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  • Require reasonably random results from an SQL SELECT query within a Joomla article (Cache enabled)

    - by Shrinivas
    Setup: Joomla website on LAMP stack I have a MySQL table containing some records, these are queried by a simple SELECT on the Joomla article, as pasted below. This specific Joomla website has Caching turned on in Joomla's Global Configuration. I need to randomize the order in which I display the resultset, each time the page is loaded. Regular php/mysql would offer me two approaches for this: 1. use 'order by RAND()' or any of a number of methods to allow a SELECT query to return reasonably random results. 2. once php gets the result from the SELECT into an array, shuffle the array to get a reasonably random order of array items. However, as this Joomla instance has Caching turned ON in its Global Configuration, either of the above approaches fails. The first time I load the page the order is randomized, however any further reloads do not cause the order to change, as the page is delivered from cache. The instant the Cache is disabled, both approaches (shuffle/order by rand) work perfectly. What am I missing? How do I override the Global Cache for this specific article? A very simple requirement, that is met by both php and mysql reasonably well, is blocked by the Joomla Cache that I cannot turn off. The php that returns results from the database. <pre> $db = JFactory::getDBO(); $select = "SELECT id FROM jos_mytable;"; //order by RAND() $db->setQuery($select); echo $db->getQuery(); //Show me the Query! $rows = $db->loadObjectList(); //shuffle($rows); foreach($rows as $row) { echo "$row->id"; }

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  • Writing my own implementation of stl-like Iterator in C++.

    - by Negai
    Good evening everybody, I'm currently trying to understand the intrinsics of iterators in various languages i.e. the way they are implemented. For example, there is the following class exposing the list interface. template<class T> class List { public: virtual void Insert( int beforeIndex, const T item ) throw( ListException ) =0 ; virtual void Append( const T item ) =0; virtual T Get( int position ) const throw( ListException ) =0; virtual int GetLength() const =0; virtual void Remove( int position ) throw( ListException ) =0; virtual ~List() =0 {}; }; According to GoF, the best way to implement an iterator that can support different kinds of traversal is to create the base Iterator class (friend of List) with protected methods that can access List's members. The concrete implementations of Iterator will handle the job in different ways and access List's private and protected data through the base interface. From here forth things are getting confusing. Say, I have class LinkedList and ArrayList, both derived from List, and there are also corresponding iterators, each of the classes returns. How can I implement LinkedListIterator? I'm absolutely out of ideas. And what kind of data can the base iterator class retrieve from the List (which is a mere interface, while the implementations of all the derived classes differ significantly) ? Sorry for so much clutter. Thanks.

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • mutableCopyWithZone updating a property value.

    - by Jim
    I have a Class that I need to copy with the ability to make changes the value of a variable on both Classes. Simply put the classes need to remain clones of each other at all times. My understanding of the documentation is that I can do this using a shallow copy of the Class which has also been declared mutable. By shallow copying the pointer value for the variable will be cloned so that it is an exact match in both classes. So when I update the variable in the original the copy will be updated simultaneously. Is this right? As you can see below I have used mutableCopyWithZone in the class I want to copy. I have tried both NSCopyObject and allocWithZone methods to get this to work. Although I'm able to copy the class and it appears as intended, when updating the variable it is not changing value in the copied Class. - (id)mutableCopyWithZone:(NSZone *)zone { //ReviewViewer *copy = NSCopyObject(self, 0, zone); ReviewViewer *copy = [[[self class] allocWithZone:zone] init]; copy->infoTextViews = [infoTextViews copy]; return copy; } infoTextViews is a property declared as nonatomic, retain in the header file of the class being copied. I have also implemented the NSMutableCopying protocol accordingly. Any help would be great.

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  • Performing an action on Parent/Child elements independently.

    - by Matt Weldon
    I have HTML similar to the following in my page <div id="someDiv"> <img src="foo.gif" class="someImg" /> </div> The wrapper div is set up such that when it is clicked, it's background-color changes using the following jQuery code. $("div").click(function(event){ $(this).css("background-color", "blue"); }); I also have some jQuery associated with my img that will do some other function (for the sake of argument I am going to display and alert box) like so: $("img[class=someImg]").click(function(event){ alert("Image clicked"); }); The issue I have come across is that when I click on the img, the event associated with the div is also triggered. I'm pretty sure that this is due to the way that jQuery (or indeed JavaScript) is handling the two DOM elements - clicking the img would require you to also technically click the div, thus triggering both events. Two questions then really: Is my understanding of the DOM/JavaScript flawed in some way or is this actually how things are occurring? Are there any jQuery methods that would allow me to perform actions on a child element without invoking those associated with its parent?

