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  • MVC JsonResult with the [Authorize] attribute going to Logon but not displaying the view

    - by likestoski
    I am seeing odd behavior with MVC 3 methods that return a JsonResult when used with the Authorize attribute. What looks like happens is the Authorize is correctly evaluated when I am not logged in but instead of redirecting to the logon form the Json response is the logon form. Is there an addition attribute that directs the response to not return a value but instead redirect the user to the logon form, preferebly with the correct returnUrl value? What I did as a demo was to setup a new MVC3 site and added AspNetMembership to my DB using the aspnet_regsql.exe command. All that is setup and logging me in correctly. The behavior of the JsonResult doesn't seem right and I'm hoping I have just missed an attribute to make it work properly. Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks in advance. Here is the Account Controller (leaving out the Post action which is not part of this question). public class AccountController : Controller { public ActionResult LogOn() { return View(); } [Authorize] public JsonResult AuthorizedAction() { return Json("Only returns if I am authorized"); } } Here is the Html markup: <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.11.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#btnTest").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Account/AuthorizedAction", data: {}, success: function (result) { $("#testMe").html(result); }, error: function (result) { $("#testMe").html('Something broke in the ajax request'); } }); }); }); </script> <input type="button" id="btnTest" value="Test me" /> <div id="testMe">I have initial text</div> The Result: 1) When logged in I get 'Only returns if I am authorized' in my test div 2) When not logged and I have a break point in my Logon() method I see this value Request["returnUrl"] "/Account/AuthorizedAction" The test div I have displays the logon form :) this seems like I'm just not handling this properly.

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  • How to use accessors within the same class in Objective C?

    - by Azeworai
    Hi, I have a few properties defined in my header file like so @property (assign) bool connectivity_N; @property (assign) bool isConnected_N; In my implementation file I have an init and the synthesized properties like so @implementation Map @synthesize connectivity_N; @synthesize isConnected_N; a init to set the initial values like so -(id) init { if( (self=[super init]) ) { //initialise default properties self.connectivity_N=NO; self.isConnected_N=NO; } return self; } I'm running into an error that states Error: accessing unknown 'connectivity_N' class method. In this public method within the class +(bool) isConnectable:(directions) theDirection{ bool isTheDirectionConnectable= NO; switch (theDirection) { case north: isTheDirectionConnectable= self.connectivity_N; break; I'm not sure why is this so as I'm trying to grab the value of the property. According to the apple developer documentation "The default names for the getter and setter methods associated with a property are propertyName and setPropertyName: respectively—for example, given a property “foo”, the accessors would be foo and setFoo:" That has given me a clue that I've done something wrong here, I'm fairly new to objective C so would appreciate anyone who spends the time to explain this to me. Thanks!

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  • Is Safari on iOS 6 caching $.ajax results?

    - by user1684978
    Since the upgrade to iOS 6, we are seeing Safari's web view take the liberty of caching $.ajax calls. This is in the context of a PhoneGap application so it is using the Safari WebView. Our $.ajax calls are POST methods and we have cache set to false {cache:false}, but still this is happening. We tried manually adding a timestamp to the headers but it did not help. We did more research and found that Safari is only returning cached results for web services that have a function signature that is static and does not change from call to call. For instance, imagine a function called something like: getNewRecordID(intRecordType) This function receives the same input parameters over and over again, but the data it returns should be different every time. Must be in Apple's haste to make iOS 6 zip along impressively they got too happy with the cache settings. Has anyone else seen this behavior on iOS 6? If so, what exactly is causing it? The workaround that we found was to modify the function signature to be something like this: getNewRecordID(intRecordType, strTimestamp) and then always pass in a timestamp parameter as well, and just discard that value on the server side. This works around the issue. I hope this helps some other poor soul who spends 15 hours on this issue like I did!

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  • Using map() on a _set in a template?

