class method. then call it like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClass("ClassName"), sel_registerName("SEL")); If it's a instance method, find the existing class instance variable in the calling class then: objc_msgSend([self.classInstance, sel_registerName("SEL")); So I want to know if there is any way to: Check if a class has a given method (I found "responseToSelector" will be the one) Check if a given method in class method or instance method (maybe can use responseToSelector as well) Check if a class has a instance variable of a given class So I can call a instance method like: objc_msgSend(objc_getClassInstance(self, "ClassB"), sel_registerName("SEL"));

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  • Easy HTTPS to PHP script

    - by Tom
    Hi, here is my scenario: I have a website with php, mySQL. I have a software application that has a login screen and sends usernames and passwords over the web by http: public String GetWebPageSource(String pURL) { try { byte[] vReceivedBytes = null; using (System.Net.WebClient vWebClient = new System.Net.WebClient()) { vReceivedBytes = vWebClient.DownloadData(pURL); } int vBomLen = 3; byte[] vStrippedBytes = new byte[vReceivedBytes.Length - vBomLen]; Array.Copy(vReceivedBytes, vBomLen, vStrippedBytes, 0, vReceivedBytes.Length - vBomLen); return System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetString(vStrippedBytes); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message); return null; } } So to send a username and password I would write: GetWebPageSource("http://mywebsite.com/Login.php?username=stackoverflow&password=iscool") and the php file would spit out some text saying whether the password is accepted or denied. However this is NOT secure. So I want to make it secure... https. How easy is it to integrate https? How much will the code change? How much do I have to handle? What is transparent to me. Do I have to check if a cookie already exists and if not write the methods for authentication or is there librarys already provided that will do it for me?

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