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  • How do you handle huge if-conditions?

    - by Teifion
    It's something that's bugged me in every language I've used, I have an if statement but the conditional part has so many checks that I have to split it over multiple lines, use a nested if statement or just accept that it's ugly and move on with my life. Are there any other methods that you've found that might be of use to me and anybody else that's hit the same problem? Example, all on one line: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true && var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true){ Example, multi-line: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true && var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true){ Example-nested: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true){     if (var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true)     {

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  • Scope of Groovy's ExpandoMetaClass?

    - by TicketMonster
    Groovy exposes an ExpandoMetaClass that allows you to dynamically add instance and class methods/properties to a POJO. I would like to use it to add an instance method to one of my Java classes: public class Fizz { // ...etc. } Fizz fizz = new Fizz(); fizz.metaClass.doStuff = { String blah -> fizz.buzz(blah) } This would be the equivalent to refactoring the Fizz class to have: public class Fizz { // ctors, getters/setters, etc... public void doStuff(String blah) { buzz(blah); } } My question: Does this add doStuff(String blah) to only this particular instance of Fizz? Or do all instances of Fizz now have a doStuff(String blah) instance method? If the former, how do I get all instances of Fizz to have the doStuff instance method? I know that if I made the Groovy: fizz.metaClass.doStuff << { String blah -> fizz.buzz(blah) } Then that would add a static class method to Fizz, such as Fizz.doStuff(String blah), but that's not what I want. I just want all instances of Fizz to now have an instance method called doStuff. Ideas?

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  • Temporarily disable vim plugin without relaunching

    - by simont
    I'm using c-support in Vim. One of it's features is the automatic comment expansion. When I'm pasting code into Vim from an external editor, the comments are expanded (which gives me double-comments and messes up the paste - see below for example). I'd like to be able to disable the plugin, paste, then re-enable it, without relaunching Vim. I'm not sure if this is possible. The SO questions here, here and here all describe methods to disable plugins, but they all require me to close Vim, mess with my .vimrc or similar, and relaunch; if I have to close Vim, I might as well cat file1 >> myfile; vim myfile, then shift the lines internally, which will be just as quick. Is it possible to disable a plugin while running vim without relaunching, preferably in a way which allows me to map a hot-key toggle-plugin (so re-sourcing ~/.vimrc is alright; that's mappable to a hotkey [I imagine, haven't tried it yet])? Messed up comments: /* * * Authors: * * A Name * * * * Copyright: * * A Name, 2012 * */ EDIT: It turns out you can :set paste, :set nopaste (which, to quote :help paste, will "avoid unexpected effects [while pasting]". (See the comments). However, I'm still curious whether you can disable/enable a plugin as per the original question, so I shall leave the question open.

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  • Can't use method from class in other file

    - by user1833848
    I am not able to use one of my methods that i implemented in my tableviewcell file in my tableview controller implementation. I tried searching the web and xcode help with no luck. My codes looks like this: TableViewController.h: #import TableViewCell.h @interface TableViewController : UITableViewController @property (nonatomic, strong) IBOutlet UIBarButtonItem *A1Buy; @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender; TableViewController.m: @implementation A1ViewController @synthesize A1Buy = _A1Buy; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (IBAction)A1Buy:(UIBarButtonItem *)sender { [TableViewCell Enable]; //this is where it gives an error } TableViewCell.h: @interface TableViewCell : UITableViewCell { BOOL Enable; BOOL Disable; } @property (nonatomic, getter = isUserInteractionEnabled) BOOL userInteractionEnabled; TableViewCell.m: @implementation TableViewCell; @synthesize userInteractionEnabled; - (BOOL) Enable { return userInteractionEnabled = YES; } - (BOOL) Disable { return userInteractionEnabled = NO; } As you can see i am trying to enable user interaction with a button, but Xcode only gives me errors like "class does not have this method" and stuff like that. All files are importet correctly so thats not why. Would appreciate any help. Thanks!

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  • Java Equivalent of C++ .dll?