    - by Stuart Grimshaw
    I have two models like this: class KPI(models.Model): """KPI model to hold the basic info on a Key Performance Indicator""" title = models.CharField(blank=False, max_length=100) description = models.TextField(blank=True) target = models.FloatField(blank=False, null=False) group = models.ForeignKey(KpiGroup) subGroup = models.ForeignKey(KpiSubGroup, null=True) unit = models.TextField(blank=True) owner = models.ForeignKey(User) bt_measure = models.BooleanField(default=False) class KpiHistory(models.Model): """A historical log of previous KPI values.""" kpi = models.ForeignKey(KPI) measure = models.FloatField(blank=False, null=False) kpi_date = models.DateField() and I'm using RGraph to display the stats on internal wallboards, the handy thing is Python lists get output in a format that Javascript sees as an array, so by mapping all the values into a list like this: def f(x): return float(x.measure) stats = map(f, KpiHistory.objects.filter(kpi=1) then in the template I can simply use {{ stats }} and the RGraph code sees it as an array which is exactly what I want. [87.0, 87.5, 88.5, 90] So my question is this, is there any way I can achieve the same effect using Django's _set functionality to keep the amount of data I'm passing into the template, up until now I've been passing in a single KPI object to be graphed but now I want to pass in a whole bunch so is there anything I can do with _set {{ kpi.kpihistory_set }} dumps the whole model out, but I just want the measure field. I can't see any of the built in template methods that will let me pull out just the single field I want. How have other people handled this situation?

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  • Most efficient way of checking if Date object and Calendar object are in the same month

    - by Indigenuity
    I am working on a project that will run many thousands of comparisons between dates to see if they are in the same month, and I am wondering what the most efficient way of doing it would be. This isn't exactly what my code looks like, but here's the gist: List<Date> dates = getABunchOfDates(); Calendar month = Calendar.getInstance(); for(int i = 0; i < numMonths; i++) { for(Date date : dates) { if(sameMonth(month, date) .. doSomething } month.add(Calendar.MONTH, -1); } Creating a new Calendar object for every date seems like a pretty hefty overhead when this comparison will happen thousands of times, soI kind of want to cheat a bit and use the deprecated method Date.getMonth() and Date.getYear() public static boolean sameMonth(Calendar month, Date date) { return month.get(Calendar.YEAR) == date.getYear() && month.get(Calendar.MONTH) == date.getMonth(); } I'm pretty close to just using this method, since it seems to be the fastest, but is there a faster way? And is this a foolish way, since the Date methods are deprecated? Note: This project will always run with Java 7

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  • Why the databinding fails in ListView (WPF) ?

    - by Ashish Ashu
    I have a ListView of which ItemSource is set to my Custom Collection. I have defined a GridView CellTemplate that contains a combo box as below : <ListView MaxWidth="850" Grid.Row="1" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedCondition}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = Conditions}" FontWeight="Normal" FontSize="11" Name="listview"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Width="175" Header="Type"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox Style="{x:Null}" x:Name="TypeCmbox" Height="Auto" Width="150" SelectedValuePath="Key" DisplayMemberPath="Value" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = MyType}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = MyTypes}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </ListView> My Custom collection is the ObservableCollection. I have a two buttons - Move Up and Move Down on top of the listview control . When user clicks on the Move Up or Move Down button I call MoveUp and MoveDown methods of Observable Collection. But when I Move Up and Move Down the rows then the Selected Index of a combo box is -1. I have ensured that selectedItem is not equal to null when performing Move Up and Move Down commands. Please Help!!

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  • Creating serializeable unique compile-time identifiers for arbitrary UDT's.

    - by Endiannes
    I would like a generic way to create unique compile-time identifiers for any C++ user defined types. for example: unique_id<my_type>::value == 0 // true unique_id<other_type>::value == 1 // true I've managed to implement something like this using preprocessor meta programming, the problem is, serialization is not consistent. For instance if the class template unique_id is instantiated with other_type first, then any serialization in previous revisions of my program will be invalidated. I've searched for solutions to this problem, and found several ways to implement this with non-consistent serialization if the unique values are compile-time constants. If RTTI or similar methods, like boost::sp_typeinfo are used, then the unique values are obviously not compile-time constants and extra overhead is present. An ad-hoc solution to this problem would be, instantiating all of the unique_id's in a separate header in the correct order, but this causes additional maintenance and boilerplate code, which is not different than using an enum unique_id{my_type, other_type};. A good solution to this problem would be using user-defined literals, unfortunately, as far as I know, no compiler supports them at this moment. The syntax would be 'my_type'_id; 'other_type'_id; with udl's. I'm hoping somebody knows a trick that allows implementing serialize-able unique identifiers in C++ with the current standard (C++03/C++0x), I would be happy if it works with the latest stable MSVC and GNU-G++ compilers, although I expect if there is a solution, it's not portable.