    - by Matt D
    So, I've been programming for a while now, but since I haven't worked on many larger, modular projects, I haven't come across this issue before. I know what a .dll is in C++, and how they are used. But every time I've seen similar things in Java, they've always been packaged with source code. For instance, what would I do if I wanted to give a Java library to someone else, but not expose the source code? Instead of the source, I would just give a library as well as a Javadoc, or something along those lines, with the public methods/functions, to another programmer who could then implement them in their own Java code. For instance, if I wanted to create a SAX parser that could be "borrowed" by another programmer, but (for some reason--can't think of one in this specific example lol) I don't want to expose my source. Maybe there's a login involved that I don't want exploited--I don't know. But what would be the Java way of doing this? With C++, .dll files make it much easier, but I have never run into a Java equivalent so far. (I'm pretty new to Java, and a pretty new "real-world" programmer, in general as well)

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  • Best way and problems when using ajax tabs with an MVC PHP project

    - by Jonathan
    Hi, I'm building an IMDB.com like website using PHP/jQuery and a MVC approach (no OOP). I have an index.php base controller to 'rule them all' :), a controllers folder with all the controllers, a models folder and a view folder. In some pages of the website I have tabbed navigation, when the visitor clicks on one of those tabs to get more information, jQuery gets that data using the $.post or $.get method and shows it on the tab container, obviously without refreshing the page. The problem is that those pages loaded by ajax are also generated using controllers, models, and views, and the things are getting a bit complicated for someone like me ( = 'no experience'). To dynamically get the data I some times need to include a model twice, include an include in an include in an include, send information multiple times, connect with the database again, and all sort of things like that and I'm sure there is a better and prettier way to do this. I'm searching for the best approach and common methods for this. I have no experience working with a big project like this. This is a personal project so I have full control and every answer is welcome. Thanks!!!

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  • Why in the world is this Moq + NUnit test failing?

    - by Dave Falkner
    I have this dataAccess mock object and I'm trying to verify that one of its methods is being invoked, and that the argument passed into this method fulfills certain constraints. As best I can tell, this method is indeed being invoked, and with the constraints fulfilled. This line of the test throws a MockException: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.Is<Invoice>(i => i.TermPaymentAmount == 0m)), Times.Once()); However, removing the constraint and accepting any invoice passes the test: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>()), Times.Once()); I've created a test windows form that instantiates this test class, runs its .Setup() method, and then calls the method which I am wishing to test. I insert a breakpoint on the line of code where the mock object is failing the test data.InsertInvoice(invoice); to actually hover over the invoice, and I can confirm that its .TermPaymentAmount decimal property is indeed zero at the time the method is invoked. Out of desperation, I even added a call back to my dataAccess mock: data.Setup(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>())).Callback((Invoice inv) => System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(inv.TermPaymentAmount.ToString("G17"))); And this gives me a message box showing "0". This is really baffling me, and no one else in my shop has been able to figure this out. Any help would be appreciated. A barely related question, which I should probably ask independently, is whether it is preferable to use Mock.Verify(...) as I have here, or to use Mock.Expect(...).Verifiable followed by Mock.VerifyAll() as I have seen other people doing? If the answer is situational, which situations would warrent the use of one over the other?

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  • Patterns and Libraries for working with raw UI values.

    - by ProfK
    By raw values, I mean the application level values provided by UI controls, such as the Text property on a TextBox. Too often I find myself writing code to check and parse such values before they get used as a business level value, e.g. PaymentTermsNumDays. I've mitigated a lot of the spade work with rough and ready extension methods like String.ToNullableInt, but we all know that just isn't right. We can't put the whole world on String's shoulders. Do I look at tasking my UI to provide business values, using a ruleset pushed out from the server app, or open my business objects up a bit to do the required sanitising etc. as they required? Neither of these approaches sits quite right with me; the first seems closer to ideal, but quite a bit of work, while the latter doesn't show much respect to the business objects' single responsibility. The responsibilities of the UI are a closer match. Between these extremes, I could also just implement another DTO layer, an IoC container with sanitising and parsing services, derive enhanced UI controls, or stick to copy and paste inline drudgery.