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  • lambda expressions in VB.NET... what am I doing wrong???

    - by Bob
    when I run this C# code, no problems... but when I translate it into VB.NET it compiles but blows due to 'CompareString' member not being allowed in the expression... I feel like I'm missing something key here... private void PrintButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1) { //Context using (ClientOM.ClientContext ctx = new ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text)) { //Get selected list string listTitle = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString(); ClientOM.Web site = ctx.Web; ctx.Load(site, s => s.Lists.Where(l => l.Title == listTitle)); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); ClientOM.List list = site.Lists[0]; //Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, l => l.Fields.Where(f => f.Hidden == false && (f.CanBeDeleted == true || f.InternalName == "Title"))); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); //Get items for the list ClientOM.ListItemCollection listItems = list.GetItems( ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()); ctx.Load(listItems); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); // DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE } MessageBox.Show("Document Created!"); } } but in VB.NET code this errors due to not being allowed 'CompareString' members in the ctx.Load() methods... Private Sub PrintButton_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) If ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1 Then 'Context Using ctx As New ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text) 'Get selected list Dim listTitle As String = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString() Dim site As ClientOM.Web = ctx.Web ctx.Load(site, Function(s) s.Lists.Where(Function(l) l.Title = listTitle)) ctx.ExecuteQuery() Dim list As ClientOM.List = site.Lists(0) 'Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, Function(l) l.Fields.Where(Function(f) f.Hidden = False AndAlso (f.CanBeDeleted = True OrElse f.InternalName = "Title"))) ctx.ExecuteQuery() 'Get items for the list Dim listItems As ClientOM.ListItemCollection = list.GetItems(ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()) ctx.Load(listItems) ' DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE ctx.ExecuteQuery() End Using MessageBox.Show("Document Created!") End If End Sub

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  • Implementation help... Subclass NSManagedObject?

    - by Canada Dev
    I'm working on an app where I have some products that I download in a list. The downloaded products are displayed in a table and each will is showing a detail view with more information. These same products can be saved as a favorite, and for this I am using Core Data. I'd like to be able to re-use a bunch of views for displaying the products, which means the stores object and the downloaded object would have to be the same kind. Now, how would I go about best implementing the objects? Can I make a class such as this: FavoriteProduct : NSManageObject // implementation and then subclass Product : FavoriteProduct // implementation ? The CD class just doesn't give me everything. What would be the best way to merge these two object classes so I have as little work ahead of me in terms of implementing the different views for each object? Basically, I just want to be able to call the same methods, etc. on the Product objects as I would on the ones that are FavoriteProduct objects, and re-use views for both kinds. There's only a bit of difference between the two (one is of course stored as a favorite and has some extra values such as notes, tags, while the Product one doesn't). Thanks in advance

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  • Obtain reference to View in ActionScript class within ViewNavigatorApplication

    - by chb
    I've got a very simple project in FlashBuilder 4.5. It's a mobile application of type ViewNavigatorApplication with a single view, MapView. In the MapView.mxml file, I've got a Flex component of type Map declared in xml. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:View xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" name="CatBusMapView"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import com.esri.ags.Map; .... ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> .... </fx:Declarations> <esri:Map id="cbm"> ... </esri:Map> </s:View> In this same project, I've an actionscript class called UserGeolocation. In this class, I'm attempting to get a reference to this map component. So far, I can get a reference to the top-level application, its ViewNavigator and the NavigationStack of said ViewNavigator. However, I cannot find a way to access the MapView, much less the map I've declared within it. I'm aware of methods like firstView() and activeView(), but I want an absolute solution, one that retrieves the view regardless of whether or not it's first or active. I've tried navigator.getChildByName("MapView") with no luck.

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  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS in NSURLConnection: how to debug?

    - by baswell
    I have an iPhone app that downloads URLs. (PDFs to display) Easy: self.conn = [NSURLConnection connectionWithRequest:self.request delegate:self]; where self.conn is a retained property. For specific URLs, this throws EXC_BAD_ACCESS. The URL is valid and is constructed in the same way as URLs that do work. (90% of URLs are fine) These ones work: http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YARG_11-Mar-2010.pdf http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YARK_11-Mar-2010.pdf These don't: http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YAMK_11-Mar-2010.pdf http://www.airservicesaustralia.com/publications/current/ersa/FAC_YATN_11-Mar-2010.pdf Spot the difference? Yeah, me neither. Also no difference in response headers from the server for them. To clarify, the ones that work ALWAYS work, the ones that don't NEVER work. So not some random release/retain issue it seems. For the ones that don't work, none of the methods in my delegate are ever called, it fails hard before that. And with no error message, just EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Sooo.... Any way to debug what is going on inside NSURLConnection?

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  • Dependencyproperty doesn't have value on load

    - by Jakob
    My problem is this, I have a UC called profile that contains another UC called FollowImageControl. In my Profile.xaml i declaretively bind a property of FollowImageControl called FollowerId to a CurrentUserId from Profile.xaml.cs. Problem is that I CurrentUserId is assigned in Profile.xaml.cs; the Profile.xaml code-behind. This means that I do not initially get the FollowerId. I have these methods in the FollowImageControl.xaml.cs: public static readonly DependencyProperty _followUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("FollowUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(FollowImageControl), null); public Guid FollowUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_followUserId); } set { SetValue(_followUserId, value); } } public FollowImageControl() { // Required to initialize variables InitializeComponent(); LoggedInUserId = WebContext.Current.User.UserId; var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); if (ctx.IsFollowingUser(LoggedInUserId, FollowUserId).Value) SwitchToDelete.Begin(); } private void AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { if (LoggedInUserId != FollowUserId) { var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); ctx.FollowUser(FollowUserId, LoggedInUserId); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } THE WEIRD THING IS that when i insert breakpoints the FollowerUserId in FollowImageControl() is 0, but it has a value in AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown, and there is no inbetween logic that sets the value of it. How is this??? Here's a little more code info: This is my binding from profile.xaml <internalCtrl:FollowImageControl FollowUserId="{Binding ElementName=ProfileCtrl, Path=CurrentUserId}" /> this is my constructor in profile.xaml.cs wherein the CurrentUserId is set public static readonly DependencyProperty _CurrentUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(Profile), null); public Guid CurrentUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_CurrentUserId); } set { SetValue(_CurrentUserId, value); } } public Profile(Guid UserId) { CurrentUserId = UserId; InitializeComponent(); Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(Profile_Loaded); } I'm seriously dumbfound that one minute the FollowerId has no value, and the next it holds the right, without me having changed the value in the code-behind.

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  • iOS6: do we have to set rootViewController in App delegate in order to support different orientations?

    - by Centurion
    The app was perfectly fine working in iOS5 in landscape orientation. However in iOS6, it started to use portrait orientation in all view controllers. The methods shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation are not called anymore. I read the new stuff about changed rotation mechanism in iOS6 and I was able to fix that by adding a line in my AppDelegate: self.window.rootViewController = _viewController _viewControler is the starting screen (Home-menu). All other view controllers implement shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation method and returns YES for landscape orientations only. So, it's perfectly working solution for the app that needs to support only one orientation. However, the problem is I need one view controller (lets call it phone-VC) to be presented in portrait orientation. Now, if I want this view controller would be rotated then I need to return YES in Home-menu controller that is assigned to rootViewControler in appDelegate. However, I can't do that because this rootViewController is starting window that need to presented in landscape only, otherwise the layout with graphics in this window will break. But if I don't return YES from its shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation (Home-menu) then the same method is not called in my view phone-VC that needs to be presented in portrait. Any ideas? Does the assignation of rootViewController is mandatory in AppDelegate? UPDATE: the problem exists on device (at least on iPhone4).