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  • Javascript append to onClick event

    - by John Hartsock
    Guys I have the following Code which I know doesnt work correctly. Yes I know how to do this in JQuery but In this case I cannot use jquery. Please no jquery answers. <form> <input type="text" name="input1" onclick="alert('hello')"> <input type="text" name="input2"> <input type="text" name="input3"> </form> <script type="text\javascript"> window.onload = function () { var currentOnClick; for (var i = 0; i < document.forms[0].elements.length; i++) { currentOnClick = document.forms[0].elements[i].onclick; document.forms[0].elements[i].onclick = function () { if (currentOnClick) { currentOnClick(); } alert("hello2"); } } } </script> What Im trying to do is iterate through the form's elements and add to the onclick function. But due to the fact that in my last iteration currentOnClick is null this does not run as expected. I want to preserve each of the elements onclick methods and play them back in the new fuction Im creating. What I want: When input1 is clicked, alert "hello" then alert "hello2" When Input2 is clicked, alert "hello2" When Input3 is clicked, alert "hello2"

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  • TDD approach for complex function

    - by jamie
    I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

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  • Python: Behavior of object in set operations

    - by Josh Arenberg
    I'm trying to create a custom object that behaves properly in set operations. I've generally got it working, but I want to make sure I fully understand the implications. In particular, I'm interested in the behavior when there is additional data in the object that is not included in the equal / hash methods. It seems that in the 'intersection' operation, it returns the set of objects that are being compared to, where the 'union' operations returns the set of objects that are being compared. To illustrate: class MyObject: def __init__(self,value,meta): self.value = value self.meta = meta def __eq__(self,other): if self.value == other.value: return True else: return False def __hash__(self): return hash(self.value) a = MyObject('1','left') b = MyObject('1','right') c = MyObject('2','left') d = MyObject('2','right') e = MyObject('3','left') print a == b # True print a == c # False for i in set([a,c,e]).intersection(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 right #2 right for i in set([a,c,e]).union(set([b,d])): print "%s %s" % (i.value,i.meta) #returns: #1 left #3 left #2 left Is this behavior documented somewhere and deterministic? If so, what is the governing principle?

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  • Call from a singleton class to a function which in turn calls that class's method

    - by dare2be
    Hello, I am still looking for a way to phrase it properly (I'm not a native speaker...). So I have this class SQL which implements the singleton pattern (for obvious reasons) and I also have this function, checkUsr(), which queries the database using one of SQL's methods. Everything works fine as long as I don't call checkUsr() from within the SQL class. When I do so, the scripts just exits and a blank page is displayed - no errors are returned, no exception is thrown... What's happening? And how do I work around this problem? EDIT: class SQL { public static function singleton() { static $instance; if(!isset($instance)) $instance = new SQL; return $instance; } public function tryLoginAuthor( $login, $sha1 ) { (...) } } function checkUsr() { if (!isset($_SESSION['login']) || !isset($_SESSION['sha1'])) throw new Exception('Not logged in', 1); $SQL = SQL::singleton(); $res = $SQL->tryLoginAuthor($_SESSION['login'], $_SESSION['sha1']); if (!isset($res[0])) throw new Exception('Not logged in', 1); }

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  • How do you send an extended-ascii AT-command (CCh) from Android bluetooth to a serial device?

    - by softex
    This one really has me banging my head. I'm sending alphanumeric data from an Android app, through the BluetoothChatService, to a serial bluetooth adaptor connected to the serial input of a radio transceiver. Everything works fine except when I try to configure the radio on-the-fly with its AT-commands. The AT+++ (enter command mode) is received OK, but the problem comes with the extended-ascii characters in the next two commands: Changing the radio destination address (which is what I'm trying to do) requires CCh 10h (plus 3 hex radio address bytes), and exiting the command mode requires CCh ATO. I know the radio can be configured OK because I've done it on an earlier prototype with the serial commands from PIC basic, and it also can be configured by entering the commands directly from hyperterm. Both these methods somehow convert that pesky CCh into a form the radio understands. I've have tried just about everything an Android noob could possibly come up with to finagle the encoding such as: private void command_address() { byte[] addrArray = {(byte) 0xCC, 16, 36, 65, 21, 13}; CharSequence addrvalues = EncodingUtils.getString(addrArray, "UTF-8"); sendMessage((String) addrvalues); } but no matter what, I can't seem to get that high-order byte (CCh/204/-52) to behave as it should. All other (< 127) bytes, command or data, transmit with no problem. Any help here would be greatly appreciated. -Dave