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  • Setting UITabBarItem title from UINavigationController?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I have setup a UITabBarController with two tabs, one is a simple UIViewController and the other is a UINavigationController using second UIViewController as its rootController to set up a UITableView. My question is with regard to naming the tabs (i.e. UITabBarItem) For the first tab (simple UIViewController) I have added the following (see below) to the controllers -init method. - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [self tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"ONE"]; } return self; } For the other tab I have added (see below) to the second controllers init (rootController). - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [[self navigationController] tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"TWO"]; } return self; } Am I setting the second tabBarItem title in the right place as currently it is not showing? EDIT: I can correctly set the UITabBarItem from within the AppDelegate when I first create the controllers, ready for adding to the UITabBarController. But I really wanted to do this in the individual controller -init methods for neatness. // UITabBarController UITabBarController *tempRoot = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [self setRootController:tempRoot]; [tempRoot release]; NSMutableArray *tabBarControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // UIViewController ONE MapController *mapController = [[MapController alloc] init]; [tabBarControllers addObject:mapController]; [mapController release]; // UITableView TWO TableController *rootTableController = [[TableController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tempNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:rootTableController]; [rootTableController release]; [tabBarControllers addObject:tempNavController]; [tempNavController release]; [rootController setViewControllers:tabBarControllers]; [tabBarControllers release]; [window addSubview:[rootController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible];

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  • Visual Studio 2010 compile error with std::string?

    - by AJG85
    So this is possibly the strangest thing I've seen recently and was curious how this could happen. The compiler gave me an error saying that std::string is undefined when used as a return type but not when used as a parameter in methods of a class! #pragma once #include <string> #include <vector> // forward declarations class CLocalReference; class CResultSetHandle; class MyClass { public: MyClass() {} ~MyClass {} void Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh, std::string& item); // this is fine const std::string Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh); // this fails with std::string is undefined?!?! }; Doing a Rebuild All it still happened I had to choose clean solution and then Rebuild All again after for the universe to realign. While it's resolved for the moment I'd still like to know what could have caused this because I'm at a loss as to why when there should be no conflicts especially when I always use fully qualified names for STL.

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  • Is there a case for parameterising using Abstract classes rather than Interfaces?

    - by Chris
    I'm currently developing a component based API that is heavily stateful. The top level components implement around a dozen interfaces each. The stock top-level components therefore sit ontop of a stack of Abstract implementations which in turn contain multiple mixin implementations and implement multiple mixin interfaces. So far, so good (I hope). The problem is that the base functionality is extremely complex to implement (1,000s of lines in 5 layers of base classes) and therefore I do not wish for component writers to implement the interfaces themselves but rather to extend my base classes (where all the boiler plate code is already written). If the API therefore accepts interfaces rather than references to the Abstract implementation that I wish for component writers to extends, then I have a risk that the implementer will not perform the validation that is both required and assumed by other areas of code. Therefore, my question is, is it sometimes valid to paramerise API methods using an abstract implementation reference rather than a reference to the interface(s) that it implements? Do you have an example of a well-designed API that uses this technique or am I trying to talk myself into bad-practice?

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  • Service Layer are repeating my Repositories

    - by Felipe
    Hi all, I'm developing an application using asp.net mvc, NHibernate and DDD. I have a service layer that are used by controllers of my application. Everything are using Unity to inject dependencies (ISessionFactory in repositories, repositories in services and services in controllers) and works fine. But, it's very common I need a method in service to get only object in my repository, like this (in service class): public class ProductService { private readonly IUnitOfWork _uow; private readonly IProductRepository _productRepository; public ProductService(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, IProductRepository productRepository) { this._uow = unitOfWork; this._productRepository = productRepository; } /* this method should be exists in DDD ??? It's very common */ public Domain.Product Get(long key) { return _productRepository.Get(key); } /* other common method... is correct by DDD ? */ public bool Delete(long key) { usign (var tx = _uow.BeginTransaction()) { try { _productRepository.Delete(key); tx.Commit(); return true; } catch { tx.RollBack(); return false; } } } /* ... others methods ... */ } This code is correct by DDD ? For each Service class I have a Repository, and for each service class need I do a method "Get" for an entity ? Thanks guys Cheers

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  • Unit testing a 'legacy' WPF Application