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  • UITableView populating EVERY OTHER launch

    - by Joshmattvander
    I am having a problem that I cant seem to get to the bottom of. In my view did load code, I am creating an array and attempting to populate the table. For some reason it only populates the data on EVERY OTHER time the app is run. I put logs in viewDidLoad which runs as does viewWillAppear and outputs the correct count for the array. Also, the UITableView specicic methods get called when it works and they just don't get called when it doesnt work. I cant figure out the root of this problem. Again this occurrence happens exactly 50% of the time. Theres no dynamic data that could be tripping up or anything. #import "InfoViewController.h" @implementation InfoViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"Info View Loaded"); // This runs infoList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; //Set The Data //Theres 8 similar lines [infoList addObject :[[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Scrubbed", @"name", @"scrubbed", @"url", nil]]; NSLog(@"%d", [infoList count]); // This shows the count correctly every time [super viewDidLoad]; } -(void) viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog(@"Info Will Appear"); // This Runs } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // This WILL NOT RUN when it doesnt work, and DOES show the count when it does run NSLog(@"Counted in numberOfRowsInSection %d", [infoList count]); return [infoList count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"ROW"); static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"infoCell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; cell.textLabel.text = [[infoList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; return cell; } @end

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  • How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

    - by Quigrim
    Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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  • Is it possible in SQLAlchemy to filter by a database function or stored procedure?

    - by Rico Suave
    We're using SQLalchemy in a project with a legacy database. The database has functions/stored procedures. In the past we used raw SQL and we could use these functions as filters in our queries. I would like to do the same for SQLAlchemy queries if possible. I have read about the @hybrid_property, but some of these functions need one or more parameters, for example; I have a User model that has a JOIN to a bunch of historical records. These historical records for this user, have a date and a debit and credit field, so we can look up the balance of a user at a specific point in time, by doing a SUM(credit) - SUM(debit) up until the given date. We have a database function for that called dbo.Balance(user_id, date_time). I can use this to check the balance of a user at a given point in time. I would like to use this as a criterium in a query, to select only users that have a negative balance at a specific date/time. selection = users.filter(coalesce(Users.status, 0) == 1, coalesce(Users.no_reminders, 0) == 0, dbo.pplBalance(Users.user_id, datetime.datetime.now()) < -0.01).all() This is of course a non-working example, just for you to get the gist of what I'd like to do. The solution looks to be to use hybrd properties, but as I mentioned above, these only work without parameters (as they are properties, not methods). Any suggestions on how to implement something like this (if it's even possible) are welcome. Thanks,

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  • sortable list using jquery ui not passing updated list order

    - by Matthew Berman
    I am following the sortable lists railscast and got everything working except when I sort, the same (original) order gets passed to the update method each time, so it doesn't update the true order. Here's the code: In the view: %tbody#lineup{"data-update-url" => sort_lineups_url} - @lineup.pieces.each_with_index do |piece, index| = content_tag_for :tr, piece do = render 'piece', :piece => piece, :index => index and pieces.js.coffee: jQuery -> $('#lineup').sortable( axis: 'y' update: -> $.post($(this).data('update-url'), $(this).sortable('serialize')) ); sort and show methods of lineupscontroller: def show @lineup = Lineup.find_by_user_id(current_user.id) @pieces = @lineup.pieces.order("position") end def sort params[:piece].each_with_index do |id, index| current_user.lineup.pieces.update_all({position: index+1}, {id: id}) end render nothing: true end and the update request: Started POST "/lineups/sort" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-06-24 20:06:14 -0700 Processing by LineupsController#sort as */* Parameters: {"piece"=>["8", "2", "1", "4", "3", "7"]} User Load (0.4ms) SELECT `users`.* FROM `users` WHERE `users`.`id` = 2 LIMIT 1 Lineup Load (0.6ms) SELECT `lineups`.* FROM `lineups` WHERE `lineups`.`user_id` = 2 LIMIT 1 SQL (2.9ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 1 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 8 SQL (0.6ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 2 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 2 SQL (0.6ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 3 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 1 SQL (0.5ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 4 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 4 SQL (0.6ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 5 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 3 SQL (0.5ms) UPDATE `pieces` INNER JOIN `piece_lineups` ON `pieces`.`id` = `piece_lineups`.`piece_id` SET `position` = 6 WHERE `piece_lineups`.`lineup_id` = 3 AND `pieces`.`id` = 7 Rendered text template (0.0ms) so each time i drag+drop the list, it sends the same order again. what am I doing wrong that the params isn't passing the right, updated order? Completed 200 OK in 2757ms (Views: 1.0ms | ActiveRecord: 6.7ms)