    - by sc_ray
    The product I have been working on has been in development for the past six years. It started as a generic data entry portal into an insanely complex part WPF/part legacy application. The system has been developed for all these years without a single Unit test in its fold. Now, the point has been raised for a comprehensive unit testing framework. I have been recruited recently to work on this product and have been tasked to get the 'Testing' in order. Since the team that worked on the product for the last six years adopted 'Agile', the project lacks any documentation of the business rules or any design documents. I have been trying to write unit tests for some of the modules. But I am not sure what to Mock, how to setup my Test fixture and eventually what to Test for, since a casual glance of the methods does not reveal its intentions. Also, it has come to my attention that the code was not developed with a particular methodology in mind. Given the situation, I was wondering if the good people of Stackoverflow could provide me with some advise on how to salvage this situation. I have heard about the book 'Working with Legacy Code' that has something to say about this general situation but I was thinking about getting some pointers from individuals who have encountered similar situations within the technology stack(C#,VB,C++,.NET 3.5,WCF,SQL Server 2005).

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  • PHP extend a class method that is called from another class which extends it and calls the method wi

    - by dan.codes
    I am trying to extend a class and override one of its methods. lets call that class A. My class, class B, is overiding a protected method. Class C extends class A and Class D extends class C. Inside of Class D, the method I am trying to overwrite is also extended here and that calls parent::mymethodimoverriding. That method does not exist in class C so it goes to it in class A. That is the method I am overiding in class B and obviously you can't extend A with B and have those changes show up in D since it does not fall in line with the class hierarchy. I might be wrong, so correct me please. so if my class b is called and ran then class D gets called it runs the method in A and overwrites what I had set. I am thinking there must be a way to get this to work, I am just missing something. here is an example, as you can see in class A there is a call to setTitle and it is set to "Example" In my class I set it to "NewExample". My class is getting called before class D so when class D is called it goes back to the parent and sets the title back to "Example" class A{ protected function _thefunction(){ setTitle("Example"); } } class B extends A{ protected function _thefunction(){ My new code here setTitle("NewExample"); } } class C extends A{ nothing that matters in here for what I am doing } class D extends C{ protected function _thefunction(){ parent::_thefunction(); additional code here } }

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  • Dom Traversal to Automate Keyboard Focus - Spatial Navigation

    - by Steve
    I'm going to start with a little background that will hopefully help my question make more sense. I am developing an application for a television. The concept is simple and basically works by overlaying a browser over the video plane of the TV. Now being a TV, there is no mouse or additional pointing device. All interaction is done through a remote control. Therefore, the user needs to be able to visually tell which element they are currently focused upon. To indicate that an element is focused, I currently append a colored transparent image over the element to indicate focus. Now, when a user hits the arrow keys, I need to respond by focusing on the correct elements according to the key pressed. So, if the down arrow is pressed I need to focus on the next focusable element in the DOM tree (which may be a child or sibling), and if they hit the up arrow, I need to respond to the previous element. This would essentially simulate spatial navigation within a browser. I am currently setting an attribute (focusable=true) on any DOM elements that should be able to receive focus. What I would like to do is determine the previous or next focusable element (i.e. attribute focusable=true) and apply focus to the element. I was hoping to traverse the DOM tree to determine the next and previously focusable elements, but I am not sure how to perform this in JQuery, or in general. I was leaning towards trying to use the JQuery tree travesal methods like next(), prev(), etc. What approach would you take to solve this type of issue? Thanks

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  • Assigning Object to View, big MySQL resultset.

    - by A Finn
    Hello (Sorry for my bad English) Is it bad practice to assign object to view and call its methods in there? I use smarty as my template engine. In my controller I could do like this 1# $this->view->assign("name", $this->model->getName); and in my view <p>{$name}</p> OR 2# $this->view->assign("Object", $this->model); and in my view <p>{$Report->getName()}</p> Well my biggest problem is that I have to handle a big amount of data coming out from the MySQL and I thought that if I would made a method that would print out the data while looping mysql_fetch_row. Well at least I know that using html-tags in the model is a bad thing to do. So I would assign the object to the view to get the result to the right position on the page.. Reading a mysql-result to an array first may cause memory problems am I right? So what is the solution doing things MVC style.. And yes Im using a framework of my own.

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  • transferring binary files between systems

    - by tim
    Hi guys I'm trying to transfer my files between 2 UNIX clusters, the data is pure numeric (vectors of double) in binary form. Unfortunately one of the systems is IBM ppc997 and the other is AMD Opteron, It seems the format of binary numbers in these systems are different. I have tried 3 ways till now: 1- Changed my files to ASCII format (i.e. saved a number at each line in a text file), sent them to the destination and changed them again to binary on the target system (they both are UNIX, no end of line character difference??!) 2- Sent pure binaries to the destination 3- used uuencode sent them to the destination and decoded them Unfortunately any of these methods does not work (my code in the destination system generates garbage, while it works on the first system, I'm 100% sure the code itself is portable). I don't know what else I can do? Do you have any idea? I'm not a professional, please don't use computer scientists terminology! And: my codes are in C, so by binary I mean a one to one mapping between memory and hard disk. Thanks

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  • Require reasonably random results from an SQL SELECT query within a Joomla article (Cache enabled)

    - by Shrinivas
    Setup: Joomla website on LAMP stack I have a MySQL table containing some records, these are queried by a simple SELECT on the Joomla article, as pasted below. This specific Joomla website has Caching turned on in Joomla's Global Configuration. I need to randomize the order in which I display the resultset, each time the page is loaded. Regular php/mysql would offer me two approaches for this: 1. use 'order by RAND()' or any of a number of methods to allow a SELECT query to return reasonably random results. 2. once php gets the result from the SELECT into an array, shuffle the array to get a reasonably random order of array items. However, as this Joomla instance has Caching turned ON in its Global Configuration, either of the above approaches fails. The first time I load the page the order is randomized, however any further reloads do not cause the order to change, as the page is delivered from cache. The instant the Cache is disabled, both approaches (shuffle/order by rand) work perfectly. What am I missing? How do I override the Global Cache for this specific article? A very simple requirement, that is met by both php and mysql reasonably well, is blocked by the Joomla Cache that I cannot turn off. The php that returns results from the database. <pre> $db = JFactory::getDBO(); $select = "SELECT id FROM jos_mytable;"; //order by RAND() $db->setQuery($select); echo $db->getQuery(); //Show me the Query! $rows = $db->loadObjectList(); //shuffle($rows); foreach($rows as $row) { echo "$row->id"; }

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  • Initializing own plugins

    - by jgauffin
    I've written a few jquery plugins for my client. I want to write a function which would initialize each plugin which have been loaded. Example: <script src="/Scripts/jquery.plugin1.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.plugin2.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="/Scripts/jquery.initializer.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> Here I've loaded plugin1 and plugin2. Plugin1 should be attached to all links with class name 'ajax' and plugin2 to all divs with class name 'test2': $('document').ready(function(){ $('a.ajax').plugin1(); $('div.test2').plugin2(); } I know that I can use jQuery().pluginName to check if a plugin exists. But I want to have a leaner way. Can all loaded plugins register a initialize function in an array or something like that which I in document.ready can iterate through and invoke? like: //in plugin1.js myCustomPlugins['plugin1'] = function() { $('a.ajax').plugin1(); }; // and in the initializer script: myCustomPlugins.each(function() { this(); }; Guess it all boiled down to three questions: How do I use a jquery "global" array? How do I iterate through that array to invoke registered methods Are there a better approach?

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  • make arm architecture c library in mac

    - by gamegamelife
    I'm trying to make my own c library in Mac and include it to my iphone program. The c code is simple , like this: math.h: int myPow2(int); math.c: #include "math.h" int myPow2(int num) { return num*num; } I search how to make the c library file ( .a or .lib ..etc) seems need to use gcc compiler (Is there other methods?) so I use this command: gcc -c math.c -o math.o ar rcs libmath.a math.o And include it in iPhone Project. Now it has the problem when build xcode iphone project. "file was built for unsupported file format which is not the architecture being linked" I found some pages discuss about the problem, but no detail how to make the i386/arm architecture library. And I finally use this command to do it: gcc -arch i386 -c math.c -o math.o /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin/arm-apple-darwin10-gcc-4.2.1 -c math.c -o math.o I dont know if this method is correct? Or there has another method to do it?

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