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  • recursive wget with hotlinked requisites

    - by dongle
    I often use wget to mirror very large websites. Sites that contain hotlinked content (be it images, video, css, js) pose a problem, as I seem unable to specify that I would like wget to grab page requisites that are on other hosts, without having the crawl also follow hyperlinks to other hosts. For example, let's look at this page https://dl.dropbox.com/u/11471672/wget-all-the-things.html Let's pretend that this is a large site that I would like to completely mirror, including all page requisites – including those that are hotlinked. wget -e robots=off -r -l inf -pk ^^ gets everything but the hotlinked image wget -e robots=off -r -l inf -pk -H ^^ gets everything, including hotlinked image, but goes wildly out of control, proceeding to download the entire web wget -e robots=off -r -l inf -pk -H --ignore-tags=a ^^ gets the first page, including both hotlinked and local image, does not follow the hyperlink to the site outside of scope, but obviously also does not follow the hyperlink to the next page of the site. I know that there are various other tools and methods of accomplishing this (HTTrack and Heritrix allow for the user to make a distinction between hotlinked content on other hosts vs hyperlinks to other hosts) but I'd like to see if this is possible with wget. Ideally this would not be done in post-processing, as I would like the external content, requests, and headers to be included in the WARC file I'm outputting.

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  • How do I call C++/CLI (.NET) DLLs from standard, unmanaged non-.NET applications?

    - by tronjohnson
    In the unmanaged world, I was able to write a __declspec(dllexport) or, alternatively, use a .DEF file to expose a function to be able to call a DLL. (Because of name mangling in C++ for the __stdcall, I put aliases into the .DEF file so certain applications could re-use certain exported DLL functions.) Now, I am interested in being able to expose a single entry-point function from a .NET assembly, in unmanaged-fashion, but have it enter into .NET-style functions within the DLL. Is this possible, in a simple and straight-forward fashion? What I have is a third-party program that I have extended through DLLs (plugins) that implement some complex mathematics. However, the third-party program has no means for me to visualize the calculations. I want to somehow take these pre-written math functions, compile them into a separate DLL (but using C++/CLI in .NET), but then add hooks to the functions so I can render what's going on under the hood in a .NET user control. I'm not sure how to blend the .NET stuff with the unmanaged stuff, or what to Google to accomplish this task. Specific suggestions with regard to the managed/unmanaged bridge, or alternative methods to accomplish the rendering in the manner I have described would be helpful. Thank you.

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  • Split a string by comma, quote and full-stop.. with a few exceptions

    - by dunc
    I've got a lot of text, similar to the following paragraph, which I'd like to split into words without punctuation (', ", ,, ., newline etc).. with a few exceptions. Initially considered endemic to the Chalakudy River system in Kerala state, southern India, but now recognised to have a wider distribution in surrounding drainages including the Periyar, Manimala, and Pamba river though the Manimala data may be questionable given it seems to be the type locality of P. denisonii. In the Achankovil River basin it occurs sympatrically, and sometimes syntopically, with P. denisonii. Wild stocks may have dwindled by as much as 50% in the last 15 years or so with collection for the aquarium trade largely held responsible although habitats are also being degraded by pollution from agricultural and domestic sources, plus destructive fishing methods involving explosives or organic toxins. The text refers to P. denisonii which is a species of fish. It's an abbreviation of Genus species. I would like this reference to be one word. So, for instance, this is the kind of array I'd like to see: Array ( ... [44] given [45] it [46] seems [47] to [48] be [49] the [50] type [51] locality [52] of [53] P. denisonii [54] In [55] the ... ) The only things that distinguish these species references such as P. denisonii from a new sentence like end. New are: The P (for Puntius, as in the P. in the aforementioned example) is only ever one letter, always a capital the d (as in . denisonii) is always either a lower case letter or an apostrophe (') What regexp can I use with preg_split to give me such an array? I've tried a simple explode( " ", $array ) but it doesn't do the job at all. Thanks in advance,

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